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Pharmacology and Drug Metabolism, Exams of Nursing

A comprehensive examination test with correct marking scheme for unit 2, covering various topics such as drug effects, graded drug response, receptor occupation, selectivity, drug metabolism, and pharmacokinetics. It also includes specific examples and explanations of enzymes involved in drug metabolism, drug absorption, and the impact of factors like grapefruit juice and pregnancy on drug metabolism.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 06/04/2024

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Download Pharmacology and Drug Metabolism and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 553 Unit 2 examination test with correct marking scheme for 2024 candidates  For a drug to produce an effect it must overcome an individual's - Correct Answers Homeostasis: physio processes meant to maintain internal cell environment  What is a graded drug response? Examples? - Correct Answers Biological effects that can be measured (blood pressure, HR, diuresis, pain, coma, bronchodilation)  What is a quantal drug response? Examples? - Correct Answers Effects that may or may not occur, not necessarily measured (pregnancy, seizures, rash, sleep, death)  _______ is the expression of how much drug is needed to produce a biological response - Correct Answers Potency  50mg drug that produces same response as 250mg drug is more potent  ________ is the ability of a drug to produce a maximum effect at any dosage - Correct Answers Efficacy  Morphine is more efficient at treating severe pain than Motrin. Expresses the maximum effect a drug is able to produce  ___________ is the ability of a drug to produce a large response once it has occupied specific receptors - Correct Answers Intrinsic activity  Does number of receptors occupied make difference in drug response?  Describe the ratio of selectivity - Correct Answers Dose or concentration producing undesired effect / dose or concentration producing desired effect  Ex: A med requires 1 tab to cause desired effect with no undesired effects. When 5 tabs are taken, undesired effects present. This drug has a selectivity ratio of 5  According to the FDA Orange Book, AB rated drugs are _____________ - Correct Answers Generic drugs that are considered similar enough to substitute brand names  How do brand and generic drugs differ? - Correct Answers Both contain same active ingredient. Different inactive ingredients (coloring, filler) that cause differences in absorption time  __________ are large molecules, usually proteins, that interact with and mediate the action of drugs - Correct Answers Receptors  Why are receptors important? - Correct Answers Determine dose/effect relationship  Determine drug selectivity  Determine actions of antagonists  Framework/predictor of drug actions related to dose  _________ is the correlation of chemical structure with pharmacological activity - Correct Answers Structure-activity relationship (SAR)  ____ are drugs that produce receptor stimulation and conformational change every time they bind - Correct Answers Agonists, or full agonists  _______ are drugs that bind to receptors but do not stimulate them - Correct Answers Antagonists  ________ are drugs that bind to receptors but stimulate only some of them - Correct Answers Partial agonists  The ____ of G-proteins recognizes and binds to drugs - Correct Answers Binding site  The __________ of G-proteins control what happens after the drug is bound - Correct Answers Intracellular proteins  Activation of receptors produce intracellular changes in the binding of the G- protein receptor to other proteins that control response through molecules called __________ - Correct Answers Second messengers  What enzyme so statin drugs inhibit? - Correct Answers HMG-Co-A  Controls cholesterol synthesis  Define pharmacokinetics - Correct Answers What the body does to a drug  Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion  How are oral meds absorbed? - Correct Answers Stomach > small and large intestines > pass through intestinal lining > possibly metabolized in liver > bloodstream  _______ refers to the point at which amount of drug being absorbed and distributed is equal to amount being metabolized and excreted (max concentration of drug) - Correct Answers Peak of action  ________ is the continued entry of a drug into the body with levels above minimum effective concentration - Correct Answers Duration of action  What is the minimum effective concentration? - Correct Answers Level below which therapeutic effects will not occur  What is the minimum toxic concentration? - Correct Answers Level above which toxic effects begin  What is the therapeutic index? - Correct Answers Minimum toxic concentration- minimum effective concentration  _________ is the percentage of a drug that is absorbed and available to reach tissues - Correct Answers Bioavailability  It takes _________ lives to get to a steady state blood level, and it takes _________ lives to totally eliminate drug from the body - Correct Answers 4-5.5  Describe relationship of distribution and blood supply - Correct Answers Drugs travel to areas of high blood supply first  Protein binding  Free drug + Bound drug =? - Correct Answers Drug-protein complex  Describe relationship of amount of plasma proteins with drug distribution - Correct Answers Low plasma proteins >> more free drug in circulation  Low plasma proteins leads to higher amounts of free drug. What can this cause? - Correct Answers Toxicity  More drug eliminated  __________ drugs deposit in bone and teeth - Correct Answers Tetracycline’s  Only ___________ drugs can cross blood-brain barrier - Correct Answers Lipid- soluble  Which variations can occur in isoenzymes, like CYP 450 enzymes? - Correct Answers Developmental and genetic differences.  