150 Multiple Choice Questions - Social Psychology 1 - Introduction |, Exams of Social Psychology

Download 150 Multiple Choice Questions - Social Psychology 1 - Introduction | and more Exams Social Psychology in PDF only on Docsity! Unit 4 Study Guide Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The term ____ refers to the scientific study of the origins, symptoms, and development of mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders and to the disorders, themselves. a. psychosis b. neurosis c. psychopathology d. neuropathology 2. Although her family is unaware of her feelings of hopelessness and despair, Carmen is very unhappy. Thus, she would be exhibiting psychopathology based on a. statistical abnormality. b. social nonconformity. c. subjective discomfort. d. cultural relativity. 3. A person, whose immoral behavior harms others, but who feels no remorse for such harmful behavior, would NOT be regarded as abnormal if the criterion used is a. long-term welfare of society. b. long-term welfare of the individual. c. maladaptive behavior. d. subjective discomfort. 4. Statistical approaches to abnormality define as "abnormal" those who a. show evidence of loss of contact with reality. b. are unhappy, withdrawn, and depressed. c. deviate from typical or average patterns of behavior. d. are disabled by anxiety. 5. In this country, a drug abuser or a prostitute would most likely be judged as abnormal based on a. subjective discomfort. b. cultural relativity. c. social nonconformity. d. statistical abnormality. 6. In some countries, it is normal to defecate or urinate in public. This makes it clear that judgments of the normality of behavior are a. culturally relative. b. statistically determined c. a matter of subjective discomfort. d. random and unpredictable. 7. Which of the following situations does NOT indicate that an individual needs psychological help? a. Fred is a compulsive gambler. b. Mary is a mildly mentally retarded adult who has recently become aggressive toward her parents. c. Shelia is a 50-year-old grandmother who rides motorcycles, skydives, and skateboards. d. Gary goes on frequent buying sprees to improve his mood. 8. The system used in the United States and Canada to classify psychological problems a. is the Freudian Psychoanalytic System (FPS). b. is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV-TR). c. was designed by Emil Kraepelin and Eugen Bleuler. d. is to be found in the Federal Uniform Code of Psychopathology (UCP). 9. Descriptions of disorders in the DSM-IV-TR a. can be found for all forms of psychopathology documents in the world's many cultures. b. are derived from survey responses from board-certified clinicians in North American and Europe. c. are based on empirical data and clinical observations. d. are intentionally vague so that all known disorders can be categorized. 10. A(n)____ is defined by a significant impairment in psychological functioning. a. social non-conformity b. situational deviation c. mental disorder d. physiological disorder 11. The chief distinguishing feature of psychotic disorders is a. confusion of fantasy and reality. b. antisocial conduct. c. overwhelming anxiety. d. obsessive behavior. 12. The most severe psychological disorder is a(n) a. personality disorder. b. psychosomatic illness. c. anxiety disorder. d. psychosis. 13. Robert was found wandering naked in the campus parking lot, proclaiming himself to be "Father Time." He shows evidence of a(n) ____ disorder. a. anxiety b. psychotic c. personality d. affective 14. Schizophrenia and delusional disorders are types of a. personality disorders. b. mood disorders. c. psychotic disorders. d. dissociative disorders. 15. Shirley suffers from alternating episodes of mania and depression. She would most likely be diagnosed as having a(n) a. personality disorder. b. anxiety disorder. c. mood disorder. d. dissociative disorder. 16. Which of the following is classified as a mood disorder? a. bipolar disorder b. multiple personality disorder c. delusional disorder d. dissociative disorder b. impulsive, selfish behavior. c. a tendency to manipulate others. d. subjective discomfort. 34. The phrase that describes the antisocial personality is a. publicity seeker. b. lack of conscience. c. self-love d. fear of failure. 35. ____ refers to feelings of apprehension, dread, or uneasiness. a. Anxiety b. Fear c. Phobia d. Depression 36. By comparison with an anxiety disorder, an adjustment disorder a. is more severe and disruptive. b. is a temporary pattern associated with stress. c. tends to persist even when a person's life circumstances improve. d. involves a break with reality. 37. In most anxiety disorders, the person's distress is a. focused on a specific situation. b. related to ordinary life stresses. c. greatly out of proportion to the situation. d. based on a physical cause. 