AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

Download AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 2024-2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 1 PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right scaphoid fracture. TYPE OF PROCEDURE: Open reduction and internal fixation of right scaphoid fracture. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was brought to the operating room; anesthesia having been administered. The right upper extremity was prepped and draped in a sterile manner. The limb was elevated, exsanguinated, and a pneumatic arm tourniquet was elevated. An incision was made over the dorsal radial aspect of the right wrist. Skin flaps were elevated. Cutaneous nerve branches were identified and very gently retracted. The interval between the second and third dorsal compartment tendons was identified and entered. The respective tendons were retracted. A dorsal capsulotomy incision was made, and the fracture was visualized. There did not appear to be any type of significant defect at the fracture site. A 0.045 Kirschner wire was then used as a guidewire, extending from the proximal pole of the scaphoid distal ward. The guidewire was positioned appropriately and then measured. A 25-mm Acutrak® drill bit was drilled to 25 mm. A 22.5-mm screw was selected and inserted and rigid internal fixation was accomplished in this fashion. This was visualized under the OEC imaging device in multiple projections. The wound was irrigated and closed in layers. Sterile dressings were then applied. The patient tolerated the procedure well and left the operating room in stable condition. What CPT® code is reported for this procedure? A. 25628-RT B. 25624-RT C. 25645-RT D. 25651-RT Correct Answer: A. 25628-RT AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 2 An infant with genu valgum is brought to the operating room to have a bilateral medial distal femur hemiepiphysiodesis done. On each knee, the C-arm was used to localize the growth plate. With the growth plate localized, an incision was made medially on both sides. This was taken down to the fascia, which was opened. The periosteum was not opened. The Orthofix® figure- of-eight plate was placed and checked with X-ray. We then irrigated and closed the medial fascia with 0 Vicryl suture. The skin was closed with 2-0 Vicryl and 3-0 Monocryl®. What procedure code is reported? A. 27470-50 B. 27475-50 C. 27477-50 D. 27485-50 Correct Answer: D. 27485-50 The patient is a 67-year-old gentleman with metastatic colon cancer recently operated on for a brain metastasis, now for placement of an Infuse-A-Port for continued chemotherapy. The left subclavian vein was located with a needle and a guide wire placed. This was confirmed to be in the proper position fluoroscopically. A transverse incision was made just inferior to this and a subcutaneous pocket created just inferior to this. After tunneling, the introducer was placed over the guide wire and the power port line was placed with the introducer and the introducer was peeled away. The tip was placed in the appropriate position under fluoroscopic guidance and the AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 5 identifying a small cystic duct and artery, was clipped twice proximally, once distally and transected. The gallbladder was AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 6 then taken down from the bed using electrocautery, delivering it into an endo-bag and removing it from the abdominal cavity with the umbilical port. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. 47564, K81.2 B. 47562, K81.1 C. 47610, K81.2 D. 47600, K81.1 Correct Answer: B. 47562, K81.1 A 70-year-old female who has a history of symptomatic ventral hernia was advised to undergo laparoscopic evaluation and repair. An incision was made in the epigastrium and dissection was carried down through the subcutaneous tissue. Two 5-mm trocars were placed, one in the left upper quadrant and one in the left lower quadrant and the laparoscope was inserted. Dissection was carried down to the area of the hernia where a small defect was clearly visualized. There was some omentum, which was adhered to the hernia and this was delivered back into the peritoneal cavity. The mesh was tacked on to cover the defect. What procedure code(s) is (are) reported? A. 49560, 49568 B. 49652 C. 49653 D. 49652, 49568 Correct Answer: B. 49652 The patient is a 50-year-old gentleman who presented to the emergency room with signs and symptoms of acute appendicitis with possible rupture. He has been brought to the operating room. An infraumbilical incision was made which a 5-mm AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 7 VersaStep™ trocar was inserted. A 