Some disease processes can alter enzymes (i.e. CF alters CYP2D9)  For drug to be filtered by glomeruli, it must...? - Correct Answers Be unbound from protein (free)  Water-soluble  _________ involves filtrate moving through nephron, molecules reabsorbed into blood - Correct Answers Passive glomerular filtration  ________ involves the movement of ions, amino acids, and glucose back into circulation back into cells and into the plasma - Correct Answers Tubular reabsorption  Describe differences in gamete versus sperm cell production in males/females - Correct Answers Women are born with all their gametes. Men start producing sperm at puberty and continue into testosterone wanes (60s, 70s)  Gastric emptying time is ______ in females. Why? What does this affect? - Correct Answers Slower, likely r/t estrogen  Drugs absorbed in stomach will stay longer  Describe volume of distribution of lipophilic drugs in females - Correct Answers Females have more fat. Absorbed quickly and stay longer  Women have ____ rates of metabolism for CYP450 3A4 substrates - Correct Answers Higher, clear drugs faster  Describe opiates and women - Correct Answers Greater analgesic effect but more adverse reactions (n/v)  Women age 15-50 have __ QT intervals, making them prone to arrhythmias - Correct Answers longer  Describe Warfarin and Aspirin in women - Correct Answers Warfarin: less benefits with higher mortality r/t bleeding  Aspirin: Lowers risk for stroke but not MI  Describe woman and antipsychotic drugs - Correct Answers Most effective in women but more adverse reactions  Why do women experience adverse reactions with antipsychotic drugs? - Correct Answers R/t anti-dopaminergic actions of estrogen. Should prescribe lower doses for women  Antipsychotics: women respond better to __________ class, men to ________ class - Correct Answers Women: SSRIs  Men: Tricyclic antidepressants  Describe antiretroviral drugs and women - Correct Answers More severe adverse reactions, allergic reactions, etc.  What makes up the female athlete triad? - Correct Answers Amenorrhea  Osteoporosis  Disordered eating  Describe physiologic of female athlete triad - Correct Answers Poor eating/over exercise suppresses hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis >> cause reduced estrogen, amenorrhea, osteoporosis  ______ is absence of menses for 6 months in a girl who has had a period - Correct Answers Secondary amenorrhea  ________ is absence of menses by age 13 or 15 with secondary sex characteristics - Correct Answers Primary amenorrhea  What are strategies to reduce osteoporosis in adolescent females? - Correct Answers Increase daily calcium to 1300 mg and vitamin D to 400  How can menses be resumed in adolescents? - Correct Answers Decrease exercise, increase PO intake, increase BMI  Describe bone formation pattern in women - Correct Answers 40% bone in adolescence, continues to age 30, then bone loss starts  Long-term Depo-Provera (injectable birth control) has been linked to - Correct Answers Significant bone density loss  Due to loss in bone density, Depo-Provera should not be used for longer than _______ - Correct Answers 2 years  In pregnancy, drug absorption from which sites increase? - Correct Answers Lungs and skin  Cardiac output in pregnancy may be _______% higher than prepregnancy - Correct Answers 30-50% higher  Drug clearance ____ in pregnancy - Correct Answers Increases  Why is iron deficiency anemia common in pregnancy? - Correct Answers Expansion of plasma volume without expansion of hemoglobin mass  What can iron deficiency anemia lead to in pregnancy? - Correct Answers Infection, fatigue, pre-eclampsia, post-part hemorrhage  Daily iron intake of ____ is needed during pregnancy - Correct Answers 30 mg, start at first visit  Define endometriosis - Correct Answers Presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside uterus. Inflammation leads to pain. Can cause fibrosis, scarring, infertility  Describe drug therapy for endometriosis - Correct Answers GnRH for 3 months or Diazole for 6 months  NSAIDs for pain  Birth control  It is recommended that those with endometriosis limit xenestrogen exposure. Which foods contain this? - Correct Answers Dairy, beef, chicken  Which supplements may help endometriosis inflammation? - Correct Answers Calcium, magnesium, omega-3  Which drug is recommended to reduce HIV Trans from mother to baby in pregnancy? - Correct Answers Zidovudine, triple combined antiretroviral  