38. Social phobia, post-traumatic stress disorder, and agoraphobia are classified as a. adjustment disorders. b. anxiety disorders. c. moderate mood disorders. d. somatoform disorders. 39. Many people suffering ____ may believe they are having a heart attack, going insane, or about to die. a. a panic attack b. generalized anxiety c. episodic agoraphobia d. a nervous breakdown 40. A person whose feelings of insecurity are so great that he or she may be housebound is characterized as suffering from a. agoraphobia. b. homophobia. c. an obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. a panic disorder. 41. Irrational and very specific fears that persist even when there is no real danger to a person are called a. anxieties. b. compulsion. c. specific phobias. d. dissociations. 42. Acrophobia refers to fear of a. heights. b. open places. c. spiders and other insects. d. disease, decay, or death. 43. Arachnophobia is a fear of a. germs. b. blood. c. heights. d. spiders. 44. A ritualistic act that a person feels compelled to perform is called a(n) a. obsession. b. compulsion. c. phobia. d. regression. 45. Julie can't stop thinking about germs and dirt. She spends all day cleaning her house. She is suffering from a. phobic disorder. b. paranoia. c. delusional disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. 46. An obsession is a. something you can't stop thinking about. b. a behavior that you can't stop performing. c. saying something over and over. d. repeated self-destructive behavior. 47. Thoughts or images that intrude into consciousness against a person's will are termed a. phobias. b. obsessions. c. compulsions. d. fantasies. 48. Which of the following would be an example of a compulsion? a. frequent hand washing b. intrusive thoughts about sexual acts c. persistent concern about air quality in one's workplace d. repeatedly envisioning a violent act against a specific family member 49. A disorder that is a delayed reaction to a catastrophic event is called a. obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. post-traumatic stress disorder. c. adjustment psychosis. d. dissociative disorder. 50. Which of the following is NOT a dissociative disorder? a. schizophrenia b. fugue c. multiple personality d. amnesia 51. Which of the following is an example of dissociative amnesia? a. Carl frequently forgets the names of people he doesn't like. b. Gwen often tries to draw attention by pretending she doesn't remember who she is. c. Following a series of personal traumas, Vince could not identify himself or recall his past. d. Laura recalls her name and past, but not events that have happened since a concussion in May. 52. The extreme reaction known as fugue refers to a. physical flight to escape conflict. b. severe depression. c. hallucinations. d. obsessive behavior. 53. In most cases, dissociative identity disorder occurs as a response to a. an overdose of drugs or alcohol. b. inconsistency in parental discipline. c. a concussion or other injury to the brain. d. extreme abuse or trauma. 54. Multiple personality, or dissociative identity disorder, often begins a. as a result of combat exhaustion. b. in adulthood as a response to unremitting phobias. c. as a consequence of obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. in childhood as a result of unbearable experiences. 55. A person who is preoccupied with fears of having a serious disease suffers from a. a conversion reaction. b. hypochondriasis. c. a traumatic disorder. d. an obsession. 56. The primary characteristic of psychotic behavior is a. being dangerous to oneself or others. b. subjective discomfort. c. the degree of incapacitation. d. a loss of contact with reality. 57. When a person experiences delusions and/or hallucinations and loses contact with shared views of reality, the person is experiencing a a. psychosis. b. neurosis. c. nervous breakdown. d. paraphilia. 58. False beliefs that are held even when the facts contradict them are called a. fantasies. b. hallucinations. c. illusions. d. delusions. 59. Mary believes that she is the Queen of England. She is having a. depressive delusions. b. delusions of grandeur. c. delusions of reference. d. delusions of persecution. 60. Imaginary sensations, such as seeing, hearing, or smelling things that do not exist in the real world are known as a. delusions. b. illusions. c. hallucinations. d. paradoxical intentions. b. unconscious thoughts and feelings are explored. c. the formation of new, more productive habit patterns is stressed. d. a non-directive atmosphere of growth is created. 79. Which of the following is NOT a humanistic therapy? a. client-centered b. Gestalt c. existential d. psychoanalysis 80. Client-centered therapy is based on the work of a. Albert Ellis. b. Carl Rogers. c. Sigmund Freud. d. B.F. Skinner. 