Medical Terminology and Emergency Procedures, Exams of Neonatology

Download Medical Terminology and Emergency Procedures and more Exams Neonatology in PDF only on Docsity! Page 1 4N051 SSgt WAPS - Full SKT Exam (893 terms) with Verified Answers. 1. Anterograde (Posttraumatic) Amnesia - Correct answer Inability to remember events after an injury. 2. Basilar Skull Fractures - Correct answer Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, motor vehicle crashes); generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph (x-ray). 3. Battle's Sign - Correct answer Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture. 4. Cerebral Edema - Correct answer swelling of the brain. 5. Closed Head Injury - Correct answer Injury in which the brain has been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding. 6. Concussion - Correct answer a temporary loss or alteration of part of all of the brain's abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain. 7. Connecting Nerves - Correct answer Nerves in the spinal cord that connect the motor and sensory nerves. 8. Coup-Countercoup Injury - Correct answer dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; Countercoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds. 9. Distraction - Correct answer the action of pulling the spine along its length. 10. Epidural Hematoma - Correct answer an accumulation of blood between the skull and the Dura mater. 11. Eyes-Forward Position - Correct answer a head position in which the patient's eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line. 12. Four-Person Log Roll - Correct answer the recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard. 13. Intervertebral Disk - Correct answer the cushion that lies between two vertebrae. 14. Intracerebral Hematoma - Correct answer bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma. 15. ICP - Correct answer Intracranial Pressure. P a g e 1 | 64 Page 2 16. Intracranial Pressure (ICP) - Correct answer the pressure within the cranial vault. 17. Involuntary Activities - Correct answer Actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control. 18. Linear Skull Fractures - Correct answer Account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as no displaced skull fractures; commonly occur in the temporal-parietal region of the skull; not associated with deformities to the skull. 19. Meninges - Correct answer three distinct layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal canal. 20. Open Head Injury - Correct answer Injury to the head often caused by a penetrating object in which there may be bleeding and exposed brain tissue. 21. Primary (Direct) Injury - Correct answer an injury to the brain and its associated structures that is a direct result of impact to the head. 22. Raccoon Eyes - Correct answer bruising under the eyes that may indicate a skull fracture. 23. Retrograde Amnesia - Correct answer the inability to remember events leading up to a head injury. 24. Secondary (Indirect) Injury - Correct answer the "after effects" of the primary injury; includes abnormal processes such as cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure, cerebral ischemia and hypoxia, and infection; onset is often delayed following the primary brain injury. 25. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage - Correct answer bleeding into the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid circulates. 26. Subdural Hematoma - Correct answer an accumulation of blood beneath the Dura mater but outside the brain. 27. Subluxation - Correct answer a partial or incomplete dislocation. 28. TBI - Correct answer Traumatic Brain Injury 29. Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) - Correct answer a traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes. 30. Voluntary Activities - Correct answer Actions that we consciously perform, in which sensory input or conscious thought determines a specific muscular activity. P a g e 2 | 64 Page 5 the body usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area. This is a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column during embryonic or fetal development 58. Obesity - Correct answer a complex condition in which a person has an excessive amount of body fat. 59. Ileostomy - Correct answer a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small intestine and the surface of the body. 60. Cerebral palsy - Correct answer this is a brain / group of disorders characterized by poorly controlled body movement. Limbs are often underdeveloped and prone to injury. 61. Intellectual disability - Correct answer results in the inability to learn and socially adapt at a normal developmental rate 62. Characteristics of intellectual disability - Correct answer patients may appear slow to understand or have a limited vocabulary. May behave immaturely compared to their peers. If severely disabled, may not have the ability to care for themselves, communicate, understand or respond to surroundings 63. Pervasive developmental disorder (PDD) - Correct answer characterized by impaired social or communication skills, repetitive behaviors, or a restricted range of interests. 64. Atlantoaxial Instability (AAI) - Correct answer this is characterized by excessive movement at the junction between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) as a result of either a bony or ligamentous abnormality. Neurologic symptoms can occur when the spinal cord or adjacent nerve roots are involved. 15% of people's neck with Down syndrome is unstable at this joint 65. Behind-the-ear-type hearing aide - Correct answer these are contained in plastic cases that rest behind the ear 66. Conventional body type hearing aids - Correct answer these are an older style used for profound hearing loss 67. in-the-canal & completely in-the-canal hearing aids - Correct answer these are contained in a plastic case that fits partly or completely inside of the ear canal 68. In-the-ear type hearing aids - Correct answer these are contained in a shell that fits in the outer part of the ear 69. Ataxia - Correct answer an unsteady gait 70. mild to severe symptoms of Cerebral Palsy - Correct answer poor posture, uncontrolled spastic movements of the limbs, visual and hearing impairments, P a g e 5 | 64 Page 6 difficulty communicating, epilepsy (seizures), intellectual disabilities, unsteady gait which may necessitate a wheelchair or walker 71. Dysphagia - Correct answer difficulty swallowing 72. Hydrocephalus - Correct answer this is a condition in which fluid accumulates in the brain. Found typically in young children, enlarging the head and sometimes causing brain damage. 73. Paralysis - Correct answer inability to voluntarily move one or more body parts (stroke, trauma and birth defects) 74. Hyperesthesia - Correct answer increased sensitivity is called 75. Facial paralysis - Correct answer this can also cause communication challenges 76. Sever obesity - Correct answer this is when a person is 2-3 times over the ideal weight 77. These are associated health problems with obesity - Correct answer mobility difficulties, diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, and stroke 78. Tracheal stoma - Correct answer this provides a path between the surface of the neck and the trachea. Passes from the neck directly into the major airway and bypasses the nose and mouth 79. D.O.P.E. - Correct answer D - displacement, dislodged or damaged tube  - Obstruction of tube (secretions, blood, mucus, vomitus) 80. P - Pneumothorax 81. E - Equipment failure (kinked tubing, ventilator malfunction, and empty oxygen supply) 82. Mechanical ventilators - Correct answer these are used when patients cannot breathe without assistance. 83. Apnea monitors - Correct answer these are used for infants who are premature and have severe gastro esophageal reflux that causes choking episodes. Have a family history of SIDS, have experienced an apparent life-threatening event (ALTE) used 2 weeks - 2 months after birth. An alarm will sound if an infant experiences bradycardia or apnea 84. Automated implanted cardioverter defibrillator - Correct answer a pacemaker may also include this to monitor heart rhythm 85. Non-stop pacemaker - Correct answer this is set at a non-stop pace of 70 bpm 86. Demand pacemaker - Correct answer this sends a pacer spike under a set rate as needed P a g e 6 | 64 Page 7 87. External defibrillator vest - Correct answer this is a vest with built in monitoring electrodes and defibrillation pads which is worn by the patient under their clothing. 88. Ventricular peritoneum shunt - Correct answer this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the peritoneum of the abdomen 89. Ventricular atrium shunt - Correct answer this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the right atrium of the heart. 