Traumatic Brain Injury and Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System, Exams of Nursing

Download Traumatic Brain Injury and Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Anterograde (Posttraumatic) Amnesia - correct answer ✅Inability to remember events after an injury. Basilar Skull Fractures - correct answer ✅Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, motor vehicle crashes); generally, result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph (x-ray). Battle's Sign - correct answer ✅Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture. Cerebral Edema - correct answer ✅Swelling of the brain. Closed Head Injury - correct answer ✅Injury in which the brain ahs been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding. Concussion - correct answer ✅A temporary loss or alteration of part of all of the brain's abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain. Connecting Nerves - correct answer ✅Nerves in the spinal cord that connect the motor and sensory nerves. Coup-Contrecoup Injury - correct answer ✅Dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; Contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds. Distraction - correct answer ✅the action of pulling the spine along its length. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Epidural Hematoma - correct answer ✅An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater. Eyes-Forward Position - correct answer ✅A head position in which the patient's eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line. Four-Person Log Roll - correct answer ✅The recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard. Intervertebral Disk - correct answer ✅The cushion that lies between two vertebrae. Intracerebral Hematoma - correct answer ✅Bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma. ICP - correct answer ✅Intracranial Pressure. Intracranial Pressure (ICP) - correct answer ✅The pressure within the cranial vault. Involuntary Activities - correct answer ✅Actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 these are the characteristics of a developmentally disabled patient - correct answer ✅may appear slow to understand, limited vocabulary immature behavior characteristics of autism - correct answer ✅severe behavioral problems, repetitive motor activities, impairment in verbal and nonverbal skills, difficulty making eye contact, has trouble answering open ended questions and monotone speech these are the most common forms of hearing loss - correct answer ✅sensorineural deafness and conductive hearing loss sensorineural deafness - correct answer ✅a permanent lack of hearing caused by a lesion or damage of the inner ear conductive hearing loss - correct answer ✅hearing loss caused by a faulty transmission of sounds waves. can be caused by an accumulation of wax within the ear canal or a perforated eardrum tracheostomy tube - correct answer ✅a plastic tube placed within the tracheostomy site (stoma) ventilator malfunction - correct answer ✅if this malfunction occurs, remove the patient from this devise and begin bag-valve-mask ventilations via the tracheostomy hole DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 internal cardiac pacemaker - correct answer ✅this is a device implanted under the patients skin to regulate the heart rate. (document the type of pacemaker) left ventricular assist devices (LVAD) - correct answer ✅this is a special piece of medical equipment that takes over the function of one or both heart ventricles. it is used as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is located. may be difficult to palpate a pulse in patients who have this central venous catheter - correct answer ✅a catheter that has its tip placed in the vena cavato and provides venous access (pick-line) used for home care patients, chemotherapy, long term antibiotic or pain management, total parental nutrition (TPN) hemodialysis, or high concentration glucose solutions. common locations - chest, upper arm, subclavicular gastrostomy tubes - correct answer ✅these may be placed into the stomach for patients who cannot ingest fluids, food or medication by mouth. this transport position should be used for patients with gastric tubes and difficulty breathing - correct answer ✅sitting or lying on the right side with the head elevated 30 degrees shunts - correct answer ✅tubes that drain excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another part of the body outside of the brain such as the abdomen; lowers pressure in the brain. used for patients with chronic neurologic conditions. located beneath the skin on the side of the head behind the ear. signs/symptoms of distress for kids with shunts - correct answer ✅bulging fontanelles (infants) headache, projectile vomiting, AMS, irritability, high pitched cry, fever, nausea, difficulty walking, blurred vision, seizures, redness along the shunt track, bradycardia, and heart arrhythmias DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 vagal nerve stimulator - correct answer ✅this is a treatment used for seizures that are not controlled with medication. it stimulates the vagus nerve at predetermined intervals to prevent seizure activity. surgical implant used in children over 12. located under the patients skin about the size of a silver dollar. colostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the small or large intestine and the surface of the body caregiver - correct answer ✅interaction with the ___________ is important because they are experts on caring for the patient and can help determine baseline behavior for the patient urostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) which connects the urinary system to the surface of the skin and allows urine to drain through the abdominal wall instead of through the urethra tracheostomy - correct answer ✅a surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) into the trachea; a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin stoma - correct answer ✅an opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure spina bifida - correct answer ✅a development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possible even outside of the body usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area. this is a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column during embryonic or fetal development DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 paralysis - correct answer ✅inability to voluntarily move one or more body parts (stroke, trauma and birth defects) hyperesthesia - correct answer ✅increased sensitivity is called facial paralysis - correct answer ✅This can also cause communication challenges sever obesity - correct answer ✅this is when a person is 2-3 times over the ideal weight these are associated health problems with obesity - correct answer ✅mobility difficulties, diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, stroke tracheal stoma - correct answer ✅this provides a path between the surface of the neck and the trachea. passes from the neck directly into the major airway and bypasses the nose and mouth D.O.P.E. - correct answer ✅D - displacement, dislodged or damaged tube O - obstruction of tube (secretions, blood, mucus, vomitus) P - pneumothorax E - equipment failure (kinked tubing, ventilator malfunction, empty oxygen supply) mechanical ventilators - correct answer ✅these are used when patients cannot breath without assistance. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 apnea monitors - correct answer ✅these are used for infants who are premature and have severe gastroesophageal reflux that causes choking episodes. have a family history of SIDS, have experienced an apparent life-threatening event (ALTE) used 2 weeks - 2 months after birth. an alarm will sound if an infant experiences bradycardia or apnea automated implanted cardioverter defibrillator - correct answer ✅a pacemaker may also include this to monitor heart rhythm non-stop pacemaker - correct answer ✅this is set at a non-stop pace of 70 bpm demand pacemaker - correct answer ✅this sends a pacer spike under a set rate as needed external defibrillator vest - correct answer ✅this is a vest with built in monitoring electrodes and defibrillation pads which is worn by the patient under their clothing. ventricular peritoneum shunt - correct answer ✅this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the peritoneum of the abdomen ventricular atrium shunt - correct answer ✅this drains excess fluid from the ventricles of the brain into the right atrium of the heart. palliative care - correct answer ✅this is the type of care used with pain medications obese - correct answer ✅This term is used when someone is 30% or more over their ideal body weight DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 possible causes of cerebral palsy - correct answer ✅this can stem from the following; damage to the developing fetal brain while in utero, oxygen deprivation at birth, or traumatic brain injury at birth the sign for SICK - correct answer ✅when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and puts their hand on there head and stomach this means? the sign for HURT - correct answer ✅when a complete hearing impaired patient uses sign language and extends the index fingers of both hands, brings the fingers toward each other twice using a jabbing or twisting movement, this means? abruptio placenta - correct answer ✅a premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus amniotic sac - correct answer ✅The fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops. apgar score - correct answer ✅A scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of five areas of assessment. birth canal - correct answer ✅The vagina and cervix bloody show - correct answer ✅A small amount of blood at the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and my include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 placenta previa - correct answer ✅A condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix. preeclampsia - correct answer ✅A condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called pregnancy-induced hypertension. pregnancy-induced hypertension - correct answer ✅A condition of late pregnancy that involves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called preeclampsia. presentation - correct answer ✅The position in which an infant is born; the part of the infant that appears first. primigravida - correct answer ✅A woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy prolapse of the umbilical cord - correct answer ✅A situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the infant. spina bifida - correct answer ✅A development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possibly even outside of the body, usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area. supine hypotensive syndrome - correct answer ✅Low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the pregnant uterus when the mother is supine. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 umbilical cord - correct answer ✅The conduit connecting the mother to infant via the placenta; contains two arteries and one vein. vertex presentation - correct answer ✅A delivery in which the head comes out first. If a patient's mechanical ventilator malfunctions, you should remove the patient from the ventilator and: A) place the patient on a nasal cannula. B) place the patient on a nonrebreathing mask. C) begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D) contact medical control. - correct answer ✅C) begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask. irway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their: A) teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue. B) occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck. C) tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat. D) mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal. - correct answer ✅A) teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue. When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should: A) explain procedures while in the process of performing them. B) be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. C) move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 D) frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay. - correct answer ✅B) be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: A) exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands. B) speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. C) removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions. D) positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient. - correct answer ✅D) positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient. When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: A) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. B) voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. C) document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. D) avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient. - correct answer ✅A) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: A) brain. B) spinal cord. C) voluntary muscles. D) peripheral nervous system. - correct answer ✅A) brain. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Incorrect Response A) diabetes mellitus. B) intracranial bleeding. C) unilateral paralysis. D) congenital heart disease. - correct answer ✅D) congenital heart disease. An important aspect in the assessment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves: A) presuming that he or she has cognitive impairment until proven otherwise. B) contacting the patient's physician to determine the extent of the brain injury. C) recalling that most patients with a brain injury have other organ dysfunction. D) speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient. - correct answer ✅D) speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient. When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: A) allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B) stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. C) leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. D) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. - correct answer ✅D) tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. abrasion - correct answer ✅Loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 amputation - correct answer ✅An injury in which part of the body is completely severed. avulsion - correct answer ✅An injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap. burns - correct answer ✅Injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation. closed injuries - correct answer ✅Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface remains intact. compartment syndrome - correct answer ✅Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue. contact burn - correct answer ✅A burn caused by direct contact with a hot object. contamination - correct answer ✅The presence of infectious organisms or foreign bodies on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds, or a patient's body. contusion - correct answer ✅A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 crush syndrome - correct answer ✅Significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death. crushing injury - correct answer ✅An injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body. dermis - correct answer ✅The inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels. ecchymosis - correct answer ✅Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin. epidermis - correct answer ✅The outer layer of skin that acts as a watertight protective covering. evisceration - correct answer ✅The displacement of organs outside of the body. fascia - correct answer ✅The fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments. flame burn - correct answer ✅A burn caused by an open flame. flash burn - correct answer ✅A burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as in an explosion. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Epiphyseal (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture that occurs in a growth section of a child's bone and may lead to growth abnormalities. Oblique (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone. This is usually the result of a sharp angled blow to the bone. Transverse (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture that occurs straight across the bone. This is usually the result of a direct blow or stress fracture caused by prolonged running. Spiral (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture caused by a twisting force, causing an oblique fracture around the bone and through the bone. This is often the result of abuse in very young children. Incomplete (fracture) - correct answer ✅a fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a non-displaced partial crack. significant forces required to cause fractures or dislocations may be: - correct answer ✅-direct blows -indirect forces -twisting forces -high energy injuries Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Minor Injuries: - correct answer ✅-minor sprains -fractures or dislocations of digits DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Moderate Injuries: - correct answer ✅-open fractures of digits -non-displaced long-bone fractures -non-displaced pelvic fractures -major sprains of a major joint Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Serious Injuries: - correct answer ✅-displaced long-bone fractures -multiple hand and foot fractures -open long-bone fractures -displaced pelvic fractures -dislocations of major joints -multiple digit amputations -laceration of major nerves or blood vessels Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Severe, Life-Threatening Injuries (survival is probable): - correct answer ✅-multiple closed fractures -limb amputations -fractures of both long bones of the legs (bilateral femur fractures) Musculoskeletal Injury Grading System / Critical Injuries (survival is uncertain): - correct answer ✅- multiple open fractures of the limbs -suspected pelvic fractures with hemodynamic instablility DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Do not use Traction Splints for any of these conditions: - correct answer ✅-injuries of the upper extremity -injuries close to or involving the knee -injuries of the hip -injuries of the pelvis -partial amputations or avulsions with bone separation -lower leg, foot, or ankle injury Do not use the PASG (pneumatic antishock garment) if these conditions exist: - correct answer ✅- pregnancy -pulmonary edema -acute heart failure -penetrating chest injuries -groin injuries -major head injuries -a transport time of less than 30 minutes acromioclavicular (AC) joint - correct answer ✅A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder. articular cartilage - correct answer ✅A pearly layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 retroperitoneal space - correct answer ✅The space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the gastrointestinal tract. sciatic nerve - correct answer ✅The major nerve to the lower extremities; controls much of muscle function in the leg and sensation in most of the leg and foot. sling - correct answer ✅A bandage or material that helps to support the weight of an injured upper extremity. splint - correct answer ✅A flexible or rigid appliance used to protect and maintain the position of an injured extremity. sprain - correct answer ✅A joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends. strain - correct answer ✅Stretching or tearing of a muscle; also called a muscle pull. subluxation - correct answer ✅A partial or incomplete dislocation. swathe - correct answer ✅A bandage that passes around the chest to secure an injured arm to the chest. tibia - correct answer ✅The shin bone, the larger of the two bones of the lower leg. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 tourniquet - correct answer ✅The bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure and elevation; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation. traction - correct answer ✅Longitudinal force applied to a structure. zone of injury - correct answer ✅The area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or a joint. Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFFD) is the primary guide used by the Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission? (001) - correct answer ✅AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations. Why is Medical Doctrine necessary? (001) - correct answer ✅Guides commanders in using assets. What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objective, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment? (001) - correct answer ✅Operational Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples? (001) - correct answer ✅A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors. What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available? (002) - correct answer ✅Significantly increase DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no beds? (002) - correct answer ✅EMEDS Basic. Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)? (002) - correct answer ✅Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training. Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification? (002) - correct answer ✅24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support. What is total number of personal assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25? (002) - correct answer ✅86. The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level? (003) - correct answer ✅4N000 Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)? (003) - correct answer ✅Air Force career field manager What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? (004) - correct answer ✅First Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory? (005) - correct answer ✅Career field manager DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involves reviewing the? (013) - correct answer ✅behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; and the standards that fall under each task. Which personal provides specifics training information for particular tasks or knowledge? (014) - correct answer ✅Your OJT trainer or supervisor. What does task knowledge identify? (014) - correct answer ✅Your ability to identify facts, state principles, analyze or evaluate the subject To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?