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AAAE ACE Operations Module 1: Airport Design and Operations, Exams of Aerospace Practicum

Answers to exam review questions related to the aace operations module 1, covering topics such as airport types, characteristics, airport design standards, runway design, and airport safety. It includes 87 terms with correct solutions.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 02/19/2024

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Download AAAE ACE Operations Module 1: Airport Design and Operations and more Exams Aerospace Practicum in PDF only on Docsity! AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 Study Guide Exam Review Questions Containing 87 Terms with Correct Solutions How many airports are in the NPIAS and what three types are included? - Answer: 3,380 airports; 1) commercial service, 2) reliever, 3) select GA AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 What are the three defining characteristics of commercial service airports? - Answer: 1) open to the public 2) receive scheduled passenger service 3) 2,500 or more enplaned passenger per year What type of airport has commercial service and over 10,000 annual enplanements? - Answer: Primary airport Primary airports are split into 4 categories, what are they and how are they defined? - Answer: Large Hub (>1% of all US annual enplanements); Medium Hub (0.25% to 1%); Small Hub (0.05-0.25%); non-Hub (10,000 to 0.05%) How many enplanements characterize a non-primary commercial service airport? - Answer: between 2,500 and 10,000 enplanements per year What characterizes a reliever airport? - Answer: 1) open to the public; 2) 100 or more based aircraft or 25,000 annual operations General aviation airports can be included in the NPIAS under what circumstances? - Answer: If they have at least 10 locally based aircraft and are at least 20 miles from a NPIAS airport What plan provides guidelines for an airport's capital development over a 20-year timeframe? - Answer: Master Plan AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 What is the term for the beginning or end of the full-strength runway pavement available for takeoff and landing? - Answer: Runway threshold When a runway threshold is not located at the start of the full-strength pavement what is it called and why would this occur? - Answer: Displaced threshold; it is used to identify the first point for landing aircraft to avoid an airspace obstruction, to mitigate environmental considerations, or to lengthen an RSA or OFA What use is the portion of runway behind a displaced threshold? - Answer: It can be used for takeoffs in either direction, and landing from the opposite direction. Taxiways are designed to allow aircraft taxi at what speed? - Answer: 20mph How are taxiway widths determined and what is the standard range of widths? - Answer: Based on wingspan and wingtip clearance (ARC); 25 - 100' What are the standard widths of the taxiway safety area? - Answer: 49 - 262' What are the three primary determinants for optimum airport apron design? - Answer: available space, aircraft mix and terminal configuration What are three aircraft-terminal docking assistance designs? - Answer: Fixed guidance markers such as AGNIS (Azimuth Guidance for Nose-in Stands) and PAPA AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 (Parallax Aircraft Parking Aids) and an electronic display of azimuth and distance such as AVDGS (Advanced Docking Guidance System) How does the FAA ensure accurate data is collected and maintained about airports in the National Airspace System? - Answer: The FAA uses four forms (FAA Form 5010-1, 2,3 and 5) collectively known as the Airport Master Record to collect and maintain data on individual airports What are the uses of the four FAA Forms 5010? How often are they updated? - Answer: Annually (or sooner if a change occurs) updated airport data for: civil public use airports (Form 5010-1); civil private use airports (Form 5010-2); newly constructed public use airports (Form 5010-3); newly constructed private-use airports (Form 5010-5) Does Part 139 apply to heliports? - Answer: No Does FAA restrict helicopter operations to helipads or heliports? - Answer: No Since heliports don't have runways, what are the key design elements? - Answer: The TLOF (Touchdown and Liftoff Area), the FATO (Final Approach and Takeoff Area), a safety area, wind sock and preferably two approach/departure paths to the TLOF/FATO independent of active runway approaches/departures with an associated protection zone to provide additional space in the event of an emergency landing AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 What is the definition of and dimensions for a heliport protection zone? - Answer: The area under approach/departure path starting at the FATO perimeter; extends 280ft for GA facilities and 400ft for transport facilities; land preferably owned by the heliport sponsor Heliport design is based partly on helicopter weight as classified into what three categories? - Answer: Heavy (>12,000lbs); medium (>6,000 - 12,000lbs); small (<6,000lbs) How is a TLOF marked and lighted? - Answer: Outline is marked by a solid white 12" line and green lights with a letter H centered in the area with a bar underneath designating the preferred route How is a FATO marked and lighted? - Answer: Outline is marked by a dashed white line and green lights. What are the beacon colors for a heliport, civil airport, military airport and seaplane base? - Answer: heliport - white-green-yellow; emergency or hospital heliport - white-green-red; civil airport - white-green; military airport - white- white-green; seaplane base - white-yellow How is capacity defined at an airport? - Answer: The ability of an airport component to handle a given volume or magnitude of traffic (demand) within a specified time period. AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 What are four key elements of airport safety policy and objectives? - Answer: Safety program methods, processes, authorities and accountability What are the five phases of the safety risk management process? - Answer: Phase 1: describe the system; Phase 2: identify the hazard; Phase 3: determine the risk; Phase 4: assess and analyze the risk; Phase 5: treat the risk What four items enhance an airport's ability to identify hazards? - Answer: operational expertise; training in hazard analysis techniques; use of a hazard analysis tool; documenting the process What are four risk mitigation strategies? - Answer: avoidance (stop or shift the operation), assumption (accepting the risk), control (minimize or eliminate the risk), transfer (shift risk to another area) What are four types of risks taken by airport operators? - Answer: Informed, uninformed, benefit-driven, pointless What does safety assurance include? - Answer: auditing and oversight What does safety promotion involve? - Answer: training, education, communication and continuous improvement AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 What are a few communication methods that may be effective for a safety program? - Answer: seminars, bulletins or notices, lessons-learned, and cross-tell What must be marked and/or lighted during construction on an airport? - Answer: construction area, open tranches, equipment and roadway on or adjacent to an area where air carrier aircraft will be operating and any area causing degradation to a NAVAID May construction material, equipment or personnel penetrate the obstacle free zone? - Answer: No What coordination must the airport accomplish before conducting construction activity in the runway safety area? - Answer: ATCT and FAA Regional Airports Division office What is the difference between a relocated threshold and a displaced threshold? - Answer: The displaced threshold only affects landing in one direction, a relocated threshold affects landing and takeoff in both directions What are the three most likely threats to aircraft safety during construction on an airport? - Answer: safety area encroachments, improper ground vehicle operations, and unmarked holes and trenches What airports must comply with Part 139? - Answer: airports serving scheduled air carrier aircraft designed for more than 9 passenger seats and unscheduled air AAAE ACE Operations Module 1 carrier aircraft designed for at least 31 passenger seats, to include joint or shared use airports What airports are not subject to Part 139? - Answer: serving passenger carrier operations solely as an alternate airport; those operated by the U.S.; airports in AK that only serve scheduled operations of small air carrier aircraft or times when not serving large air carrier aircraft; heliports What are the definitions large and small air carrier aircraft? - Answer: Large: designed for at least 31 passenger seats; Small: designed for more than 9 and fewer than 31 passenger seats What is the definition of an air carrier operation? - Answer: takeoff or landing to include 15 minutes before and after How is average daily departure calculated? - Answer: Based on the 3 busiest consecutive months in the preceding 12 consecutive months or on planned activity calculated as authorized by the Administrator What is the definition of a Class I airport? - Answer: serves scheduled large air carrier aircraft and can also serve unscheduled large air carrier aircraft and scheduled small air carrier aircraft What is the definition of a Class II airport? - Answer: serves scheduled small air carrier aircraft and unscheduled large air carrier aircraft
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