5- mm 0- degree laparoscope was introduced. A second 5-mm trocar was placed suprapubically and a 12-mm trocar in the left lower quadrant. A window was made in the mesoappendix using blunt dissection with no rupture noted. The base of the appendix was then divided and placed into an Endo-catch bag and the 12-mm defect was brought out. Select the appropriate code for this procedure: A. 44970 B. 44950 C. 44960 D. 44979 Correct Answer: A. 44970 A 45-year-old male is going to donate his kidney to his son. Operating ports where placed in standard position and the scope was inserted. Dissection of the renal artery and vein was performed isolating the kidney. The kidney was suspended only by the renal artery and vein as well as the ureter. A stapler was used to divide the vein just above the aorta and three clips across the ureter, extracting the kidney. This was placed on ice and sent to the recipient room. The correct CPT® code is: A. 50543 B. 50547 C. 50300 D. 50320 Correct Answer: B. 50547 A 67-year-old female having urinary incontinence with intrinsic sphincter deficiency is having a cystoscopy performed with a placement of a sling. An incision was made over the mid urethra AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 10 demonstrated a ventriculomegaly. It was AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 11 recommended that the patient proceed forward with right frontal ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement with Codman® programmable valve. What is the correct code for this surgery? A. 62220 B. 62223 C. 62190 D. 62192 Correct Answer: B. 62223 What is the CPT® code for the decompression of the median nerve found in the space in the wrist on the palmar side? A. 64704 B. 64713 C. 64721 D. 64719 Correct Answer: C. 64721 A 2-year-old male has a chalazion on both upper and lower lid of the right eye. He was placed under general anesthesia. With a #11 blade the chalazion was incised and a small curette was then used to retrieve any granulomatous material on both lids. What CPT® code should be used for this procedure? A. 67801 B. 67805 C. 67800 D. 67808 Correct Answer: D. 67808 An 80-year-old patient is returning to the gynecologist's office for pessary cleaning. Patient offers no complaints. The nurse removes and cleans the pessary, AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 12 vagina is swabbed with betadine, and pessary replaced. For F/U in 4 months. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this service? A. 99201, Z46.89 B. 99211, Z46.89 C. 99202, Z46.9 D. 99212, Z46.9 Correct Answer: B. 99211, Z46.89 Patient was in the ER complaining of constipation with nausea and vomiting when taking Zovirax for his herpes zoster and Percocet for pain. His primary care physician came to the ER and admitted him to the hospital for intravenous therapy and management of this problem. His physician documented a detailed history, comprehensive examination and a medical decision making of moderate complexity. Which E/M service is reported? A. 99285 B. 99284 C. 99221 D. 99222 Correct Answer: C. 99221 A 20-day-old infant was seen in the ER by the neonatologist admitting the baby to NICU for cyanosis and rapid breathing. The neonatologist performed intubation, ventilation management and a complete echocardiogram in the NICU and provided a report for the echocardiography which did indicate congenital heart disease. Select the correct codes for the physician service. AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 15 A 63-year-old patient with bilateral ureteral obstruction presents to an outpatient facility for placement of a right and left ureteral stent along with an interpretation of a retrograde pyelogram. What codes should be reported? A. 52332, 74425 B. 52332-50, 74420-26 C. 52005, 74420 D. 52005-50, 74425-26 Correct Answer: B. 52332-50, 74420-26 Patient is coming in for a pathological examination for ischemia in the left leg. The first specimen is 1.5 cm of a single portion of arterial plaque taken from the left common femoral artery. The second specimen is 8.5 x 2.7 cm across x 1.5 cm in thickness of a cutaneous ulceration with fibropurulent material on the left leg. What surgical pathology codes should be reported for the pathologist? A. 88304-26, 88302-26 B. 88305-26, 88304-26 C. 88307-26, 88305-26 D. 88309-26, 88307-26 Correct Answer: B. 88305-26, 88304-26 During a craniectomy the surgeon asked for a consult and sent a frozen section of a large piece of tumor and sent it to pathology. The pathologist received a rubbery pinkish tan tissue measuring in aggregate 3 x 0.8 x 0.8 cm. The entire specimen is submitted in one block and also a gross and microscopic examination was performed on the tissue. The frozen section and