(014) - correct answer ✅Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task. To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include? (014) - correct answer ✅analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject. What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force Training Record? (AFTR) (015) - correct answer ✅Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable). Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base to work center), the supervisor must perform? (015) - correct answer ✅an initial evaluation. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level? (016) - correct answer ✅Can I do simple parts of the task? After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level? (016) - correct answer ✅Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task? The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document? (017) - correct answer ✅training effectiveness. If training is effective, what should trainees remember? (017) - correct answer ✅The requirements to successfully complete the job. What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness? (017) - correct answer ✅Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process Name one of the three shred-outs of the 4N0X1 career field? (018) - correct answer ✅Neurology technician. Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins? (019) - correct answer ✅with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626 DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor? (019) - correct answer ✅National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements What must you meet prior to applying for retraining? (019) - correct answer ✅Eligibility requirements. What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining? (019) - correct answer ✅Last three EPRs. The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the? (019) - correct answer ✅career force of each Air Force speciality code (AFSC) as needed To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), the click on? (020) - correct answer ✅Training Records. The procedures to update the User Location for MACJCOM, Base, Unit, or Work center is preformed by clicking? (021) - correct answer ✅My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information? (021) - correct answer ✅Unit training manager. What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates? (022) - correct answer ✅AF 623 Part II DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 What type of information can you provide all new personnel on preparation of duty schedules? (033) - correct answer ✅Authority, responsibility, and delegation; length of cycle rotation and direction-forward, backward; deadlines for posting; guidelines for changes and/or exchanging hours; reporting schedule changes. What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule? (033) - correct answer ✅Mobility exercises. Performance can be broken down into what types of criteria? (034) - correct answer ✅Qualitative and quantitative. Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force? (035) - correct answer ✅Each individual. By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent? (035) - correct answer ✅Equipment damage and injury to a patient What is the name of the product that is generated through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section? (036) - correct answer ✅Activity issue/turn-in summary What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed? (036) - correct answer ✅Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days? (036) - correct answer ✅Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order. How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections usually conducted? (037) - correct answer ✅Daily. What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair? (037) - correct answer ✅AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing. Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns? (037) - correct answer ✅Biomedical equipment repair technician Which are the two primary categories of items that require report of survey (ROS) documentation if lost, damaged, or destroyed? (038) - correct answer ✅Supply system stocks and property record items Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-month's base pay of? (038) - correct answer ✅a person who lost or damaged property. A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when? (038) - correct answer ✅. financial responsibility is assessed. What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment? (038) - correct answer ✅DD Form 1131. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Which of the following defines nonmaleficence? (039) - correct answer ✅The duty to do no harm. Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities? (039) - correct answer ✅Chaperone Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect? (040) - correct answer ✅Anyone handling patient information. For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use? (040) - correct answer ✅DOD Regulation 6025.18-R Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress? (041) - correct answer ✅Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online? (042) - correct answer ✅No precautions are taken while off-duty. Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)? (043) - correct answer ✅Team-based model. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of? - correct answer ✅flexion why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately ? - correct answer ✅provide clear and concise pt info you have just completed screening a pt with an appt for blurred vision right right eye. How should you document this info correctly? - correct answer ✅pt complains of blurred vision right eye you would NOT find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell? - correct answer ✅Nucleus What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction? - correct answer ✅Microfilaments what part of the cell provides the PRIMARY source for cellular energy? - correct answer ✅mitochondria which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus is actually dividing? - correct answer ✅Anaphase the complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as? - correct answer ✅cell differentiation what type of tissue is te major component of glands? - correct answer ✅epithelial what type of tissue can change its shape? - correct answer ✅muscle DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 because of its striated appearance , which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue? - correct answer ✅cardiac muscle aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the ? - correct answer ✅iris what par of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images? - correct answer ✅rods what nerve is the pathway to vision? - correct answer ✅optc what substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape? - correct answer ✅Vitreous humor the auditory ossicles are located in the ? - correct answer ✅middle ear in the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the ? - correct answer ✅cochlea which of the following is a nasal air passageway? - correct answer ✅middle meatus odors are describes as belonging to which of these groups? - correct answer ✅7 primary odors, combination of at least 2 of them what are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity? - correct answer ✅olfactory bulbs DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 the layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the - correct answer ✅stratum spinosum the white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the - correct answer ✅lunula what substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland - correct answer ✅sebum in which function of the integumentary system would blood vessels constrict? - correct answer ✅body temp regulation pigmentation is attributed to? - correct answer ✅melanin where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system? - correct answer ✅bone ends where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone? - correct answer ✅medullary cavity what bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied? - correct answer ✅sesamoid what is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint? - correct answer ✅patella what type of muscle is the skeletal muscle - correct answer ✅voluntary ;striated DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 the superior portion of the pharynx that contains the eustachian tubes is the ? - correct answer ✅nasopharynx the larynx is composed of how many cartilages ? - correct answer ✅3 single/ 3 paired what part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage ? - correct answer ✅trachea during inhalation , the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move? - correct answer ✅forward and slightly upward the amount of air remaining in the lungs after the strongest possible exhalation is known as ? - correct answer ✅residual air the small spaces between neurons are called the ? - correct answer ✅synapses what type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other? - correct answer ✅bipolar what is the primary function of the cerebellum other than coordinating muscular movements? - correct answer ✅control activity of the brain itself DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 the part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the? - correct answer ✅medulla oblongata what is 1 of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum? - correct answer ✅storing knowledge what is the name of the large intersection of the interlaced spinal nerves? - correct answer ✅plexus what cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight? - correct answer ✅optic what cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus eye muscle? - correct answer ✅abducent the fight or flight reaction is controlled by the ? - correct answer ✅sympathetic nervous system what part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for involuntary body functions? - correct answer ✅autonomic the layer of the alimentary canal that is responsible for movement of substances through the canal is the ? - correct answer ✅muscular the ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the? - correct answer ✅cecum what is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth? - correct answer ✅frenulum DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 what is the difference of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will keep ? - correct answer ✅12 where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum? - correct answer ✅cecum which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body? - correct answer ✅colon what liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder? - correct answer ✅Bile kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extent from the ? - correct answer ✅thoracic to the lumbar spinal region approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney? - correct answer ✅1 million how many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30 yr old male? - correct answer ✅10 backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by the ? - correct answer ✅flap of mucous membrane the urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately how many millimeters of urine? - correct answer ✅250 what part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations? - correct answer ✅nephron DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly? - correct answer ✅Bacteria Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeasts and molds? - correct answer ✅Fungi What condition must be present for a virus to multiply? - correct answer ✅Susceptible tissue Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease? - correct answer ✅Incubation Which of the following best states the purpose of the standard precautions recommended by the CDC? - correct answer ✅Reduce the risk of transmission of microorganisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals What should you do if the clothes you are wearing at work become contaminated? - correct answer ✅Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water One of the most common and serious complications a females may develop from gonorrhea is? - correct answer ✅Pelvic inflammatory disease A health care provider notifies Pubic Health of a suspected communicable disease by - correct answer ✅using the telephone or locally derived form DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Which medical term means the absence of infection? - correct answer ✅Asepsis Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue? - correct answer ✅Antiseptic When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on - correct answer ✅Before entering, and take it off before leaving What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-life method? - correct answer ✅When package integrity is compromised Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent? - correct answer ✅Hydrochloric acid What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer? - correct answer ✅Between 122-131 degrees F Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer? - correct answer ✅Count sheets What are the standard identifiers associated with the Nation Patient Safety Guidelines? - correct answer ✅Patient's full name and date of birth DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare? - correct answer ✅Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control The very low-density lipoproteins transport - correct answer ✅Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care? - correct answer ✅Rehabilitation A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at - correct answer ✅24 months Which is a characteristic of late adulthood? - correct answer ✅Muscle atrophy What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment? - correct answer ✅Pure water Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program? - correct answer ✅Blood pressure screenings A good source of protein is - correct answer ✅Poultry Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by - correct answer ✅Pernicious anemia DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is - correct answer ✅Shock and disorientation Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in a intoxicated patient? - correct answer ✅Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure? - correct answer ✅Hypovolemia What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest? - correct answer ✅Hyperkalemia Which acid-based imbalance is caused by hyperventilating? - correct answer ✅Respiratory alkalosis Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular, shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called - correct answer ✅Respiratory Acidosis The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to - correct answer ✅Administer fluids into the circulatory system