How is infertility defined? - Correct Answers Inability to conceive after trying for 1 year  Women over 35 should seek fertility evil if unable to conceive after ______ - Correct Answers 6-9 months  What does polycystic ovarian syndrome do? - Correct Answers Endocrine imbalance. High levels of estrogen, testosterone, LH  Low FSH  Impaired glucose tolerance>> risk of DM2  Ovaries double in size with cysts  What med could be used to treat symptom of hirsutism in polycystic ovarian syndrome? - Correct Answers Oral contraceptives  In PCOS, the prescription of _______ and _______ can manage DM2, lower testosterone, reduce acne, hirsutism, obesity, etc. - Correct Answers Insulin and metformin  At what age should mammograms start? - Correct Answers 40  At what age should colonoscopy be done? - Correct Answers Over 50  Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women over _____ - Correct Answers 65  What are the leading causes of death in men? - Correct Answers Heart disease, cancer, accidents  _______is failure of the testes to produce androgen, sperm, or both - Correct Answers Hypogonadism  How dose hypogonadism affect men's fertility? - Correct Answers Low testosterone lowers sperm production, deceases sex drive, and can cause ED  Describe relationship of testosterone to proteins - Correct Answers Largely protein-bound, small portion (2%) is active/free  ______ refers to testicular failure, characterized by low testosterone and elevated gonadotropins - Correct Answers Primary hypogonadism  _________ refers to hypothalamic-pituitary failure and is characterized by low testosterone and normal gonadotropins - Correct Answers Secondary hypogonadism  _______ refers to a condition in older men characterized by high gonadotropins and normal testosterone levels. Could represent compensation. - Correct Answers Third category of hypogonadism  Describe testosterone and aging - Correct Answers Testosterone production declines with age. Low levels can happen at any time  Describe early signs of congenital hypogonadism (at birth) - Correct Answers Improperly formed genitals and internal repro organs. Failure of testes to descend  A normally formed but hypotrophy penis could indicate an issue with ___________- - Correct Answers The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis  Describe signs of hypogonadism in puberty - Correct Answers Delayed or absent penile/testicular growth and secondary sex characteristics, voice never deepens, small muscles, disproportionate arms and legs compared to trunk  Describe s/s of hypogonadism in adulthood - Correct Answers Repro abilities may cease. Depression, male breasts, ED, failure of body hair to grow, increase in fat, loss of energy, low libido, hot flashes, mood swings  Spermatogenesis may continue into what age? - Correct Answers 80s or beyond  Testosterone replacement therapy may help with... - Correct Answers Improved bone density, CV disease, cognition, libido, muscle mass, mood, erythropoiesis  Which lab should be drawn to test for hypogonadism? - Correct Answers Serum testosterone: test in AM because T levels are higher  Free testosterone levels  Which levels of serum testosterone show hypogonadism? - Correct Answers <220-250 low  250-350 borderline low  Normal testosterone levels? - Correct Answers 300-1000  If gonadotropin levels are not high and testosterone levels are normal, anterior pituitary function should be determined by measuring ___________ - Correct Answers Free thyroxine  Thyroid-stimulating hormone levels  Morning cortisol  Consider MRI  What has TRT been shown to definitely improve? - Correct Answers Erythropoiesis  Bone mass  Insulin sensitivity  Cognitive functioning  Libido  TRT is still questionable in the treatment of what hypo gonadal symptoms? - Correct Answers Long-term bone density  No corr. between TRT and CV events  Variable with mood, energy  How does testosterone improve insulin sensitivity? - Correct Answers Increases lean body mass, reduces fat, lowers risk of metabolic syndrome  Dose and frequency of Depo (Depo-Testosterone) for hypogonadism? - Correct Answers 200 mg IM every 2 weeks  What is the testosterone goal for men getting Depot injections? - Correct Answers Mineral 400-600 levels after 1 week or low normal 250-350 levels after 2 weeks, before next injection  Dosage of the transdermal or buccal TRT result in the systemic absorption of _______mg daily - Correct Answers 2.5-10  What is testosterone goal of buccal or transdermal TRT? - Correct Answers 400- 600 (mineral)  Risks of TRT? - Correct Answers Erythrocytosis: check H/H  Prostate cancer: digital exam  Infertility/lower sperm  In children, oral bioavailability of acid labile is _____ - Correct Answers Increased (beta-lactams)  In pads, oral bioavailability of weak organic acids is ______ - Correct Answers Decreased (phenobarbital, phenytoin)  In pads, basic drugs like diazepam and theophylline have _________ absorption - Correct Answers Increased  Why is pediatric intestinal absorption of drugs unpredictable? - Correct Answers Most are absorbed in small intestine  Infants have larger intestinal surface area  Why are children at risk for topical