the pathology report are sent back to the surgeon indicating that the tumor was a medulloblastoma. What CPT® code(s) will the pathologist report? AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 16 A. 80500 B. 88331-26, 88307-26 C. 80502 D. 88331-26, 88332-26, 88304-26 Correct Answer: B. 88331-26, 88307-26 Physician orders a basic (80047) and comprehensive metabolic (80053) panels. Select the code(s) on how this is reported. A. 80053, 80047 B. 80053 C. 80047, 82040, 82247, 82310, 84075, 84155, 84460, 84450 D. 80053, 82330 Correct Answer: D. 80053, 82330 A 4-year-old is getting over his cold and will be getting three immunizations in the pediatrician's office by the nurse. The first vaccination administered is the Polio vaccine intramuscularly. The next vaccination is the live influenza (LAIV3) administered in the nose. The last vaccination is the Varicella (live) by subcutaneous route. What CPT® codes are reported for the administration and vaccines? A. 90713, 90658, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 2 B. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 1 C. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90474 D. 90713, 90658, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90473 Correct Answer: C. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90474 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 17 A patient with chronic renal failure is in the hospital being evaluated by his nephrologist after just placing a catheter into the peritoneal cavity for dialysis. The physician is evaluating the dwell time and running fluid out of the cavity to make sure the volume of dialysate and the concentration of electrolytes and glucose are correctly prescribed for this patient. What code should be reported for this service? A. 90935 B. 90937 C. 90947 D. 90945 Correct Answer: D. 90945 An established patient had a comprehensive exam in which she has been diagnosed with dry eye syndrome in both eyes. The ophthalmologist measures the cornea for placement of the soft contact lens for treatment of this syndrome. What codes are reported by the ophthalmologist? A. 92014-25, 92071-50 B. 99214-25, 92072-50 C. 92014-25, 92325-50 D. 92014-25, 92310-50 Correct Answer: A. 92014-25, 92071-50 A patient who is a singer has been hoarse for a few months following an upper respiratory infection. She is in a voice laboratory to have a laryngeal function study performed by an otolaryngologist. She starts off with the acoustic testing first. Before she moves on to the aerodynamic testing she complains of throat AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 20 and Pap smears that were all negative for two years, per the recommendation of a GYN oncologist. Her Pap smear results from the last visit noted atypical glandular cells. In light of this, she underwent a colposcopy and the biopsy of the normal- appearing cervix on colposcopy was benign. The endocervical curettage was benign endocervical glands, and the endometrial sampling was benign endometrium. In light of the fact that she had had previous atypical glandular cells that led to diagnosis of adenocarcinoma and the concerns that this may have recurred, she had been recommended for a cone biopsy and fractional dilatation and curettage, which she is undergoing today. What ICD- 10-CM code(s) should be reported? A. R87.619, C53.9 B. C55 C. R87.619, Z85.41 D. Z12.4, Z85.41 Correct Answer: C. R87.619, Z85.41 Patient comes into see her primary care physician for a productive cough and shortness of breath. The physician takes a chest X-ray which indicates the patient has double pneumonia. Select the ICD-10-CM code(s) for this visit. A. J18.9, R05, R06.2 B. R05, R06.2, J18.9 C. J18.9 D. J15.9 Correct Answer: C. J18.9 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 21 What is the correct way to code a patient having bradycardia due to Demerol that was correctly prescribed and properly administered? A. T40.2X1A, R00.1 B. T40.2X3A, R00.1 C. R00.1, T40.2X5A D. R00.1, T40.2X2A Correct Answer: C. R00.1, T40.2X5A Which statement is TRUE when reporting pregnancy codes (O00-O9A): A. These codes can be used on the maternal and baby records. B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters. C. Code Z33.1 should always be reported with these codes. D. The seventh character assigned to these codes only indicate a complication during the pregnancy. Correct Answer: B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters. A 66-year-old Medicare patient, who has a history of ulcerative colitis, presents for a colorectal cancer screening. The screening is performed via barium enema. What HCPCS Level II code is reported for this procedure? A. G0104 B. G0105 C. G0120 D. G0121 Correct Answer: C. G0120 