What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous solution? - correct answer ✅remove protective devices yourself DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions? - correct answer ✅Back-check valve To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients schedule for long term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous site? - correct answer ✅Every 48 to 72 hours In cubic centimeters, what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous - correct answer ✅10 to 50 cc Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient? - correct answer ✅Specific gravity What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine? - correct answer ✅Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for - correct answer ✅2 to 3 minutes What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter? - correct answer ✅Read the operating instructions In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify that patient's - correct answer ✅pulse rate DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 A proctoscopy is an inspection of the - correct answer ✅rectum When educating the patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving - correct answer ✅In the direction of hair growth The eye can generally see wavelengths between - correct answer ✅400 and 750 nm At what ages is visual acuity at its best? - correct answer ✅15-20 When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forces expiratory volume at once second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than? - correct answer ✅80 During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are - correct answer ✅2; 3 Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called - correct answer ✅Artifacts What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings? - correct answer ✅Arrhythmia DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about - correct answer ✅provocation While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine? - correct answer ✅Time What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician at the scene of a hazmat incident? - correct answer ✅Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members. Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations? - correct answer ✅Army field litter If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask - correct answer ✅what is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device. If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the - correct answer ✅detailed physical exam In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient? - correct answer ✅5 DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians in the field to describe a possible fracture? - correct answer ✅Painful, swollen deformity Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because greater blood loss or contaminated is possible? - correct answer ✅Open While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first? - correct answer ✅If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using temporary external pulse generator system? - correct answer ✅Right atrium Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called - correct answer ✅Respiratory acidosis Which individual is not authorized to see and treat patients? - correct answer ✅Registered nurses What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process? - correct answer ✅Patient's condition and the facility policy What would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit? - correct answer ✅Obtain patient's vital sighs, height, and weight DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours? - correct answer ✅Pass How many pounds of baggage are allowed for a patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility? - correct answer ✅66 A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered - correct answer ✅Subsisting out If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every four hours was blank for the day, you would assume the - correct answer ✅Vital signs were not completed What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet? - correct answer ✅Circle the last accumulated total Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses? - correct answer ✅Planning Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal? - correct answer ✅A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery? - correct answer ✅Preoperative teaching DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 What actions, if any, should you take if your patient complain that his or her short leg cast feels tight? - correct answer ✅Bivalve the cast The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a - correct answer ✅Phantom limb pain What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb? - correct answer ✅Tourniquet Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause - correct answer ✅Cardiac arrest Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally - correct answer ✅a lifelong process The side of the body that is affected by a stroke is determined by the - correct answer ✅side of the brain that was traumatized During which child development stage is separation anxiety the most stressful? - correct answer ✅Preschool The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they lose their sense of control is - correct answer ✅regression DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be - correct answer ✅Dehydration Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child? - correct answer ✅You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child When providing skin care for the elderly, it is important to avoid using - correct answer ✅alcohol How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient? - correct answer ✅Cater to the patient's customs What is a sign of uremia? - correct answer ✅Oliguria The first stage of dying is - correct answer ✅denial All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed - correct answer ✅personality What affects an individual's feeling about themselves? - correct answer ✅Self-perception Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions? - correct answer ✅Compulsion DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well-being, flight of ideas, and physical over-activity? - correct answer ✅Mania Your behavior or actions in the presence of a patient who is anxious should be - correct answer ✅consistent A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of - correct answer ✅Withdrawal When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient? - correct answer ✅As soon as the patient is admitted What is the primary rehabilitation need of a mentally ill patient? - correct answer ✅Strengthening the patient's defenses When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is - correct answer ✅behavior Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except - correct answer ✅Electroconvulsive therapy What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child shows signs of abuse, such as burns and bruises? - correct answer ✅Report the suspected abuse DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Care must be taken to ensure patients do not strain while holding their breath when performing isometric exercises as that may cause - correct answer ✅heart attack What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract? - correct answer ✅Liquid The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than three days is the - correct answer ✅Clear liquid Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's