toxicity? (lidocaine, diphenhydramine) - Correct Answers Absorb topical more than adults  Infants have increased intestinal motility. How does this affect drug absorption? - Correct Answers Altars absorption of drugs with limited water solubility (phenytoin, carbamazepine)  Blood-brain barrier in newborns is _______ - Correct Answers Incomplete and permeable  Infants <6 mo. have ______ plasma proteins available for drug binding - Correct Answers Decreased, more unbound/free med  Newborns have total body water of 80%, therefore require higher doses of _______ drugs - Correct Answers Hydrophilic  __________ is the most active isoenzyme at birth - Correct Answers CYP 3A7, goes away after first weeks of life  Explain newborn/adult levels of CYP 1A2 - Correct Answers Reaches adult level at 4 mo.  Exceeds adult level at 1-2 yrs.  Reaches adult level at puberty  Diseases like CF can affect _________ enzyme activity - Correct Answers CYP 1A2  Theophylline, erythromycin, cimetidine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, carbamazepine, and clarithromycin are drugs metabolized by the _________ enzyme - Correct Answers CYP 1A2  Foods metabolized by __________ enzyme include grapefruit juice, cruciferous veggies, charbroiled foods - Correct Answers CYP 1A2  Doses of CYP 1A2 should be adjusted through childhood. Higher doses may be needed from 1 yr. until __________ - Correct Answers Puberty  Adult levels reached at puberty  Ultra metabolizers of ________ enzyme may be at risk for rasp depression after taking codeine due to higher metabolism of codeine to morphine - Correct Answers CYP 2D6  The enzyme _________ is most abundant - Correct Answers CYP 3A4  Explain levels of CYP 3A4 through childhood - Correct Answers Low at birth  30-40% of adult by 1 mo.  Full adult at 6 mo.  Exceeds adult at 1-4 yrs.  Decreases to adult level after puberty  __________ enzyme is used to metabolize >20 pad meds, including NSAIDs, prednisone, oral contraceptives, macrolides, antihistamines, carbamazepine - Correct Answers CYP 3A4  Implications for practice for CYP 3A4? - Correct Answers Monitor when on 1 or more drug metabolized by it  Monitor through developmental changes (levels change through childhood)  Phase II enzymes are responsible for synthesis of _________ compounds - Correct Answers Water-soluble  Phase II enzymes reach adult activity by age _______ - Correct Answers 3-4 yrs.  Explain relationship of Koreans and thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) - Correct Answers Do not reach adult activity levels until 7-9 yrs.  Common medications metabolized by phase II enzymes? - Correct Answers Acetaminophen, morphine, protocol, caffeine  Patients with low TPMT (thiopurine methyltransferase) activity, such as Koreans, are at risk for ______________ - Correct Answers Hepatic toxicity with some chemo drugs (thiopurines)  Patients with low levels of TPMT experience __________ when treated with standard doses of thiopurines - Correct Answers Myelosuppression  Patients with high levels of TPMT will have _____________ with thiopurine treatment - Correct Answers Reduced response  Glomerular filtration rate/renal blood flow reaches adult levels by ___________ - Correct Answers 9 months  Meds should be adjusted beforehand to account for decreased renal fox  By year 2030, __ of the population will be >65 - Correct Answers 1/5  With aging, the GI tract produces less acid as fewer _________ cells are generated - Correct Answers Parietal  Low acid production in the elderly is significant unless __________ drugs are used concurrently - Correct Answers PPIs, which further lower acid  Drugs distributed in lean body mass or water may reach _____ serum concentrations in older adults - Correct Answers Higher, resulting in magnified effects from drug  With normal aging, serum albumin levels can decrease by ___% - Correct Answers 20  What does low serum albumin cause in older adults? - Correct Answers Fewer proteins for meds to bind with >> more free drug, increased toxicity  The phase 1 enzymes (CYP 450 agents) decrease with aging. What can this cause? - Correct Answers Decreased clearance of drugs metabolized by phase 1 enzymes.  In older adults, less hepatic blood flow can cause _____ of drugs - Correct Answers Decrease drug clearance and increase half-life of drugs which rely on liver for excretion (morphine, propranolol)  Phase ___ enzymes are unchanged by aging - Correct Answers 2  Drugs metabolized by phase 2 enzymes (lorazepam, temazepam) are better tolerated by older pts than phase 1 (diazepam)  In older adults, lipid-soluble drugs have _________ volume of distribution - Correct Answers Greater, more fat stores  Benzos stay in adipose tissue > less in serum > longer, unpredictable half-life  In older adults, water-soluble drugs have ______ volume of distribution - Correct Answers Smaller  Total body water decreases  Ex: lithium and digoxin have smaller place to work, more concentrated/magnified effects  In late life, liver's capacity for metabolism via CYP 450 system is __________ - Correct Answers Reduced by >30%, decreases drug clearance
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