What is PHI? A. Physician-health care interchange AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 22 B. Private health insurance C. Protected health information D. Provider identified incident-to Correct Answer: C. Protected health information What is NOT included in CPT® surgical package? A. Typical postoperative follow-up care B. One related Evaluation and Management service on the same date of the procedure C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the initial procedure D. Evaluating the patient in the post-anesthesia recovery area Correct Answer: C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the initial procedure Which statement is TRUE about reporting codes for diabetes mellitus? A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus. B. When a patient uses insulin, Type 1 is always reported. C. The age of the patient is a sole determining factor to report Type 1. D. When assigning codes for diabetes and its associated condition(s), the code(s) from category E08-E13 are not reported as a primary code. Correct Answer: A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus. AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 25 lip lesion of 4 mm in size was shaved to the level of the superficial dermis. Utilizing a 3-mm punch, a biopsy was taken of the left supratip nasal area. What are the CPT® codes for these procedures? A. 40490, 11104-59 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 26 B. 11310, 11104-59 C. 17000, 17003 D. 11440, 11105-59 Correct Answer: B. 11310, 11104-59 A 76-year-old has dermatochalasis on bilateral upper eyelids. A blepharoplasty will be performed on the eyelids. A lower incision line was marked at approximately 5 mm above the lid margin along the crease. Then using a pinch test with forceps the amount of skin to be resected was determined and marked. An elliptical incision was performed on the left eyelid and the skin was excised. In a similar fashion the same procedure was performed on the right eye. The wounds were closed with sutures. The correct CPT® code(s) is/are? A. 15822, 15823-51 B. 15823-50 C. 15822-50 D. 15820-LT, 15820-RT Correct Answer: C. 15822-50 A 42-year-old male has a frozen left shoulder. An arthroscope was inserted in the posterior portal in the glenohumeral joint. The articular cartilage was normal except for some minimal grade III- IV changes, about 5% of the humerus just adjacent to the rotator cuff insertion of the supraspinatus. The biceps was inflamed, not torn at all. The superior labrum was not torn at all, the labrum was completely intact. The rotator cuff was completely intact. An anterior portal was established high in the rotator interval. The rotator interval was very thick and contracted. Adhesions were destroyed with electrocautery and the Bovie. The superior AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 27 glenohumeral ligament, the middle glenohumeral ligament and the tendinous portion of the subscapularis were released. The arthroscope was placed anteriorly, adhesions were destroyed and the shaver was used to debride some of the posterior capsule and the posterior capsule was released in its posterosuperior and then posteroinferior aspect. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported? A. 23450-LT B. 23466-LT C. 29805-LT, 29806-51-LT D. 29825-LT Correct Answer: D. 29825-LT After adequate anesthesia was obtained the patient was turned prone in a kneeling position on the spinal table. A lower midline lumbar incision was made and the soft tissues divided down to the spinous processes. The soft tissues were stripped away from the lamina down to the facets and discectomies and laminectomies were then carried out at L3-4, L4-5 and L5-S1. Interbody fusions were set up for the lower three levels using the Danek allografts and augmented with structural autogenous bone from the iliac crest. The posterior instrumentation of a 5.5 mm diameter titanium rod was then cut to the appropriate length and bent to confirm to the normal lordotic curve. It was then slid immediately onto the bone screws and at each level compression was carried out as each of the two bolts were tightened so that the interbody fusions would be snug and as tight as possible. Select the appropriate CPT® codes for this visit? A. 22612, 22614 x 2, 22842, 20938, 20930 B. 22533, 22534 x 2, 22842 C. 22630, 22632 x 2, 22842, 20938, 20930 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 30 A 79-year-old male with symptomatic bradycardia and syncope is taken to the Operating Suite where an insertion of a DDD pacemaker will be performed. After the anesthesiologist provided moderate sedation, the cardiologist performed a left subclavian venipuncture was carried out. A guide wire was