AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success, Exams of Health sciences

Download AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . You are treating a patient with acute anxiety and she is having an acute attack in the office. The ANP has knowledge that the fastest relief of symptoms is: a TCA a beta-blocker a benzodizepine an SSRICorrect Correct Answer : benzodiazepine The fastest relief of anxiety symptoms will occur with a benzodiazepine. The other choices list agents that will require multiple doses for results. With daily continued use of benzodiazepines, the anti-anxiety effect may become diminished. A geriatric patient with cardiovascular disease is in the office being counseled on lifestyle changes. The ANP knows that which of the following is the most important to include in this discussion? "Control your hypertension, stop smoking, maintain a normal weight, and exercise regularly." "Have a yearly physical examination, increase fiber in your diet, and exercise regularly." "Maintain a normal level of serum blood sugar and decrease cholesterol intake." "Decrease smoking, increase vitamin supplements, and increase protein intake."Correct Correct Answer : AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . "Control your hypertension, stop smoking, maintain a normal weight, and exercise regularly." All of these are important for the geriatric patient to decrease cardiovascular risk. Controlling hyperglycemia, high fiber intake, and vitamins all assist in maintaining a healthy lifestyle but do not help to prevent cardiovascular disease. You are seeing a female with inflammatory bowel disease, known as IBD. The Adult Nurse Practitioner knows that if she orders a hemogram on this patient, which of the following results would be seen if the patient was anemic? microcytic, hypochromic type macrocytic, normochromic type normocytic, normochromic type macrocytic, hypochromic typeCorrect Correct Answer : normocytic, normochromic type Anemia is a common problem in IBD. The etiology is often from multiple causes. The anemia of chronic disease, a normocytic, normochromic anemia, is a result of inflammation of the IBD without blood loss. Blood loss would result in a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. The macrocytic anemias are a result of deficiency in vitamin B12 or other causes. Which of the following is the least likely risk factor for suicide? AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Decreased absorption of calcium is a common change that comes with aging, not increased absorption. Other gastrointestinal changes include: less efficient cholesterol stabilization and absorption, atrophy of taste buds, and slowing in esophageal emptying, among others. A 28-year-old female patient is in the office and is to undergo radioactive iodine treatment for Graves disease. The ANP is counseling her and understands that the mechanism of action of this treatment therapy is: alter the thyroid metabolic rate relieve distress caused by increased thyroid size destroy the overactive thyroid tissue reduce production of TSHCorrect Correct Answer : destroy the overactive thyroid tissue Graves disease is the most common form of thyrotoxicosis. Radioactive iodine is used for thyroid ablation to destroy the overactive thyroid tissue that causes the thyroid hormone dysfunction. Which of the following statements about falls in the elderly is least accurate? Black women are at higher risk for hip fractures than white women. The majority of deaths from falls are among people aged 65 years or older. Injuries from falls include head injuries, pelvic injuries, lacerations, and more. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . About 90% of hip fractures are due to falls.Correct Correct Answer : Black women are at higher risk for hip fractures than white women. It is white women, not black women, who are at higher risk for hip fractures. Falls are one of the most common adverse events that threaten the quality of life of older adults. Falls among older adults are not a normal consequence of aging. Normal age-related changes of the skin may be confused with which of the following clinical abnormalities? dehydration vitiligo scabies shinglesCorrect Correct Answer : dehydration Normal age-related changes of the skin may be confused with dehydration. Sebaceous gland activity tends to decrease with age, and the skin's natural hydrators decline over the years. The skin's ability to regenerate lipids compromising the protective lipid barrier layer of the Stratum Corneum also declines with age, as does blood flow to the skin, which may cause a drop in sebum production. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . A 29-year old woman who is 6 weeks postpartum reports she is having rectal bleeding that she believes is related to hemorrhoids. The Adult Nurse Practitioner knows that this type of rectal bleeding is usually described as: dark brown to black blood color with normal-appearing stool significant amounts of bright red blood large blood clots and mucus mixed with stool streaks of bright red blood on the stoolThe Correct Correct Answer is: streaks of bright red blood on the stool Choice D is the right Correct Answer . The color of blood related to hemorrhoids is described as bright red, eliminating choice A. Amount of blood with hemorrhoids is usually small or scant, eliminating choices B and C. Internal hemorrhoids can occur during or after childbirth. With chronically protruding or prolapsing hemorrhoids, the patient often reports mucous leaking and staining of the undergarments. Other causes are obesity, constipation, and prolonged sitting. You have a patient with AIDS. You recognize that a low CD4 T-cell count puts the patient at risk for opportunistic infections. You are reviewing his lab reports and see that his CD4 T-cell count is indeed low. Which of the following is the normal range for CD4 T-cell count? 800 -1400 700 -1400 AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . A 68-year-old woman has been admitted to the hospital suffering from peripheral vascular disease (PVD). You check her medical records for predisposing factors. You recognize that all of the following are predisposing factors EXCEPT: arteriosclerosis advanced age a history of renal problems valvular incompetenceCorrect Correct Answer : a history of renal problems A predisposing factor for PVD is a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). All of the other choices are valid predisposing factors. Which of the following is NOT an indication of impaired skin integrity? A mole with irregular borders. Bruises in various stages of healing. Cuts in various stages of healing. A navel piercing more than a year old.Correct Correct Answer : A navel piercing more than a year old. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Unless the piercing is marked by scabbing or other evidence of trauma, it is not evidence of impaired skin integrity. Tattoos and other body modifications should be noted in the patient's assessment, but they are not in themselves cause for concern. You are determining the peak expiratory flow (PEF) for a 67-year-old female patient who suffers from asthma. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining peak expiratory flow (PEF) for this patient? age height weight genderCorrect Correct Answer : weight Weight is not a factor in determining PEF. The PEF is based on height (H), age, (A), and gender (G) - HAG. Upon examination of a patient with a heart murmur, you hear a grade 1-3/6 late systolic crescendo murmur with a honking quality. This is most likely indicative of which of the following? AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . pulmonary hypertension mitral regurgitation mitral valve prolapse aortic sclerosisCorrect Correct Answer : mitral valve prolapse In a patient with mitral valve prolapse, you would hear a grade 1-3/6 late systolic crescendo murmur with a honking quality. This is best heard at the apex of the heart. The murmur follows a mid-systolic click. All but which of the following conditions in the patient's past medical history is likely to be associated with congestive heart failure (CHF)? diabetes COPD cancer CADCorrect Correct Answer : cancer AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Alkaline Phosphatase Serum GGT Serum ALT Serum ASTCorrect Correct Answer : Serum AST Serum AST is normal at 5 to 50 u/L. It is present in the liver, heart muscle, skeletal muscle, kidney and lung. It is not specific for liver injury because it is also elevated in other conditions such as acute MI. Which of the following would not be considered a body change related to menopause? palpable ovaries labia and vagina become atrophic and thinner urinary incontinence atrophied ovariesCorrect Correct Answer : palpable ovaries AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Palpable ovaries are considered an abnormal finding in menopausal women. After several years of menopause, the ovaries are atrophied and a smaller size. Ovarian cancer must be ruled out when a palpable ovary is found. Regarding the scientific method for conducting research which uses the null hypothesis, the ANP knows this is statistically based and the correct format for the null hypothesis is: Group "A" is less than group "B". Group "A" is greater than group "B". There is a 95% probability that group "A" is different from group "B". There is no significant difference between the two groups.Correct Correct Answer : "There is no significant difference between the two groups." The research hypothesis may take the other forms. What is the two-hour (2-hour) blood glucose value indicating diabetes mellitus? ≥126 mg/dL. ≥150 mg/dL. ≥176 mg/dL. ≥200 mg/dL.Correct Correct Answer : ≥200 mg/dL AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Two-hour blood glucose is a diagnostic measurement for diabetes. A value of ≥200 mg/dL indicates diabetes mellitus. Mrs. Layden is a 56-year-old female patient who is complaining of facial pain that she says begins on the side of her mouth and then shoots up toward her ear. You suspect which of the following? cluster headaches facial migraine herpes zoster trigeminal neuralgiaCorrect Correct Answer : trigeminal neuralgia Trigeminal neuralgia is a recurrent unilateral facial pain syndrome. It most often affects the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve. Patients complain of pain on one side of the face and may have a small degree of numbness. What is the recommended level for LDL for healthy adults? <100 mg/dL. <130 mg/dL. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . The clinician has the duty to explain relevant information to the patient so that the patient can make an appropriate decision regarding the care to be provided. This consent will absolve the ANP from allegations of malpractice should it occur.Correct Correct Answer : This consent will absolve the ANP from allegations of malpractice should it occur. The information of informed consent includes diagnosis, nature and purpose of proposed treatment or procedure, risks and benefits, prognosis, alternative methods of treatment or care with their risks and benefits, and the remote possibility of serious harm or complications. Informed consent does NOT absolve the ANP from allegations of malpractice, should it occur. Upon your examination of a patient you find bony nodules on the proximal interphalangeal joints. These are known as which of the following? Heberden's nodes degenerative joint nodes Bouchard's nodes meniscus tearsCorrect Correct Answer : Bouchard's nodes Bouchard's nodes are bony nodules on the proximal interphalangeal joints. Heberden's nodes are bony nodules on the distal interphalangeal joints. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Over twenty different scales have been proposed to define and measure the syndrome of frailty. The majority of these tools include a measure of at least one each of the five domains that make up the frailty phenotype. Each of the following is one of these EXCEPT: slowness intellectual decline weakness low physical activityCorrect Correct Answer : intellectual decline Intellectual decline is not one of the five domains that make up the frailty phenotype. Besides the other three choices, the remaining domains are exhaustion and decreased muscle mass. Which of the following is true of milk consumption on the ADA diet? Only nonfat milk should be consumed. Low or nonfat milk should be consumed. Full, low, or nonfat milk can be consumed. Nonfat milk should be avoided.Correct Correct Answer Low or nonfat milk should be consumed Milk is a key part of the ADA diet, though servings should be limited. Low fat and AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . nonfat varieties of milk and yogurt should be consumed by people on the ADA diet. Full fat milk products can raise blood cholesterol levels. Older adults often have visual problems. Which of the following is the term for decreased ability of the eye to accommodate to close work? glaucoma presbyopia myopia arcus senilisCorrect Correct Answer : presbyopia Presbyopia is the decreased ability of the eye to accommodate to close work. Myopia is just the opposite. In myopia distance vision is poor and items can be seen better the closer they are. Upper airway disorders that mimic asthma include which of the following? vocal fold paralysis conversion disorder bronchiectasis eosinophilic pneumoniaCorrect Correct Answer : AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Glaucoma is generally asymptomatic, especially in early stages. Glaucoma may lead to blindness if untreated.Correct Correct Answer : Glaucoma can be cured with the proper treatment. This statement is not true. Glaucoma cannot be cured, but it can be treated with success pharmacologically and surgically. Subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by all but which of the following? profound symptoms increased serum TSH concentrations normal free T4 normal free T3 levelsCorrect Correct Answer : profound symptoms Subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by increased serum TSH concentrations with normal free T4 and free T3 levels. It occurs in 10% to 15% of the general population. The presentation is nonspecific, and symptoms are usually subtle (not profound). In terms of diagnosing pneumonia, acute bacterial pneumonia should be differentiated from acute bacterial bronchitis. On auscultation, a patient with acute bacterial bronchitis will have AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . crackles clear lung sounds except for scattered rhonchi abnormal breath sounds dullness to percussionCorrect Correct Answer : clear lung sounds except for scattered rhonchi On auscultation, a patient with acute bacterial bronchitis will have clear lung sounds except for scattered rhonchi. In comparison, the patient with bacterial pneumonia will likely have crackles, dullness to percussion, and abnormal breath sounds. A 48-year-old male patient complains of a sudden onset of severe "ice pick" pains behind one eye. He tells you that the headache is accompanied by tearing, a clear runny nasal discharge, and a drooping