81. Which therapy focuses on active listening and an attempt to show empathy and reflect the client's thoughts and feelings? a. psychoanalysis b. client-centered therapy c. logotherapy d. Gestalt therapy 82. Total and uncritical acceptance of a client's thoughts and feelings is called a. empathic understanding. b. unconditional positive regard. c. reflection. d. transference. 83. Peter's therapist refuses to react with shock or disapproval to anything Peter relates to him about his thoughts and feelings. Peter's therapist is providing a. self-actualization. b. unconditional positive regard. c. transference. d. reflection. 84. Aaron is a therapist, who always tries to be honest and genuine in his dealings with his clients and strives to not hide behind the "phony front" of his professional role According to Rogers, Aaron is a. authentic. b. reflecting. c. empathic. d. displaying transference. 85. In which technique does the therapist act as a "psychological mirror" to clarify the client's feelings and emotions? a. empathy b. reflection c. authenticity d. transference 86. ____ therapy emphasizes that people must make the courageous choices to become the persons they want to be. a. Existential b. Behavioral c. Somatic d. Psychoanalytic 87. The therapy that most directly attempts to restore meaning to one's life is a. phenomenology. b. encounter therapy. c. psychoanalysis. d. logotherapy. 88. Logotherapy is a form of ____ therapy. a. existential b. reality c. action d. group 89. ____ based his existential approach on experiences he had as a prisoner in a Nazi concentration camp. a. Fritz Perls b. Alfred Adler c. Victor Frankl d. Otto Rank 90. According to ____, perception (awareness) becomes disjointed and incomplete in a maladjusted person. a. logotherapists b. existentialists c. Gestalt therapists d. Rogerians 91. Who is most often associated with the development of Gestalt therapy? a. Fritz Perls b. Carl Rogers c. Abraham Maslow d. Victor Frankl 92. A form of therapy that encourages one to become aware of emotions in the "here and now" and to rebuild thinking, feeling, and acting into connected wholes is a. existential therapy. b. Gestalt therapy. c. transactional analysis. d. non-directive therapy. 93. An intense awareness of present experiences and breaking through emotional impasses is the heart of a. action therapy. b. Gestalt therapy. c. time-limited therapy. d. REBT. 94. The main emphasis of Gestalt therapy is a. unconditional positive regard. b. immediate awareness of thoughts and feelings. c. challenging irrational beliefs. d. uncovering the unconscious. 95. The basic assumption of behavior therapy is that a. deep understanding of one's problems leads to behavior change. b. past experiences and emotional trauma must be probed before behavior can be changed. c. learned response causes problems, therefore, behavior can be changed by relearning. d. maladaptive thoughts cause problems, therefore, changing thoughts changes behavior. 96. ____ is a form of learning in which simple responses (especially reflexes) are associated with new stimuli. a. Operant conditioning b. Social learning c. Classical conditioning d. Rational-emotive behavior therapy 97. Classical conditioning is used in which of the following? a. psychoanalysis b. behavior therapy c. humanistic therapy d. logotherapy 98. ____ is the scientific study of how individuals behave, think, and feel in the presence of others. a. Personality psychology b. Social psychology c. Behavioral psychology d. Humanistic psychology 99. An ongoing pattern of life including such things as language, customs and sex roles is called a. conformity. b. norms. c. group cohesion. d. culture. 100. Marriage rites, language, and sex roles would be considered parts of a. culture. b. proxemics. c. norms. d. status. 101. Expected behavior patterns associated with particular social positions are called a. social roles. b. cultures. c. social stereotypes. d. social status. 102. A group to which a person identifies is known as the ____ group, while a group to which the person does not identify is known as the ____ group. a. in-; out- b. achieved; ascribed c. norm; ethnocentric d. social; reference 103. A(n) ____ is a widely accepted, but often unspoken standard for appropriate behavior. a. ascribed role b. achieved role c. norm d. group sanction 104. The hostile reaction of others as you step in front of them in a grocery store checkout line occurs because you have violated a. social norms. b. social statuses. c. social roles. d. group cohesiveness. 105. Which of the following would be an internal cause for making a good grade on the psychology test? a. "The teacher likes me." d. appreciation 124. The three main components of an attitude are a. belief, emotion, and action. b. belief, conditioning, and experience. c. emotion, experience, and behavior. d. conditioning, feelings, and action. 