90. Palliative care - Correct answer this is the type of care used with pain medications 91. Obese - Correct answer this term is used when someone is 30% or more over their ideal body weight 92. possible causes of cerebral palsy - Correct answer this can stem from the following; damage to the developing fetal brain while in utero, oxygen deprivation at birth, or traumatic brain injury at birth 93. The sign for SICK - Correct answer when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and puts their hand on their head and stomach this means? 94. the sign for HURT - Correct answer when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and extends the index fingers of both hands, brings the fingers toward each other twice using a jabbing or twisting movement, this means? 95. Abruption placenta - Correct answer a premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus 96. Amniotic sac - Correct answer the fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops. 97. Apgar score - Correct answer a scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of five areas of assessment. 98. Birth canal - Correct answer the vagina and cervix 99. Bloody show - Correct answer A small amount of blood at the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and my include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate. 100. Breech presentation - Correct answer a delivery in which buttocks come out first. 101. Cervix - Correct answer narrowest portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina. P a g e 7 | 64 Page 10 130. When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should: A) Explain procedures while in the process of performing them. B) Be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. C) Move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task. D) Frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay. - Correct answer B) be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. 131. General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: A) Exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands. B) Speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. C) Removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions. D) Positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient. - Correct answer D) positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient. 132. When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: A) Report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. B) Voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. C) Document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. D) Avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient. - Correct answer A) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. 133. Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: A) Brain. B) Spinal cord. C) Voluntary muscles. D) Peripheral nervous system. - Correct answer A) brain. 134. When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: A) They are unable to walk and are totally dependent upon you. B) Their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury. C) Hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss. D) Most patients have the ability to walk, but have an unsteady gait. - Correct answer B) their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury. 135. A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: A) Shunt. P a g e 10 | 64 Page 11 B) G-tube. C) CS tube. D) Cerebral bypass. - Correct answer A) shunt. 136. Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity? A) Rapid metabolism B) High caloric intake C) Low metabolic rate D) Genetic predisposition - Correct answer A) Rapid metabolism 137. General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A) Ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times. B) Removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected. C) Suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucus plug. D) Maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible. - Correct answer B) removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected. 138. Which of the following statements regarding patients with developmental disabilities is correct? A) Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. B) Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. C) A developmental disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. D) Most patients with developmental disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features. - Correct answer B) Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. 139. Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: A) An extra pair of chromosomes. B) A separation of chromosome 21. C) A triplication of chromosome 21. D) A sperm that contains 24 chromosomes. - Correct answer C) a triplication of chromosome 21. 140. Two thirds of children born with Down syndrome have: 141. Incorrect Response A) Diabetes mellitus. B) Intracranial bleeding. C) Unilateral paralysis. D) Congenital heart disease. - Correct answer D) congenital heart disease. P a g e 11 | 64 Page 12 142. An important aspect in the assessment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves: A) Presuming that he or she has cognitive impairment until proven otherwise. B) Contacting the patient's physician to determine the extent of the brain injury. C) Recalling that most patients with a brain injury have other organ dysfunction. D) Speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient. - Correct answer D) speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient. 143. When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: A) Allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B) Stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. C) Leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. D) Tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. - Correct answer D) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. 144. Abrasion - Correct answer Loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface. 145. Amputation - Correct answer an injury in which part of the body is completely severed. 146. Avulsion - Correct answer an injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap. 147. burns - Correct answer Injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation. 148. Closed injuries - Correct answer Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface remains intact. 149. Compartment syndrome - Correct answer swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue. 150. Contact burn - Correct answer a burn caused by direct contact with a hot object. 151. contamination - Correct answer The presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body. P a g e 12 | 64 Page 15 182. Transverse (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture that occurs straight across the bone. This is usually the result of a direct blow or stress fracture caused by prolonged running. 183. Spiral (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture caused by a twisting force, causing an oblique fracture around the bone and through the bone. This is often the result of abuse in very young children. 184. Incomplete (fracture) - Correct answer a fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a non-displaced partial crack. 185. Significant forces required to cause fractures or dislocations may be: - Correct answer -direct blows 186. -indirect forces 187. -twisting forces 188. -high energy injuries 189. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Minor Injuries: - Correct answer - minor sprains 190. -fractures or dislocations of digits 191. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Moderate Injuries: - Correct answer - open fractures of digits 192. -non-displaced long-bone fractures 193. -non-displaced pelvic fractures 194. -major sprains of a major joint 195. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Serious Injuries: - Correct answer - displaced long-bone fractures 196. -multiple hand and foot fractures 197. -open long-bone fractures 198. -displaced pelvic fractures 199. -dislocations of major joints 200. -multiple digit amputations 201. -laceration of major nerves or blood vessels 202. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Severe, Life-Threatening Injuries (survival is probable): - Correct answer -multiple closed fractures 203. -limb amputations 204. -fractures of both long bones of the legs (bilateral femur fractures) 205. Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Critical Injuries (survival is uncertain): - Correct answer -multiple open fractures of the limbs 206. -suspected pelvic fractures with hemodynamic instability 207. Do not use Traction Splints for any of these conditions: - Correct answer - injuries of the upper extremity 208. -injuries close to or involving the knee P a g e 15 | 64 Page 16 209. -injuries of the hip 210. -injuries of the pelvis 211. -partial amputations or avulsions with bone separation 212. -lower leg, foot, or ankle injury 213. Do not use the PASG (pneumatic antismoke garment) if these conditions exist: - Correct answer -pregnancy 214. -pulmonary edema 215. -acute heart failure 216. -penetrating chest injuries 217. -groin injuries 218. -major head injuries 219. -a transport time of less than 30 minutes 220. Acromioclavicular (AC) joint - Correct answer a simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder. 221. Articular cartilage - Correct answer a pearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints. 222. Calcaneus - Correct answer the heel bone. 223. Closed fracture - Correct answer a fracture in which the skin is not broken. 224. Compartment syndrome - Correct answer swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue. 225. Crepitus - Correct answer a grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling. 226. Dislocation - Correct answer Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are completely displaced. 227. Displaced fracture - Correct answer a fracture in which bone fragments are separated from one another and not in anatomic alignment. 228. Ecchymosis - Correct answer Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin. 229. Fibula - Correct answer the outer and smaller bone of the two bones of the lower leg. 230. Fracture - Correct answer a break in the continuity of a bone. 231. Globoid fossa - Correct answer the part of the scapula that joins with the humeral head to form the glen humeral joint. P a g e 16 | 64 Page 17 232. Hematuria - Correct answer Blood in the urine. 233. Joint - Correct answer the place where two bones come into contact. 234. No displaced fracture - Correct answer a simple crack in the bone that has not caused the bone to move from its normal anatomic position; also called a hairline fracture. 235. Open fracture - Correct answer any break in a bone in which the overlying skin has been damaged. 236. Pelvic binders - Correct answer Used to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain. 237. Point tenderness - Correct answer Tenderness that is sharply localized at the site of the injury, found by gently palpating along the bone with the tip of one finger. 238. Position of function - Correct answer a hand position in which the wrist is slightly dorsiflexed and all finger joints are moderately flexed. 239. Reduce - Correct answer Return a dislocated joint or fractured bone to its normal position; set. 240. Retroperitoneal space - Correct answer the space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the gastrointestinal tract. 241. Sciatic nerve - Correct answer the major nerve to the lower extremities; controls much of muscle function in the leg and sensation in most of the leg and foot. 242. Sling - Correct answer a bandage or material that helps to support the weight of an injured upper extremity. 243. Splint - Correct answer a flexible or rigid appliance used to protect and maintain the position of an injured extremity. 244. Sprain - Correct answer a joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends. 245. Strain - Correct answer Stretching or tearing of a muscle; also called a muscle pull. 246. Subluxation - Correct answer a partial or incomplete dislocation. 247. Swathe - Correct answer a bandage that passes around the chest to secure an injured arm to the chest. P a g e 17 | 64 Page 20 278. The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the? (010) - Correct answer Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu. 279. Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they? (011) - Correct answer Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be 280. Considered when determining training requirements. 281. Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier? (012) - Correct answer Base Training Office. 282. The total training program leads to? (013) - Correct answer higher skill level. 283. The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involves reviewing the? (013) - Correct answer behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; 284. And the standards that fall under each task. 285. Which personal provides specifics training information for particular tasks or knowledge? (014) - Correct answer Your OJT trainer or supervisor. 286. What does task knowledge identify? (014) - Correct answer your ability to identify facts, state principles, analyze or evaluate the subject 287. To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability? (014) - Correct answer Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task. 288. To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include? (014) - Correct answer analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject. 289. What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force Training Record? (AFTR) (015) - Correct answer Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable). 290. Each time an Airman Changes duty positions (transfers from another base to work center), the supervisor must perform? (015) - Correct answer an initial evaluation. 291. After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level? (016) - Correct answer Can I do simple parts of the task? 292. After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level? (016) - Correct answer Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task? P a g e 20 | 64 Page 21 293. The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document? (017) - Correct answer training effectiveness. 294. If training is effective, what should trainees remember? (017) - Correct answer the requirements to successfully complete the job. 295. What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness? (017) - Correct answer Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process 296. Name one of the three shred-outs of the 4N0X1 career field? (018) - Correct answer Neurology technician. 297. Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins? (019) - Correct answer with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training 298. Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626 299. What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor? (019) - Correct answer National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for 300. Assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements 301. What must you meet prior to applying for retraining? (019) - Correct answer Eligibility requirements. 302. What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining? (019) - Correct answer Last three EPRs. 303. The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the? (019) - Correct answer career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed 304. To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), the click on? (020) - Correct answer Training Records. 305. The procedures to update the User Location for MACJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center is performed by clicking? (021) - Correct answer My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations 306. If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information? (021) - Correct answer Unit training manager. P a g e 21 | 64 Page 22 307. What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates? (022) - Correct answer AF 623 Part II 308. The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the entire training Record and? (022) - Correct answer Qualification Training 309. What's the first button trainee's click to sign off 623A entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)? (023) - Correct answer USER 310. What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098? (024) - Correct answer Click the SEARCH RECORD button. 311. What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on Job Qualifications Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date? (025) - Correct answer. Select a task and click the TRAINEE button 312. Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items? (026) - Correct answer AF Form 797. 313. The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps? (026) - Correct answer Conduct and document completion of task evaluations during training 314. What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File? (027) - Correct answer ADD FILE 315. What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel? (028) - Correct answer Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. 316. Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request? (029) - Correct answer Major command (MAJCOM). 317. Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the Work Centers? (030) - Correct answer Supervisors 318. When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority? (031) - Correct answer Category A 319. What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered? (032) - Correct answer Use all Air Force instructions, OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule. 320. Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic? (032) - Correct answer Nurse Managers and NCOICs P a g e 22 | 64 Page 25 349. Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least? (044) - Correct answer quarterly 350. If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization? (044) - Correct answer. Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application 351. When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment? (044) - Correct answer No care or treatment was accomplished. 352. What step does a medical technician provide in the workflow process? (045) - Correct answer Uses a common AIM form to enter data into AHLTA. 353. Who starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation? (045) - Correct answer the patient signs in and data is entered in an encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint. 354. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9)? (046) - Correct answer Not elsewhere classified. 355. When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)? (047) - Correct answer When PHA is due within 3 months 356. When Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status do turns red and what items may be overdue? (047) - Correct answer Member needs to complete immunizations, PHAs, dental, and deployment health assessments 357. (DHAs). It turns red on day 456. 358. What are the principles of population health management? (048) - Correct answer Support the DOD and our nation's security. 359. What is the purpose of case management? (048) - Correct answer Promote quality, safe, and cost-effective care 360. What is the purpose of utilization management (UM)? (048) - Correct answer Identify, monitor, evaluate, and resolve issues. 361. What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum? - Correct answer posterior 362. Line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements? - Correct answer axis of joint rotation 363. Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of? - Correct answer flexion P a g e 25 | 64 Page 26 364. Why it is important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately? - Correct answer provide clear and concise pt. info 365. you have just completed screening a pt. with an apt for blurred vision right eye. How should you document this info correctly? - Correct answer pt complains of blurred vision right eye 366. you would NOT find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell? - Correct answer Nucleus 367. What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction? - Correct answer Microfilaments 368. what part of the cell provides the PRIMARY source for cellular energy? - Correct answer mitochondria 369. which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus is actually dividing? - Correct answer Anaphase 370. the complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as? - Correct answer cell differentiation 371. what type of tissue is te major component of glands? - Correct answer epithelial 372. what type of tissue can change its shape? - Correct answer muscle 373. because of its striated appearance , which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue? - Correct answer cardiac muscle 374. aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the ? - Correct answer iris 375. what par of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images? - Correct answer rods 376. what nerve is the pathway to vision? - Correct answer optc 377. what substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape? - Correct answer Vitreous humor 378. the auditory ossicles are located in the ? - Correct answer middle ear 379. in the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the ? - Correct answer cochlea P a g e 26 | 64 Page 27 380. which of the following is a nasal air passageway? - Correct answer middle meatus 381. odors are describes as belonging to which of these groups? - Correct answer 7 primary odors, combination of at least 2 of them 382. what are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity? - Correct answer olfactory bulbs 383. the layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the - Correct answer stratum spinosum 384. the white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the - Correct answer lunula 385. what substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland - Correct answer sebum 386. in which function of the integumentary system would blood vessels constrict? - Correct answer body temp regulation 387. pigmentation is attributed to? - Correct answer melanin 388. where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system? - Correct answer bone ends 389. where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone? - Correct answer medullary cavity 390. what bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied? - Correct answer sesamoid 391. what is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint? - Correct answer patella 392. what type of muscle is the skeletal muscle - Correct answer voluntary ;striated 393. the muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the ??? - Correct answer perimysium 394. what attaches skeletal muscle to the bone? - Correct answer tendons 395. what type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula? - Correct answer syndesmosis 396. what type of joint connects the sternum and first rib? - Correct answer synchondrosis P a g e 27 | 64 Page 30 430. what is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth? - Correct answer frenulum 431. what is the difference of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will keep ? - Correct answer 12 432. where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum? - Correct answer cecum 433. which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body? - Correct answer colon 434. what liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder? - Correct answer Bile 435. kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extent from the ? - Correct answer thoracic to the lumbar spinal region 436. approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney? - Correct answer 1 million 437. how many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30 yr old male? - Correct answer 10 438. backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by the ? - Correct answer flap of mucous membrane 439. the urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately how many millimeters of urine? - Correct answer 250 440. what part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations? - Correct answer nephron 441. the testes ate 2 oval shaped structures that are made of ? - Correct answer connective tissue 442. what is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body? - Correct answer urethra 443. growth of body hair on a male is a? - Correct answer secondary sex characteristic 444. where ae the sperm cells produced? - Correct answer testes 445. fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the? - Correct answer ejaculatery duct P a g e 30 | 64 Page 31 446. the lower third of the uterus is called? - Correct answer cervix 447. what happens to the ovum after a sperm fertilizes it? - Correct answer travels to uterus and attaches to endometrium 448. the second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when? - Correct answer ovum is released from one of the ovaries 449. what is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once the puberty is reached? - Correct answer menarche 450. the pituitary gland is divided into what 2 sections called? - Correct answer anterior lobe and the posterior lobe 451. which organ secretes the adrenotropic hormone? - Correct answer anterior lobe of the pituitary gland 452. which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones? - Correct answer thyroxine 453. what makes up the majority of the adrenal gland? - Correct answer adrenal cortex 454. what hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla has little effect on blood sugar level? - Correct answer norepinephrine 455. which hormone would you expect the islets of langerhans to secrete? - Correct answer insulin 456. What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation criteria? - Correct answer The Joint Commission 457. As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operating instructions be reviewed? - Correct answer Every 2 years 458. Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease? - Correct answer Pathogen 459. Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly? - Correct answer Bacteria 460. Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeasts and molds? - Correct answer Fungi 461. What condition must be present for a virus to multiply? - Correct answer Susceptible tissue P a g e 31 | 64 Page 32 462. Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease? - Correct answer Incubation 463. Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the CDC? - Correct answer Reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals 464. What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated? - Correct answer Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water 465. One of the most common and serious complications a females may develop from gonorrhea is? - Correct answer Pelvic inflammatory disease 466. A health care provider notifies Pubic Health of a suspected communicable disease by - Correct answer using the telephone or locally derived form 467. Which medical term means the absence of infection? - Correct answer Asepsis 468. Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue? - Correct answer Antiseptic 469. When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on - Correct answer Before entering, and take it off before leaving 470. What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-life method? - Correct answer When package integrity is compromised 471. Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent? - Correct answer Hydrochloric acid 472. What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer? - Correct answer Between 122-131 degrees F 473. Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer? - Correct answer Count sheets 474. What are the standard identifiers associated with the Nation Patient Safety Guidelines? - Correct answer Patient's full name and date of birth 475. What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare? - Correct answer Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control 476. The very low-density lipoproteins transport - Correct answer Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells P a g e 32 | 64 Page 35 510. The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to - Correct answer Administer fluids into the circulatory system 511. What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous solution? - Correct answer remove protective devices yourself 512. In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions? - Correct answer Back-check valve 513. To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients schedule for long term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous site? - Correct answer Every 48 to 72 hours 514. In cubic centimeters, what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous - Correct answer 10 to 50 cc 515. Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient? - Correct answer Specific gravity 516. What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine? - Correct answer Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse 517. After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for - Correct answer 2 to 3 minutes 518. What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter? - Correct answer Read the operating instructions 519. In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify that patient's - Correct answer pulse rate 520. A proctoscopy is an inspection of the - Correct answer rectum 521. When educating the patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving - Correct answer In the direction of hair growth 522. The eye can generally see wavelengths between - Correct answer 400 and 750 nm 523. At what ages is visual acuity at its best? - Correct answer 15-20 524. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forces expiratory volume at once second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than? - Correct answer 80 P a g e 35 | 64 Page 36 525. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are - Correct answer 2; 3 526. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called - Correct answer Artifacts 527. What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings? - Correct answer Arrhythmia 528. If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the - Correct answer US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library 529. What is another term for orthostatic hypotension? - Correct answer Postural Hypotension 530. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below - Correct answer 97 percent 531. When can the minor surgery procedure begin? - Correct answer After the consent form is signed 532. When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a - Correct answer Mayo scissors 533. When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step? - Correct answer Flush the wound 534. After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next? - Correct answer Assess sensory awareness 535. How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube clamped? - Correct answer 300 mm Hg 536. When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate? - Correct answer Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip 537. When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast? - Correct answer Name 538. In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only - Correct answer when local protocol authorizes it P a g e 36 | 64 Page 37 539. The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician is called - Correct answer scene size-up 540. When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle? - Correct answer 100 541. When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status? - Correct answer Alert 542. If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide - Correct answer ventilations with BVM and high-flow oxygen 543. As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the - Correct answer clavicles 544. A rapid trauma assessment if performed on a patient with - Correct answer a significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are 545. When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about - Correct answer provocation 546. While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine? - Correct answer Time 547. What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician at the scene of a hazmat incident? - Correct answer Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members. 548. Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations? - Correct answer Army field litter 549. If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask - Correct answer what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device. 550. If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the - Correct answer detailed physical exam 551. In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient? - Correct answer 5 552. Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians in the field to describe a possible fracture? - Correct answer Painful, swollen deformity P a g e 37 | 64 Page 40 582. The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it - Correct answer promotes flexion deformities of the hip 583. Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together? - Correct answer Crepitus 584. Pin care is required with what type of reduction of the bone? - Correct answer Open reduction, external fixation 585. What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complain that his or her short leg cast feels tight? - Correct answer Bivalve the cast 586. The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a - Correct answer Phantom limb pain 587. What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb? - Correct answer Tourniquet 588. Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause - Correct answer Cardiac arrest 589. Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally - Correct answer a lifelong process 590. The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the - Correct answer side of the brain that was traumatized 591. During which child development stage is separation anxiety the most stressful? - Correct answer Preschool 592. The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is - Correct answer regression 593. When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be - Correct answer Dehydration 594. Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child? - Correct answer You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child 595. When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using - Correct answer alcohol 596. How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient? - Correct answer Cater to the patient's customs 597. What is a sign of uremia? - Correct answer Oliguria P a g e 40 | 64 Page 41 598. The first stage of dying is - Correct answer denial 599. All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed - Correct answer personality 600. What affects an individual's feeling about themselves? - Correct answer Self- perception 601. Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions? - Correct answer Compulsion 602. Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas, and physical over-activity? - Correct answer Mania 603. Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be - Correct answer consistent 604. A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of - Correct answer Withdrawal 605. When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient? - Correct answer As soon as the patient is admitted 606. What is the primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient? - Correct answer Strengthening the patient's defenses 607. When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is - Correct answer behavior 608. Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except - Correct answer Electroconvulsive therapy 609. What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises? - Correct answer Report the suspected abuse 610. What occurs in the third and final phase of spousal abuse? - Correct answer Spouse states it will never happen again 611. Which drug classification causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing? - Correct answer Stimulant 612. What is the priority when providing care to a patient that has abused a substance? - Correct answer Monitor vital signs and sustain life 613. For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to - Correct answer begin the program early in the patient's hospital stay P a g e 41 | 64 Page 42 614. When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to - Correct answer develop a good rapport 615. What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile? - Correct answer Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression 616. To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every - Correct answer Two hours 617. Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? - Correct answer Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain 618. To use the internal girdle of support, you must - Correct answer simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles 619. Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed? - Correct answer Size and capabilities of the patient 620. When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling a patient? - Correct answer Raise the far siderail 621. The person in charge of a bed to stretcher transfer should be positioned - Correct answer At the head of the bed on the stretcher side 622. Which devices can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher? - Correct answer Drawsheet and roller board 623. When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands? - Correct answer Bedside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm 624. Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs? - Correct answer Four-point 625. Which type of patient exercise is provided for patients who are either unable or not allowed to exercise? - Correct answer Passive 626. Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that may cause - Correct answer heart attack 627. What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract? - Correct answer Liquid 628. The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the - Correct answer Clear liquid P a g e 42 | 64 Page 45 660. What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error? - Correct answer AF Form 765 661. How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order? - Correct answer Two 662. What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order? - Correct answer Computer-generated product 663. Drug administration is controlled primarily by - Correct answer federal law 664. Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have a high potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as - Correct answer Schedule 2 665. What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances? - Correct answer Controlled Substances Act 666. As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage areas be monitored? - Correct answer Once per day 667. Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs? - Correct answer Curative 668. The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as - Correct answer Absorption 669. A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to - Correct answer body fat absorption 670. Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? - Correct answer Lower digestive system content 671. Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action? - Correct answer Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action 672. Which of these is a common reference source for drugs? - Correct answer Physician Desk Reference 673. A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a - Correct answer powder 674. What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content? - Correct answer Cathartics 675. Which element is not required on a medication order? - Correct answer Patient's age P a g e 45 | 64 Page 46 676. Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except - Correct answer for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day 677. How many pounds are equal to 65kg? - Correct answer 143 678. Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each dose? - Correct answer 6.5 679. Lt Col McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer? - Correct answer .50 680. The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is - Correct answer intramuscular 681. Name the parts of a needle - Correct answer Hub, shaft, and bevel 682. What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system? - Correct answer Oral 683. To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location? - Correct answer At the patient's bedside 684. Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication? - Correct answer Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult 685. When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to - Correct answer prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye 686. Into what body cavity are otic medications administered? - Correct answer External auditory canal 687. To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe - Correct answer down to straighten the canal 688. Vaginal suppositories are - Correct answer administered to combat infection 689. When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag? - Correct answer 12 to 18 inches 690. Which medication's primary action is pain relief? - Correct answer Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics P a g e 46 | 64 Page 47 691. Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of - Correct answer opioid overdose 692. Nonopioid analgesics are available - Correct answer over the counter 693. Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with - Correct answer preventing the formation of prostaglandins 694. A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is - Correct answer a depressed state of rapid eye movement phase of sleep 695. Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence? - Correct answer Caffeine 696. What is not a side effects of tricyclics? - Correct answer pupil constriction 697. Antianxiety medications are prescribed for - Correct answer the treatment of insomnia 698. Antipsychotic medications are categorized as - Correct answer major tranquilizers 699. Extrapyramidal side effects common to typical phenothiazine antipsychotic medication is a result of - Correct answer blocking dopamine receptors 700. Which pulse point should be checked before administration of digitalis? - Correct answer Apical 701. Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except - Correct answer tachycardia 702. Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with - Correct answer lung conditions that cause bronchospasms 703. Calcium channel blockers should not be taken with - Correct answer grapefruit juice 704. The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with a myocardial infarction is - Correct answer Lidocaine 705. Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to - Correct answer maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion 706. What is the most common side effect of antihypertensives? - Correct answer Postural hypotension P a g e 47 | 64 Page 50 737. What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen? - Correct answer Antihistamines 738. What patient-education would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing? - Correct answer Do not chew the capsule 739. What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines and sedative-hypnotic drugs? - Correct answer Grapefruit juice 740. During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted? - Correct answer 90 degrees, 6 to 10 inches 741. Opioids are contraindicated with - Correct answer head injury treatment 742. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors lower blood pressure by - Correct answer Decreasing vasoconstriction 743. accessory muscles - Correct answer The secondary muscles of respiration. They include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoids), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles. 744. auscultate - Correct answer To listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope. 745. AVPU scale - Correct answer A method of assessing the level of consciousness by determining whether the patient is awake and alert, responsive to verbal stimuli or pain, or unresponsive; used principally early in the assessment process. 746. blood pressure - Correct answer the pressure that is exerted by the blood against the walls of blood vessels 747. Bradycardia - Correct answer slow heart rate (less than 60 bpm) 748. breath sounds - Correct answer An indication of air movement in the lungs, usually assessed with a stethoscope. 749. capillary refill - Correct answer A test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure. 750. capnography - Correct answer A noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism; effectively measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time. P a g e 50 | 64 Page 51 751. carbon dioxide - Correct answer Carbon dioxide is a component of air and typically makes up 0.3% of air at sea level; also a waste product exhaled during expiration by the respiratory system. 752. chief complaint - Correct answer The reason a patient called for help; also, the patient's response to questions such as "What's wrong?" or "What happened?" 753. coagulate - Correct answer To form a clot to plug an opening in an injured blood vessel and stop bleeding. 754. colorimetric devices - Correct answer Capnometer or end-tidal carbon dioxide detectors are devices that use a chemical reaction to detect the amount of carbon dioxide present in expired gases by changing colors (qualitative measurement rather than quantitative). 755. conjuctiva - Correct answer The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye. 756. crepitus - Correct answer A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling. 757. cyanosis - Correct answer a bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood. 758. DCAP-BTLS - Correct answer deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling 759. diaphoretic - Correct answer Characterized by profuse sweating. 760. diastolic pressure - Correct answer occurs when the ventricles are relaxed; the lowest pressure against the walls of an artery 761. End Tital CO2 - Correct answer the amount of carbon dioxide present in an exhaled breath 762. focused assessment - Correct answer A type of physical assessment that is typically performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant mechanisms of injury or on responsive medical patients. This type of examination is based on the chief complaint and focuses on one body system or part. 763. frostbite - Correct answer damage to the skin and tissues caused by extreme cold 764. full-body scan - Correct answer A systematic head-to-toe examination that is performed during the secondary assessment on a patient who has sustained a significant mechanism of injury, is unconscious, or is in critical condition. P a g e 51 | 64 Page 52 765. general impression - Correct answer The overall initial impression that determines the priority for patient care; based on the patient's surroundings, the mechanism of injury, signs and symptoms, and the chief complaint. 766. Golden Period - Correct answer The time from injury to definitive care, during which treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best. 767. guarding - Correct answer Involuntary muscle contractions (spasms) of the abdominal wall in an effort to protect an inflamed abdomen; a sign of peritonitis. 768. history taking - Correct answer A step within the patient assessment process that provides detail about the patient's chief complaint and an account of the patient's signs and symptoms. 769. Hypertension - Correct answer abnormally high blood pressure 770. hypotension - Correct answer abnormally low blood pressure 771. hypothermia - Correct answer A condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95°F (35°C), usually as a result of prolonged exposure to cool or freezing temperatures. 772. Incident Command System - Correct answer A system implemented to manage disasters and mass- and multiple-casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander. Also referred to as the incident management system. 773. jaundice - Correct answer Yellow skin or sclera that is caused by liver disease or dysfunction. 774. labored breathing - Correct answer The use of muscles of the chest, back, and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired. 775. mechanism of injury - Correct answer a force or forces that may have caused injury 776. nasal flaring - Correct answer Flaring out of the nostrils, indicating that there is an airway obstruction. 777. nature of illness - Correct answer The general type of illness a patient is experiencing. 778. OPQRST - Correct answer Onset, Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing. P a g e 52 | 64 Page 55 807. triage - Correct answer The process of establishing treatment and transportation priorities according to severity of injury and medical need. 808. tripod position - Correct answer An upright position in which the patient leans forward onto two arms stretched forward and thrusts the head and chin forward. 809. two- to three-word dyspnea - Correct answer A severe breathing problem in which a patient can speak only two to three words at a time without pausing to take a breath. 810. vasoconstriction - Correct answer narrowing of blood vessels 811. vital signs - Correct answer The key signs that are used to evaluate the patient's overall condition, including respirations, pulse, blood pressure, level of consciousness, and skin characteristics. 812. acute coronary syndrome - Correct answer A term used to describe a group of symptoms caused by myocardial ischemia; includes angina and myocardial infarction. 813. *acute myocardial infarction - Correct answer A heart attack; death of heart muscle following obstruction of blood flow to it. Acute in this context means "new" or "happening right now." 814. angina pectoris - Correct answer Transient (short-lived) chest discomfort caused by partial or temporary blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. 815. Anterior - Correct answer The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position. 816. *aorta - Correct answer the main artery, which receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body 817. aortic aneurysm - Correct answer A weakness in the wall of the aorta that makes it susceptible to rupture. 818. aortic valve - Correct answer The one-way valve that lies between the left ventricle and the aorta and keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle after the left ventricle ejects its blood into the aorta; one of four heart valves. 819. *arrhythmia - Correct answer An irregular or abnormal heart rhythm. 820. *Asystole - Correct answer absence of contractions of the heart 821. Atherosclerosis - Correct answer A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, which eventually leads to partial or complete blockage of blood flow. P a g e 55 | 64 Page 56 822. *atrium - Correct answer one of two upper chambers of the heart The right atrium receives blood from the vena cava and delivers it to the right ventricle. The left atrium receives blood from the pulmonary veins and delivers it to the left ventricle 823. *auotomaticity - Correct answer the ability of cardiac cells to contract without stimulation from the nervous system 824. autonomic nervous system - Correct answer part of the nervous system that controls the involuntary activities of the body such as the heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food 825. *bradycardia - Correct answer slow heart rate (less than 60 bpm) 826. cardiac arrest - Correct answer a state in which the heart fails to generate effective and detectable blood flow; pulses are not palpable and cardiac arrest, even if muscular and electrical activity continues in the heart. 827. cardiogenic shcok - Correct answer a state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other conditions 828. *cardiac output - Correct answer A measure of the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute, calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate. 829. congestive heart failure (CHF) - Correct answer A disorder in which the heart loses part of its ability to effectively pump blood, usually as a result of damage to the heart muscle and usually resulting in a backup of fluid into the lungs. 