eyelid. What type of headache would you diagnose? muscle tension headache cluster headache migraine headache temporal arteritisCorrect Correct Answer : cluster headache AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Cluster headaches are severe headaches with lancinating pain behind one eye that occurs several times a day, usually at the same times every day. Their cause is unknown and they are more common in adult males in their 30s and 40s. When communicating with a Native American patient, the GNP knows that: Silence indicates respect for the speaker. Members speak in a loud tone of voice. Eye contact is viewed as a sign of respect. Body language is not important.Correct Correct Answer :Silence indicates respect for the speaker. With the Native American patient, silence does indicate respect. Members speak in a low tone of voice and expect others to be attentive. Eye contact is often viewed as disrespectful and body language is important. One of the most sensitive tools for diagnosis of pulmonary emboli that is done through a catheter advanced into the pulmonary artery is which of the following? MRI CT scan AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Nutrition. NGASR. Sleep. Psychosocial.Correct Correct Answer : Nutrition. Poor body image may be related to a nutrition imbalance. There may also be other factors that affect the imbalance. A nutrition assessment will help determine the patient's attitude towards food. Gastric parietal cells secrete which of the following? mucous hydrochloric acid blood cells lymphatic fluidCorrect Correct Answer : hydrochloric acid AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Gastric parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid. This is mediated by histamine2-receptor sites. A cancer in which there is extensive local and regional spread is in which stage? Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IVCorrect Correct Answer : Stage III Staging classifies the clinical aspects of the cancer and the degree of metastasis at diagnosis. A cancer with extensive local and regional spread is a Stage III cancer. Which of the following do you NOT use to determine priorities? Health concerns and strengths. Self-actualization. Maslow's hierarchy. Moral and ethical issues.Correct Correct Answer : Self-actualization. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Maslow's hierarchy of needs includes self actualization. Nurses use the other Correct Answer choices to prioritize diagnosis and action. Which potential diagnosis would you give a patient who wrings his or her hands during the interview? Ineffective coping. Anxiety. Disturbed personal identity. Infection risk.Correct Correct Answer : Anxiety The patient wringing his or her hands is an objective system. This signals anxiety even if the patient does not mention feeling anxious. The diagnosis should be considered with other symptoms. Insensible fluid loss from fever in older adults is often associated with all but which of the following? dry oral mucosa dry furrowed tongue AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . malignant mesothelioma Malignant mesothelioma is not one of the four histologic categories for neoplastic lung disease. Besides the other three choices, large cell carcinoma is also one of the four categories. A 65-year-old Caucasian female is in the office with rosacea. She is asking about treatment options. What is the recommended treatment for her? topical 5-fluorouracil low-dose tetracycline oral ketoconazole oral hydrocortisoneCorrect Correct Answer : low-dose tetracycline Treatment with systemic low-dose tetracycline is a very effective measure for rosacea; topical treatment with metronidazole or a low-dose steroid cream may also be helpful. Topical 5- fluorouracil is used to treat actinic keratosis. Mr. McBurney is an elderly patient who has severe COPD. Which of the following medications are you likely to prescribe for him at this stage of the disease? AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . extended-release theophylline Ventolin Atrovent triamcinoloneCorrect Correct Answer : extended-release theophylline Extended-release theophylline is used in severe COPD to improve respiratory muscle performance. For moderate COPD regular treatment with one or more of the other three choices is recommended. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way to incorporate complementary therapies into a patient's plan of care? Asking a Reiki practitioner you work with to come in and do a treatment on the patient while he or she is sleeping. Allowing a Christian patient's prayer group to come and pray with her, at the patient's request. Helping a patient who wishes to incorporate acupuncture into her treatment to locate a practitioner in the area. Discussing the possible side effects of herbal medications with a patient who expresses a wish to use them.Correct Correct Answer : Asking a Reiki practitioner you work with to come in and do a treatment on the patient while he or she is sleeping Complementary therapies can be AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . helpful to patients and should be incorporated where possible if the patient wishes it. It is wise to discuss the side effects of any herbal medications with a patient, but unless there is a medical reason such as a drug interaction, there is no need to forbid them. Never engage in any spiritual therapies such as prayer or energy healing practices unless the patient requests it. You have diagnosed a 74-year-old patient with angle-closure glaucoma. Which of these MOST likely caused the condition? Sudden increase in intraocular pressure. Hardening of the lens. Lens clouding. Gradual onset of increased intraocular pressure.Correct Correct Answer : Sudden increase in intraocular pressure Presbyopia is caused by the hardening of the lens. Senile cataracts is caused by lens clouding. Open-angle glaucoma is caused by the gradual onset of increased intraocular pressure. Angle-closure glaucoma is caused by the sudden increase in intraocular pressure. You are treating a patient with gouty arthritis who has an inflamed left great toe that is painful. You inquire about his diet to counsel him. Which food contributes most to a high purine diet? beef bread eggs AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Hemorrhoids. Colorectal cancer. Unusual polyps in the colon. Increased constipation.Correct Correct Answer : Colorectal cancer. Colorectal screenings and tests are great tools for prevention of various diseases of the colon. Patients diagnosed with ulcerative colitis or Crohn's Disease are encouraged to receive these tests along with regular treatment, since the patient's sensitive system can be more susceptible to other colon diseases, including cancer. You are treating your elderly patient with Ativan. Which of the following correctly identifies the starting dose and target dose of this medication? 0.25 mg q.d. - b.i.d. / 0.5 to 3 mg / day. 0.25 mg q.h.s. / 0.5 mg q.d. - t.i.d. 0.25 mg q.d. - b.i.d. / 1 - 2 mg / day. 5 mg q.d. / 15 - 30 mg divided t.i.d.Correct Correct Answer : 0.25 mg q.h.s. / 0.5 mg q.d. - t.i.d. The other options are starting / target dosages for other medications used to treat anxiety disorders. For example, BuSpar = 5 mg q.d. / 15 - 30 mg divided t.i.d. Xanax = 0.25 mg q.d. - b.i.d. / 0.5 to 3 mg / day. Klonopin = 0.25 mg q.d. - b.i.d. / 1 - 2 mg / day. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . The BMI of Ms. Green, a 68-year-old patient is being measured. Her BMI is 27, which means she is considered ______. Underweight. Normal. Overweight. Obese.Correct Correct Answer : Overweight. Body Mass Index follows the following parameters: Under 18.5 = Underweight; 18.5 - 24.9 = Normal; 25 - 29.9 = Overweight; 30 and above = Obese. Your 76-year-old patient presents with heartburn and regurgitation. After testing, you determine he is positive for GERD. Which of the following would LEAST likely be a differential diagnosis for GERD? Athlete's foot. Peptic ulcer disease. Cholelithiasis. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Angina pectoris.Correct Correct Answer : Athlete's foot GERD is a gastrointestinal disorder. Other differential diagnoses of the condition are infectious esophagitis and esophageal motility disorders. This is an ARB used to treat heart failure in elderly patients. Chlorthalidone. Ramipril. Candasartan. Bisoprolol.Correct Correct Answer : Candasartan Chlorthalidone treats heart failure, but is a thiazide diuretic. Ramipril is an ACE used to treat heart failure. Candasartan is an ARB that helps treat heart failure, and Bisoprolol, a beta blocker. All but which of the following increase a geriatric patient's risk of abuse or mistreatment? Taking multiple medications. Impaired mobility. Risk for fall. Being male.Correct Correct Answer : Being male Geriatric patients may be at risk for elder abuse or mistreatment. Several factors increase the risk, especially those that contribute to overall frailty. Taking multiple medications, having decreased strength or factors that increase fall risk, cognitive impairment, and dependency on others all increase a patient's risk. Female patients are at greater risk than male patients. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Difficulties with short-term memory are more consistent with dementia in older adults. Depression may be marked by difficulty concentrating or brief lapses in memory. Intense feelings of guilt and hopelessness are also common.Which of the following is NOT a sign of depression in an older adult? Unexplained aches or pains. A sense of hopelessness. Difficulty with short-term memory. Intense feelings of guilt.Correct Correct Answer : Difficulty with short-term memory. Difficulties with short-term memory are more consistent with dementia in older adults. Depression may be marked by difficulty concentrating or brief lapses in memory. Intense feelings of guilt and hopelessness are also common. An elderly patient is diagnosed with hyperlipidemia. The NP is prescribing a medication that may have the following effects on her LDL, HDL