passed through the needle, and the needle was withdrawn. A second subclavian venipuncture was performed, a second guide wire was passed and the second needle was withdrawn. An oblique incision in the deltopectoral area incorporating the wire exit sites. A subcutaneous pocket was created with the cautery on the pectoralis fascia. An introducer dilator was passed over the first wire and the wire and dilator were withdrawn. A ventricular lead was passed through the introducer, and the introducer was broken away in the routine fashion. A second introducer dilator was passed over the second guide wire and the wire and dilator were withdrawn. An atrial lead was passed through the introducer and the introducer was broken away in the routine fashion. Each of the leads were sutured down to the chest wall with two 2-0 silk sutures each, connected the leads to the generator, curled the leads, and the generator was placed in the pocket. We assured hemostasis. We assured good position with the fluoroscopy. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported by the cardiologist? A. 33208 B. 33212 C. 33226 D. 33235, 71090-26 Correct Answer: A. 33208 Patient has lung cancer in his upper right and middle lobes. Patient is in the AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 31 operating suite to have a video-assisted thorascopy surgery (VATS). A 10-mm- zero-degree thoracoscope is inserted in the right pleural cavity through a port site placed in the ninth and seventh intercostal spaces. AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 32 Lung was deflated. The tumor is in the right pleural. Both lobes were removed thorascopically. Port site closed. A chest tube was placed to suction and patient was sent to recovery in stable condition. Which CPT® code is reported for this procedure? A. 32482 B. 32484 C. 32670 D. 32671 Correct Answer: C. 32670 The patient is a 58-year-old white male, one month status post pneumonectomy. He had a post pneumonectomy empyema treated with a tunneled cuffed pleural catheter which has been draining the cavity for one month with clear drainage. He has had no evidence of a block or pleural fistula. Therefore a planned return to surgery results in the removal of the catheter. The correct CPT® code is: A. 32440-78 B. 32035-58 C. 32036-79 D. 32552-58 Correct Answer: D. 32552-58 This 67-year-old man presented with a history of progressive shortness of breath. He has had a diagnosis of a secundum atrioseptal defect for several years, and has had atrial fibrillation intermittently over this period of time. He was in atrial fibrillation when he came to the operating room, and with the patient cannulated AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 35 PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diverticulitis, perforated diverticula POST OPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Diverticulitis, perforated diverticula PROCEDURE: Hartmann procedure, which is a sigmoid resection with Hartmann pouch and colostomy. DESCRIPTION OF THE PROCEDURE: Patient was prepped and draped in the supine position under general anesthesia. Prior to surgery patient was given 4.5 grams of Zosyn and Rocephin IV piggyback. A lower midline incision was made, abdomen was entered. Upon entry into the abdomen, there was an inflammatory mass in the pelvis and there was a large abscessed cavity, but no feces. The abscess cavity was drained and irrigated out. The left colon was immobilized, taken down the lateral perineal attachments. The sigmoid colon was mobilized. There was an inflammatory mass right at the area of the sigmoid colon consistent with a divertiliculitis or perforation with infection. Proximal to this in the distal left colon, the colon was divided using a GIA stapler with 3.5 mm staples. The sigmoid colon was then mobilized using blunt dissection. The proximal rectum just distal to the inflammatory mass was divided using a GIA stapler with 3.5 mm staples. The mesentary of the sigmoid colon was then taken down and tied using two 0 Vicryl ties. Irrigation was again performed and the sigmoid colon was removed with inflammatory mass. The wall of the abscessed cavity that was next to the sigmoid colon where the inflammatory mass was, showed no leakage of stool, no gross perforation, most likely there is a small perforation in one of the diverticula in this region. Irrigation was again performed throughout the abdomen until totally clear. All excess fluid was removed. The distal descending colon was then brought out through a separate incision in the lower left quadrant area and a large 10 mm 10 French JP drain was placed into the AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 36 abscessed cavity. The sigmoid colon or the