nasogastric tube? - correct answer ✅Check for tube placement What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage? - correct answer ✅Room temperature During catheterization of a patient, how inches is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder? - correct answer ✅2 to 3 When measuring urine output of an infant, one gram of diaper weight is equal to - correct answer ✅one milliliter For administration of an enema, the patient is preferably positioned - correct answer ✅on his or her left side DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Colostomy irrigations are performed to - correct answer ✅established fecal control What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range? - correct answer ✅95 to 98 percent What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream? - correct answer ✅Respiratory acidosis When using an oxygen tent, how frequently should oxygen concentrations and temperature be checked? - correct answer ✅1 to 2 hours For patients using a non-rebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is - correct answer ✅60 to 90 percent What actions should you take when moving a patient on a venturi mask? - correct answer ✅Monitor in transport and reassess patient on arrival What complications could occur to the patient following a thoracentesis? - correct answer ✅Shock, bleeding, and dyspnea Closed-check drainage is a drainage system used to - correct answer ✅re-expand a collapsed lung What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia? - correct answer ✅Syncope DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 The physiological function that the heart sound S1 ("lub") is associated with is - correct answer ✅closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism? - correct answer ✅Valsalva What position should a patient be placed in for insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein? - correct answer ✅Trendelenburg As a minimum, how many minutes should you irrigate a patient's eye with chemical burns? - correct answer ✅20 minutes How are corneal abrasions detected? - correct answer ✅Fluorescein stain There is a high rate of success if a dentist carries out a tooth replacement procedure within how many minutes of the accident? - correct answer ✅30 minutes Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn? - correct answer ✅Partial thickness A burn is classified as moderate if it involves - correct answer ✅full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 The process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as - correct answer ✅Absorption A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to - correct answer ✅body fat absorption Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? - correct answer ✅Lower digestive system content Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action? - correct answer ✅Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action Which of these is a common reference source for drugs? - correct answer ✅Physician Desk Reference A finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a - correct answer ✅powder What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content? - correct answer ✅Cathartics Which element is not required on a medication order? - correct answer ✅Patient's age DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except - correct answer ✅for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day How many pounds are equal to 65kg? - correct answer ✅143 Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each dose? - correct answer ✅6.5 Lt Col McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer? - correct answer ✅.50 The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is - correct answer ✅intramuscular Name the parts of a needle - correct answer ✅Hub, shaft, and bevel What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system? - correct answer ✅Oral To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location? - correct answer ✅At the patient's bedside DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication? - correct answer ✅Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to - correct answer ✅prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye Into what body cavity are otic medications administered? - correct answer ✅External auditory canal To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe - correct answer ✅down to straighten the canal Vaginal suppositories are - correct answer ✅administered to combat infection When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag? - correct answer ✅12 to 18 inches Which medication's primary action is pain relief? - correct answer ✅Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of - correct answer ✅opioid overdose Nonopioid analgesics are available - correct answer ✅over the counter DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson's daughter has received education from the nurse at the hospital regarding the heparin treatment. What patient education instructions would Mr. Johnson's daughter receive in regards to the site of the heparin injection? - correct answer ✅Do not aspirate While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin - correct answer ✅K The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is - correct answer ✅bleeding Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of? - correct answer ✅Constipation What is a potential side when antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives? - correct answer ✅Increase bleeding time Which medication acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a drying effect to the gastrointestinal tract? - correct answer ✅Kaopectate Cathartics are categorized as - correct answer ✅Laxatives What type of laxative is sorbitol? - correct answer ✅Hyperosmotic DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered? - correct answer ✅30 minutes before expected motion Among the endocrine medication, what drug action category do adrenal corticosteroids fall within? - correct answer ✅Supportive Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection? - correct answer ✅Corticosteroids A major contributor of young children developing type 2 diabetes is - correct answer ✅increased obesity With type 1 diabetes, the pancreas - correct answer ✅in unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with - correct answer ✅alcohol or salicylates What are the actions of sulfonylurea medications? - correct answer ✅Increase the insulin production of the pancreas and better peripheral insulin activity Aminoglycosides are used for - correct answer ✅short term treatment Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also most likely to be allergic to - correct answer ✅cephalosporins DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 When a patient is receiving penicillin for treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient- education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control? - correct answer ✅Use a back up method of birth control while taking the penicillin If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate? - correct answer ✅Add yogurt or buttermilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes Which medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest? - correct answer ✅Theophyline Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products? - correct answer ✅Influenza Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of - correct answer ✅contaminated food or water Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force? - correct answer ✅Tetanus What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa? - correct answer ✅Yellow fever and typhoid Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in the early 2000s the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel? - correct answer ✅Small pox DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 chief complaint - correct answer ✅The reason a patient called for help; also, the patient's response to questions such as "What's wrong?" or "What happened?" coagulate - correct answer ✅To form a clot to plug an opening in an injured blood vessel and stop bleeding. colorimetric devices - correct answer ✅Capnometer or end-tidal carbon dioxide detectors are devices that use a chemical reaction to detect the amount of carbon dioxide present in expired gases by changing colors (qualitative measurement rather than quantitative). conjuctiva - correct answer ✅The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye. crepitus - correct answer ✅A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling. cyanosis - correct answer ✅a bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood. DCAP-BTLS - correct answer ✅deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling diaphoretic - correct answer ✅Characterized by profuse sweating. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 diastolic pressure - correct answer ✅occurs when the ventricles are relaxed; the lowest pressure against the walls of an artery End Tital CO2 - correct answer ✅the amount of carbon dioxide present in an exhaled breath focused assessment - correct answer ✅A type of physical assessment that is typically performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant mechanisms of injury or on responsive medical patients. This type of examination is based on the chief complaint and focuses on one body system or part. frostbite - correct answer ✅damage to the skin and tissues caused by extreme cold full-body scan - correct answer ✅A systematic head-to-toe examination that is performed during the secondary assessment on a patient who has sustained a significant mechanism of injury, is unconscious, or is in critical condition. general impression - correct answer ✅The overall initial impression that determines the priority for patient care; based on the patient's surroundings, the mechanism of injury, signs and symptoms, and the chief complaint. Golden Period - correct answer ✅The time from injury to definitive care, during which treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 guarding - correct answer ✅Involuntary muscle contractions (spasms) of the abdominal wall in an effort to protect an inflamed abdomen; a sign of peritonitis. history taking - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process that provides detail about the patient's chief complaint and an account of the patient's signs and symptoms. Hypertension - correct answer ✅abnormally high blood pressure hypotension - correct answer ✅abnormally low blood pressure hypothermia - correct answer ✅A condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95°F (35°C), usually as a result of prolonged exposure to cool or freezing temperatures. Incident Command System - correct answer ✅A system implemented to manage disasters and mass- and multiple-casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander. Also referred to as the incident management system. jaundice - correct answer ✅Yellow skin or sclera that is caused by liver disease or dysfunction. labored breathing - correct answer ✅The use of muscles of the chest, back, and abdomen to assist in expanding the chest; occurs when air movement is impaired. mechanism of injury - correct answer ✅a force or forces that may have caused injury DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 scene size-up - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process that involves a quick assessment of the scene and the surroundings to provide information about scene safety and the mechanism of injury or nature of illness before you enter and begin patient care. sclera - correct answer ✅The white portion of the eye; the tough outer coat that gives protection to the delicate, light-sensitive inner layer. Secondary Assessment - correct answer ✅A step within the patient assessment process in which a systematic physical examination of the patient is performed. The examination may be a systematic full- body scan or a systematic assessment that focuses on a certain area or region of the body, often determined through the chief complaint. shallow respirations - correct answer ✅Respirations that are charcterized by little movement of the chest wall (reduced tidal volume) or poor chest excursion sign - correct answer ✅Objective findings that can be seen, heard, felt, smelled, or measured. sniffling position - correct answer ✅an upright position in which the patient's head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open spontaneous respirations - correct answer ✅Breathing that occurs with no assistance. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 Standard Precautions - correct answer ✅Protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease. stridor - correct answer ✅A harsh, high-pitched, crowing inspiratory sound, such as the sound often heard in acute laryngeal (upper airway) obstruction; may sound like crowing and be audible without a stethoscope. subcutaneous emphysema - correct answer ✅The presence of air in soft tissues, causing a characteristic crackling sensation on palpation. symptom - correct answer ✅Subjective findings that the patient feels but that can be identified only by the patient. systolic pressure - correct answer ✅The increased pressure in an artery with each contraction of the ventricles (systole). tachycardia - correct answer ✅rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute tidal volume - correct answer ✅Amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during a normal breath(500ml) triage - correct answer ✅The process of establishing treatment and transportation priorities according to severity of injury and medical need. DO NO T COP Y 4N051 SSgt WAPS-FULL SKT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPLOADED 2024 tripod position - correct answer ✅An upright position in which the patient leans forward onto two arms stretched forward and thrusts the head and chin forward. two- to three-word dyspnea - correct answer ✅A severe breathing problem in which a patient can speak only two to three words at a time without pausing to take a breath. vasoconstriction - correct answer ✅narrowing of blood vessels vital signs - correct answer ✅The key signs that are used to evaluate the patient's overall condition, including respirations, pulse, blood pressure, level of consciousness, and skin characteristics. acute coronary syndrome - correct answer ✅A term used to describe a group of symptoms caused by myocardial ischemia; includes angina and myocardial infarction. *acute myocardial infarction - correct answer ✅A heart attack; death of heart muscle following obstruction of blood flow to it. Acute in this context means "new" or "happening right now." angina pectoris - correct answer ✅Transient (short-lived) chest discomfort caused by partial or temporary blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. Anterior - correct answer ✅The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position.