125. Which of the following does NOT belong with the other three components of an attitude? a. action b. emotion c. experience d. belief 126. The statement, "I am convinced that atomic wastes cannot be safely disposed of" made by an opponent of nuclear power, represents which component of an attitude? a. action b. belief c. experience d. emotion 127. If you donate money to support environmental causes, this represents which component of an attitude? a. action component b. belief component c. expression component d. emotional component 128. The fact that there is about a 67 percent chance that you belong to the same political party as your parents reflects the importance of ____ in attitude formation. a. interaction with others b. mass media c. chance conditioning d. child rearing 129. One of the risks taken by parents who allow their children to watch television unsupervised is that they will begin to view the world as a dangerous and threatening place. This is an example of the role of ____ in attitude formation. a. indirect experience b. mass media c. child rearing d. chance conditioning 130. When you have "clashing thoughts," you are experiencing a. conformity pressure. b. obedience pressure. c. cognitive dissonance. d. open-ended role conflict. 131. When there is a clash between your behavior and your attitude, the resulting discomfort can be reduced by all of the following EXCEPT a. making your attitude match the behavior. b. making your behavior match the attitude. c. increasing the amount of perceived choice. d. changing the importance of the dissonant thoughts. 132. If you do something contrary to your beliefs or attitudes, you will experience the MOST cognitive dissonance when the amount of reward or justification for your actions is a. high. b. low. c. delayed. d. explained. 133. ____ is a negative emotional attitude tinged with fear, hatred, or suspicion that is held against members of a particular social group. a. Prejudice b. Stereotype c. Discrimination d. Displaced aggression 134. All of the following are specific types of prejudice EXCEPT a. heterosexism. b. ageism. c. sexism. d. animism. 135. Treating members of various social groups differently in circumstances where their rights or treatment should be identical is known as a. stereotyping. b. prejudice. c. authoritarianism. d. discrimination. 136. Scapegoating is a type of a. displaced aggression. b. projection. c. reaction formation. d. stereotyped aggression. 137. Scapegoating a. involves blaming a person or group for conditions not of their making. b. is a type of displaced aggression. c. often leads to prejudice. d. includes all of these. 138. Scapegoating involves releasing aggression on ____ targets. a. moving b. unsafe c. safe d. none of these 139. People who think their ethnic, national, or religious group is superior to others are called a. altruistic. b. patriotic. c. ethnocentric. d. conservative. 140. Equal-status contact between members of different social groups a. can reduce prejudice and stereotyping. b. creates cognitive dissonance. c. increases discrimination. d. increases intergroup conflict. 141. A key element in the effectiveness of jigsaw classrooms is a. deindividuation. b. the promotion of self-fulfilling prophecies. c. mutual interdependence. d. selecting competent student leaders. 142. Aggression is best defined as a. severe hostility. b. anger turned outward. c. any action carried out with the intent of harming another person. d. none of these 143. Social learning theory implies that watching a violent show or boxing match on TV a. reduces aggressive urges. b. encourages aggression. c. releases tensions. d. allows us to displace our aggression. 144. Prosocial behaviors are actions that a. are helpful to others. b. prevent aggression. c. change the social behavior of others. d. influence what happens in group situations. 145. Actions that are constructive, altruistic, or helpful to others are known as a. prosocial behaviors. b. empathic arousal. c. multiculturalism. d. mutual interdependence. 146. Prosocial behavior on TV ____ prosocial behavior by its viewers. a. decreases b. has no effect on c. increases d. disinhibits 147. The murder of Kitty Genovese has been cited as a prime example of a. bystander intervention. b. bystander apathy. c. the importance of noticing and defining an event as an emergency. d. the importance of group action in an emergency. 148. One thing that REDUCES the chances that a bystander will give help in an emergency is a. heightened arousal. b. empathic arousal. c. others who could help. d. similarity to the victim. 149. Which of the following is the first step in the decision-making process one must go through before giving help? a. define the event as an emergency b. take responsibility c. notice that something is happening d. select a course of action