colostomy site was sutured on the inside using interrupted 3-0 Vicryl to the peritoneum and then two sheets of film were placed AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 37 into the intra- abdominal cavity. The fascia was closed using a running #1 double loop PDS suture and intermittently a #2 nylon retention suture was placed. The colostomy was matured using interrupted 3-0 chromic sutures. I palpated the colostomy; it was completely patent with no obstructions. Dressings were applied. Colostomy bag was applied. Which CPT® code should be used? A. 44140 B. 44143 C. 44160 D. 44208 Correct Answer: B. 44143 A 5-year-old male with a history of prematurity was found to have a chordee due to congenital hypospadias. He presents for surgical management for a plastic repair in straightening the abnormal curvature. Under general anesthesia, bands were placed around the base of the penis and incisions were made degloving the penis circumferentially. The foreskin was divided in Byers flaps and the penile skin was reapproximated at the 12 o'clock position. Two Byers flaps were reapproximated, recreating a mucosal collar which was then criss- crossed and trimmed in the midline in order to accommodate median raphe reconstruction. This was reconstructed with use of a horizontal mattress suture. The shaft skin was then approximated to the mucosal collar with sutures correcting the defect. Which CPT® code should be used? A. 54304 B. 54340 C. 54400 D. 54440 Correct Answer: A. 54304 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 40 was decided to take out both the tubes and ovaries. This had been discussed with the patient prior to surgery. What are the codes for these procedures? A. 58660, 58353-51 B. 58661, 58563-51 C. 58661, 58558-51 D. 58662, 58563-51 Correct Answer: B. 58661, 58563-51 MRI reveals patient has cervical stenosis. It was determined he should undergo bilateral cervical laminectomy at C3 through C6 and fusion. The edges of the laminectomy were then cleaned up with a Kerrison and foraminotomies were done at C4, C5, and,C6. The stenosis is central; a facetectomy is performed by using a burr. Nerve root canals were freed by additional resection of the facet, and compression of the spinal cord was relieved by removal of a tissue overgrowth around the foramen. Which CPT® code(s) is (are) used for this procedure? A. 63045-50, 63048-50 B. 63020-50, 63035-50, 63035-50 C. 63015-50 D. 63045, 63048 x 2 Correct Answer: D. 63045, 63048 x 2 An extracapsular cataract removal is performed on the right eye by manually using an iris expansion device to expand the pupil. A phacomulsicfication unit was used to remove the nucleus and irrigation and aspiration was used to remove the residual cortex allowing the insertion of the intraocular lens. What CPT® code is reported? A. 66985 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 41 B. 66984 C. 66982 D. 66983 Correct Answer: C. 66982 An infant who has chronic otitis media in the right and left ears was placed under general anesthesia and a radial incision was made in the posterior quadrant of the left and right tympanic membranes. A large amount of mucoid effusion was suctioned and then a ventilating tube was placed in both ears. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. 69436-50, H65.33 B. 69436-50, H66.43 C. 69433-50, H65.113 D. 69421-50, H65.33 Correct Answer: A. 69436-50, H65.33 A 50-year-old patient is coming to see her primary care physician for hypertension. The patient also discusses with her physician that the OBGYN office had just told her that her Pap smear came back with an abnormal reading and is worried because her aunt had passed away with cervical cancer. The physician documents she spent 40 minutes face-to-face time with the patient, and 25 minutes of that time is giving counseling on the awareness, other screening procedures and treatment if it turns out to be cervical cancer. What E/M code(s) is (are) reported for this visit? A. 99215 B. 99213, 99358 C. 99214, 99354 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 42 D. 99213 Correct Answer: A. 99215 A patient was admitted yesterday to the hospital for possible gallstones. The following day the physician who admitted the patient performed a detailed history, a detailed exam and a medical decision making of low complexity. The physician tells her the test results have come back positive for gallstones and is recommending having a cholecystectomy. What code is reported for this evaluation and management service for the following day? A. 99253 B. 99221 C. 99233 D. 99234 Correct Answer: C. 99233 A patient came in to the ER with wheezing and a rapid heart rate. The ER physician documents a comprehensive history, comprehensive exam and medical decision of moderate complexity. The patient has been given three nebulizer treatments. The ER physician has decided to place him in observation care for the acute asthma exacerbation. The ER physician will continue examining the patient and will order additional treatments until the wheezing subsides. Select the appropriate code(s) for this visit. A. 99284, 99219 B. 99219 C. 99284 D. 99235 Correct Answer: B. 99219 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 45 fracture, type I open left wrist. What radiological service and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. 