and Triglyceride levels: LDL-5 to 15% decrease, HDL - 14 to 20% increase and Triglyceride - 20 to 50% decrease. Which of the following drugs is the NP MOST likely prescribing? Atorvastatin AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Gemfibrozil. Nicotinic acid. Colestipol.Correct Correct Answer : Gemfibrozil The expected outcomes of the preceding medications are as follows: Atorvastatin: LDL: 20-60% decrease HDL: 5-15% increase Triglyceride: 10-40% decrease Gemfibrozil: LDL: 5-15% decrease HDL: 14-20% increase Triglyceride: 20-50% decrease Nicotinic acid: LDL: 10-25% decrease HDL: 15-35% increase Triglyceride: 20-50% decrease Colestipol: LDL: 10-20% decrease HDL: 3-5% decrease Triglyceride: May increase Which of the following is the appropriate approach to treating continuous pain in an older adult inpatient? Around-the-clock analgesics. Delayed release, long-acting analgesics. Rapid-onset, short-acting analgesics. A combination of long-acting and short-acting analgesics.Correct Correct Answer : Around-the-clock analgesics. Patients with continuous pain benefit from around the clock analgesics, administered intravenously. This helps maintain a steady state of analgesic in the bloodstream. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . When examining a elderly patient suspected of hypothyroidism, the GNP assesses the patient's vital signs and examines the patient's eyes, skin, cardiovascular system and throat. With normal aging, the thyroid: Becomes much larger. Becomes much smaller. Lies higher in the neck. Becomes more fibrotic.Correct Correct Answer : Becomes more fibrotic With aging, the thyroid becomes more fibrotic and lies lower in the neck. The thyroid usually doesn't change in size with elderly patients and goiter may substernal and more difficult to palpate with elderly patients. When evaluating a 61-year-old patient, you determine that he is experiencing a type of incontinence in which he is not able to physically go to the bathroom when he needs to. What type of incontinence is this? Overflow. Urge. Stress. Functional.Correct Correct Answer : Functional There are several types of incontinence. Overflow incontinence: Urine leaks as a result of forces against the bladder. Urge incontinence: Patient cannot keep himself from urinating when his bladder is full. Stress incontinence: Patient AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . The mechanism of action of corticosteroid nasal spray in allergic rhinitis therapy is prevention of production of inflammatory substances; therefore, corticosteroid and mast cell stabilizers are effective at preventing symptoms of allergic rhinitis, not giving instant relief. Symptoms improvement will be seen after a few days to one week. Which of the following is an ideal candidate for joint replacement surgery? An 88-year old man in excellent healthy with 75% of the articular cartilage of his knee worn away. A 68-year old woman in good health with 90% of the articular cartilage of her knee worn away. A 67-year old woman with severe COPD, CHF, and 70% of the cartilage of her knee worn away. A 74-year old man with hypertension, profound kyphosis, dementia,and 65% of the articular cartilage of his knee worn away. .The Correct Correct Answer is:A 68-year old woman in good health with 90% of the articular cartilage of her knee worn away. Choice B is the right Correct Answer . For joint replacement, there must be 80% or more of the articular cartilage worn away. The ideal candidate is able to tolerate a surgical procedure that last for several hours, followed by an aggressive postoperative course of rehabilitation AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Which of the following drugs is a cholinesterase inhibitor that comes in the form of a pill, syrup or drug-releasing skin patch? Galantamine. Hydrocodone. Rivastigmine. Donepezil.Correct Correct Answer : Rivastigmine There are three cholinesterase inhibitors commonly prescribed by doctors. These are Donepezil, Galantamine and Rivastigmine. Hydrocodone is a type of medication that treats moderate to severe pain as well as cough. Your 89-year-old patient presents with dyspepsia and nausea. After testing, you determine she is positive for Peptic Ulcer Disease. Of the following, which would LEAST likely be a differential diagnosis for Peptic Ulcer Disease? Cholecystitis. Migraines. Gastric carcinoma. Cardiovascular disease.Correct Correct Answer : Migraines. Peptic Ulcer Disease is a gastrointestinal disorder. Other differential diagnoses of the condition are pancreatitis and biliary tract disease. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Which of the following best tests for irritable bowel syndrome? colonoscopy rectal exam urinalysis stool examinationCorrect Correct Answer : stool examination Stool is examined to test for irritable bowel syndrome- negative for blood, ova, parasite, pathogenic bacteria, and Giardia-specific antigen. CBC, thyroid screen, chemical analysis- normal. Barium enema- decreased motility; otherwise normal. Proctosigmoidoscopy- normal. A 67 year female patient has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Her arterial blood gases were measured. Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) declines with normal aging. What PaO2 level indicates chronic hypoxemia? <55 mm Hg. <65 mm Hg. < 75 mm Hg. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . You have a 62-year-old male patient who has just recovered from an acute attack of gout. You want to prescribe a maintenance medication for this patient. Which of the following gout medications would you prescribe? Indometacin Colchicine Naproxen AllopurinolCorrect Correct Answer : Allopurinol Allopurinol is a maintenance medication for gout sufferers. Maintenance drugs are prescribed to be used at least 4 to 6 weeks after the acute phase is over. They may be used daily for years to lifetime. Older adults often get B12 anemia. What is true concerning vitamin B12 therapy? Anemia can resolve within 2 weeks of treatment. Vitamin B12 is available only in parenteral and oral form. Reversal of neurological abnormalities takes longer than 2 months once therapy is started. Oral B12 is just as beneficial as parenteral B12.Correct Correct Answer : AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Reversal of neurological abnormalities takes longer than 2 months once therapy is started. Anemia does not resolve until around 2 months of treatment and reversal of neurological abnormalities is generally slower than this. B12 is available in parenteral, oral and nasal gel forms. Oral B12 is not as beneficial as parenteral B12. You are assessing a 67-year old woman with complaints of right knee pain when she goes up the stairs or walks long distances. You are examining the knee and note crepitus. What does the Geriatric Nurse Practitioner believe to be the likely cause? femoral tendinitis patellar tendinitis arthritis of the knee patellar bursitisThe Correct Correct Answer is: arthritis of the knee Choice C is the right Correct Answer . Typical symptoms of arthritis include the ones mentioned in the scenario and also pain with standing up after sitting. She will report stiffness after sitting for long periods and after awakening in the morning. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . Mrs. Hanson is an 80-year-old woman for whom you must prescribe a pain-killing drug. When prescribing drugs for the elderly, such as Mrs. Hanson which of the following would NOT be in your plan? Begin with more than the usual adult dose since absorption may take longer. Make changes infrequently. Allow an adequate trial period before discontinuing the drug. Keep the number of pills needed to achieve the dose low.Correct Correct Answer : Begin with more than the usual adult dose since absorption may take longer. This is not something that you would do for an elderly patient. You would begin with less than the usual adult dose. Then you might increase the dose but slowly. During assessment of the heart failure patient, the GNP observes the patient's lungs. The GNP auscultates for: Crackles. Bruits. Murmurs. Gallops.Correct Correct Answer : Crackles The GNP should observe the heart failure patient's lungs. The GNP should auscultate for crackles and wheezes. Crackles may also be present with other comorbid conditions. AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . You would not tell this patient to resume normal activities within 12 hours since activity is initially limited and will slowly progress. He should elevate the extremity for 24-48 hours, report severe pain immediately and treat pain with a mild analgesic. In terms of evaluating heart murmurs, the characteristics of regurgitant murmurs can best be described as which of the following? usually rough usually more pure and uniform sound heard from S1 through S2 turbulentCorrect Correct Answer : usually more pure and uniform sound Regurgitant murmurs are usually a more pure, uniform sound (e.g., mitral regurgitation). Ejection murmurs are usually rough; and pansystolic murmurs are heard from S1 through S2. Which of the following supplements would you recommend for a woman who is trying to get pregnant that has the ability to reduce birth defects by about 50%? vitamin C vitamin K magnesium AANP Test 2 for Boards Questions with Guaranteed Success well Certified Rated A+ . folic acidCorrect Correct Answer : folic acid Folic acid taken as a supplement has been recognized as reducing the occurrence of neural tube defects. All women of childbearing years, whether pregnant or not, should take 0.4 mg daily of folic acid either alone or as part of a multivitamin supplement. The dose is increased with pregnancy. In which of the following cases would you refer a patient to a specialist for low back pain? A patient with: acute neck pain bladder dysfunction reduced range of movement stiffnessCorrect Correct Answer : bladder dysfunction If the patient has a bladder dysfunction, or a limb or bowel dysfunction, prompt referral to a specialist is needed. Surgery is usually considered only if severe symptoms persist beyond 3 months.