830. *coronary arteries - Correct answer The blood vessels that carry blood and nutrients to the heart muscle. 831. *defribrillate - Correct answer to shock a fibrillating (chaotic beating) heart with specialized electrical current in an attempt to restore a normal, rhythmic beat. 832. dependent edema - Correct answer Swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues; a possible sign of congestive heart failure. 833. *dilation - Correct answer Widening of a tubular structure such as a coronary artery. 834. dissecting aneurysm - Correct answer A condition in which the inner layers of an artery, such as the aorta, become separated, allowing blood (at high pressures) to flow between the layers. P a g e 56 | 64 Page 57 835. hypertensive emergency - Correct answer An emergency situation created by excessively high blood pressure, which can lead to serious complications such as stroke or aneurysm. 836. *infarction - Correct answer death of a body tissue, usually caused by interruption of its blood supply 837. infererior - Correct answer the part of the body or any body part closer to the ground 838. *ischemia - Correct answer A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred. 839. *lumen - Correct answer The inside diameter of an artery or other hollow structure. 840. *Myocardium - Correct answer heart muscle 841. *occlusion - Correct answer A blockage, usually of a tubular structure such as a blood vessel. 842. parasympathetic nervous system - Correct answer the part of the autonomic nervous system that controls vegetative functions such as digestion of food and relaxation 843. *perfusion - Correct answer The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels. 844. Posterior (dorsal) - Correct answer back surface of the body 845. *stroke volume - Correct answer The volume of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction. 846. superior - Correct answer The part of the body or any body part nearer to the head. 847. sympathetic nervous system - Correct answer the part of the autonomic nervous system that controls active functions such as responding to fear (known as fight or flight) 848. syncope - Correct answer fainting 849. *tachycardia - Correct answer rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute 850. thromboembolism - Correct answer A blood clot that has formed within a blood vessel and is floating within the bloodstream. P a g e 57 | 64 Page 60 902. suspect internal injuries 903. consider medical causes (sycope) 904. fall considerations - Correct answer height of the fall 905. type of surface 906. part of the body that hit first 907. projectiles - Correct answer any object propelled by force, such as a bullet by a weapon 908. trajectory - Correct answer the path a projectile takes once it is propelled 909. cavitation - Correct answer a phenomenon in which speed causes a bullet to generate pressure waves, which cause damage distant from the bullets path 910. temporary cavitation - Correct answer caused by the acceleration of the bullet and causes a stretching of the tissues 911. permanent cavitation - Correct answer caused by the bullet path and remains once the bullet has passed through the tissue 912. primary blast injuries - Correct answer these injuries are due entirely to the blast, damage to the body is caused by the pressure wave generated by the explosion 913. secondary blast injuries - Correct answer damage to the body results from being struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel from the device or from glass or splinters which have been set in motion by the explosion 914. tertiary blast injuries - Correct answer these injuries occur when the patient is hurled by the force of the explosion against a stationary object. 915. Quaternary blast injuries - Correct answer this category of miscellaneous injuries includes burns from hot gases or fires started by the blast 916. tympanic membrane - Correct answer the eardrum; a thin, semi-transparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits sound vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles (ruptures at pressures of 5 to 7 pounds per square inch above atmospheric pressure 917. arterial air embolism - Correct answer air bubbles in the arterial blood vessels 918. injuries to the head - Correct answer require frequent neurologic examinations, changes in pupillary size and reactivity can take time 919. injuries to the neck and throat - Correct answer can result in airway problems, jugular vein distention, tracheal deviation, swelling, and crushing can cause subcutaneous creptitation P a g e 60 | 64 Page 61 920. injuries to the chest - Correct answer fractured ribs or sternum, cardiac bruising, large vessel tear, lung bruising, pneumothorax, open chest would can cause air pressure problems 921. injuries to the abdomen - Correct answer solid organs may tear, lacerate or fracture 922. hollow organs may rupture and leak 923. platinum ten - Correct answer on-scene time for critically injured patients should be less than 10 minutes 924. Level I Trauma Center - Correct answer comprehensive regional resource capable of providing total care for every aspect of an injury, 24 in house coverage by general surgeons, University based 925. Level II Trauma Center - Correct answer capable of providing initial definitive care for all injuries, 24 hour immediate coverage by general surgeon 926. Level III Trauma Center - Correct answer provide assessment, resuscitation and stabilization, must have transfer agreement with higher level center, 24 hour immediate coverage by emergency medical physician 927. Level IV Trauma Center - Correct answer provide advanced trauma life support prior to transfer to a higher level trauma center 928. trauma score - Correct answer a score calculated from 1 to 16 with 16 being the best possible score. it relates to the likelihood of patient survival with the exception of severe head injury. it takes into account the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, respirator rate, respiratory expansion, systolic blood pressure, and capillary refill 929. revised trauma score - Correct answer a scoring system used for patients with head trauma 930. pulmonary blast injuries - Correct answer pulmonary trauma resulting from short-range exposure to the detonation of explosives 931. Potential energy - Correct answer the product of mass, gravity, and height which is converted into kinetic energy and results in injury such as from a fall. 932. penetrating trauma - Correct answer injury caused by objects such as knives and bullets that pierce the surface of the body and damage soft tissue, internal organs and body cavities 933. medical emergencies - Correct answer emergencies that require EMS attention because of illnesses or conditions not caused by an outside force P a g e 61 | 64 Page 62 934. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score - Correct answer an evaluation tool used to determine level of consciousness which evaluates and assigns points values (scores) for eye opening verbal response and motor response which are then totaled; effective in helping predict patient outcomes 935. drag - Correct answer resistance that slows a projectile such as air 936. deceleration - Correct answer the slowing of an object 937. blunt trauma - Correct answer an impact on the body by objects that cause injury without penetrating soft tissues or internal organs and cavities 938. energy can be - Correct answer converted 939. the amount of kinetic energy (moving object)that is converted to do work on the body dictates the _____________ of the injury - Correct answer speed 940. types of motorcycle impacts - Correct answer head-on collision 941. angular collision 942. controlled collision 943. ejection 944. types of motor vehicle (car) crashes - Correct answer head-on (frontal) crashes 945. read-end crashes 946. lateral (side impact) crashes 947. rollover crashes 948. rotational (spinning) crashes 949. what are the three collisions in a frontal impact - Correct answer car striking object 950. passenger striking vehicle 951. internal organs striking solid structures of the body 952. medium-velocity penetrating injuries may be caused by a - Correct answer handgun and some rifles 953. in a motor vehicle crash as the passengers head hits the windshield, the brain continues to move forward until it strikes the inside of the skull resulting in a _________________ injury - Correct answer compression 954. your quick primary assessment of the patient and evaluation of the ____ ____ _____ can help to direct lifesaving care and provide critical information the hospital staff - Correct answer mechanism of injury MOI 955. which of the following is the most common cause of death from a blast injury - Correct answer burns P a g e 62 | 64