73100-26, S52.502B, W18.31XA, Y92.039 B. 73110-26, S52.602A, W18.31XA, Y92.039 C. 73115-26, S52.502A, W18.31XA, Y92.039 D. 73100-26, S52.602B, W18.31XA, Y92.039 Correct Answer: A. 73100- 26, S52.502B, W18.31XA, Y92.039 An 18-year-old female with a history of depression comes into the ER in a coma. The ER physician orders a drug screen on antidepressants, phenothiazines, and benzodiazepines. The lab performs a screening for single drug class using an immunoassay in a random access chemistry analyzer. Presence of antidepressants is found and a drug confirmation is performed to identify the particular antidepressant. What correct CPT® codes are reported? A. 80307, 80338 B. 80305, 80338 C. 80306 x 3, 80332 D. 80307 x 3, 80333 Correct Answer: A. 80307, 80338 A patient uses Topiramate to control his seizures. He comes in every two months to have a therapeutic drug testing performed to assess serum plasma levels of this medication. What lab code(s) is (are) reported for this testing? A. 80305 B. 80375 C. 80201 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 46 D. 80306, 80375 Correct Answer: C. 80201 Patient that is a borderline diabetic has been sent to the laboratory to have an oral glucose tolerance test. Patient drank the glucose and five blood specimens were taken every 30 to 60 minutes up to three hours to determine how quickly the glucose is cleared from the blood. What code(s) is (are) reported for this test? A. 82947 x 5 B. 82946 C. 80422 D. 82951, 82952 x 2 Correct Answer: D. 82951, 82952 x 2 A patient with severe asthma exacerbation has been admitted. The admitting physician orders a blood gas for oxygen saturation only. The admitting physician performs the arterial puncture drawing blood for a blood gas reading on oxygen saturation only. The physician draws it again in an hour to measure how much oxygen the blood is carrying. Select the codes for reporting this service. A. 82805, 82805-51 B. 82810, 82810-91 C. 82803, 82803-51 D. 82805, 82805-90 Correct Answer: B. 82810, 82810-91 A new patient is having a cardiovascular stress test done in his cardiologist's office. Before the test is started the physician documents a comprehensive history and exam and moderate complexity medical decision making. The physician will be supervising and interpreting the stress on the patient's heart during the test. What AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 47 procedure codes are reported for this encounter? A. 93015-26, 99204-25 B. 93016, 93018, 99204-25 C. 93015, 99204-25 D. 93018-26, 99204-25 Correct Answer: C. 93015, 99204-25 A cancer patient is coming in to have a chemotherapy infusion. The physician notes the patient is dehydrated and will first administer a hydration infusion. The infusion time was 1 hour and 30 minutes. Select the code(s) that is (are) reported for this encounter? A. 96360 B. 96360, 96361 C. 96365, 96366 D. 96422 Correct Answer: A. 96360 A patient that has multiple sclerosis has been seeing a therapist for four visits. Today's visit the therapist will be performing a comprehensive reevaluation to determine the extent of progress. There was a revised plan assessing the changes in the patient's functional status. Initial profile was updated to reflect changes that affect future goals along with a revised plan of care. A total care of 30 minutes were spent in this re-evaluation. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes should be reported? A. 97168, Z51.89, G35 B. 97164, Z56.89, G35 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 50 A 55-year-old-patient had a fracture of his left knee cap six months ago. The fracture has healed but he still has staggering gait in which he will be going to physical therapy. What ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. S82.002A, R26.81 B. R26.0, S82.002A C. S82.092S, R26.0 D. R26.0, S82.002S Correct Answer: D. R26.0, S82.002S Which statement is TRUE about Z codes: A. Z codes are never reported as a primary code. B. Z codes are only reported with injury codes. C. Z codes may be used either as a primary code or a secondary code. D. Z codes are always reported as a secondary code. Correct Answer: C. Z codes may be used either as a primary code or a secondary code. Patient with corneal degeneration is having a cornea transplant. The donor cornea had been previously prepared by punching a central corneal button with a guillotine punch. This had been stored in Optisol GS. It was gently rinsed with BSS Plus solution and was then transferred to the patient's eye on a Paton spatula and sutured with 12 interrupted 10-0 nylon sutures. Select the HCPCS Level II code for the corneal tissue. A. V2790 B. V2785 C. V2628 D. V2799 Correct Answer: B. V2785 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 51 The patient presents to the office for an injection. Joint prepped using sterile technique. Muscle group location: gluteus maximus. Sterilely injected with 40 mg of Kenalog-10, 2 cc Marcaine and 2 cc lidocaine 2%. Sterile bandage applied. Choose the HCPCS Level II code for this treatment. A. J3301 x 4 B. J3301 C. J3300 x 40 D. J3300 Correct Answer: A. J3301 x 4 Which of the following is an example of electronic data? A. A digital X-ray B. An explanation of benefits C. An advance beneficiary notice D. A written prescription Correct Answer: A. A digital X-ray Which health plan does NOT fall under HIPAA? A. Medicaid B. Medicare C. Workers' compensation D. Private plans Correct Answer: C. Workers' compensation AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 52 Guidelines from which of the following code sets are included as part of the code set requirements under HIPAA? A. CPT® Category III codes B. ICD-10-CM C. HCPCS Level II D. ADA Dental Codes Correct Answer: B. ICD-10-CM Which statement is an example in which a diabetes-related problem exists and the code for diabetes is NEVER sequenced first? A. If the patient has an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction. B. If the patient is being treated for secondary diabetes. C. If the patient is being treated for Type 2 diabetes and uses insulin. D. If the patient is diabetic with an associated condition. Correct Answer: A. If the patient has an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction. Patient has basal cell carcinoma on his upper back. A map was prepared to correspond to the area of skin where the excisions of the tumor will be performed using Mohs micrographic surgery technique. There were three tissue blocks that were prepared for cryostat, sectioned, and removed in the first stage. Then a second stage had six tissue blocks which were also cut and stained for microscopic examination. The entire base and margins of the excised pieces of tissue were examined by the surgeon. No tumor was identified after the final stage of the microscopically controlled surgery. What procedure codes are reported? A. 17313, 17314, 17314 B. 17313, 17315 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 55 The patient is a 66-year-old female who presents with Dupuytren's disease in the right palm and ring finger. This results in a contracture of the ring digit MP joint. She is having a subtotal palmar fasciectomy for Dupuytren's disease right ring digit and palm. An extensile Brunner incision was then made beginning in the proximal palm and extending to the ring finger PIP crease. This exposed a large pretendinous cord arising from the palmar fascia extending distally over the flexor tendons of the ring finger. The fascial attachments to the flexor tendon sheath were released. At the level of the metacarpophalangeal crease, one band arose from the central pretendinous cord-one coursing toward the middle finger. The digital nerve was identified, and this diseased fascia was also excised. What procedure code(s) is (are) used? A. 26123-RT, 26125-F7 B. 26121-RT C. 26035-RT D. 26040-RT Correct Answer: A. 26123-RT, 26125-F7 This is a 32-year-old female who presents today with sacroilitis. On the physical exam there was pain on palpation of the left and right sacroiliac joint and fluoroscopic guidance was done for the needle positioning. Then 80 mg of Depo- Medrol and 1 mL of bupivacaine at 0.5% was injected into the left and right sacroiliac joint with a 22 gauge needle. The patient was able to walk from the exam room without difficulty. Follow up will be as needed. The correct CPT® code(s) is (are): A. 20611 B. 27096-50, 77012 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 56 C. 27096-50 D. 27096, 27096-51, 77012 Correct Answer: C. 27096-50 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 57 PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Medial meniscus tear, right knee POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Medial meniscus tear, extensive synovitis with an impingement medial synovial plica, right knee TITLE OF PROCEDURE: Diagnostic operative arthroscopy, partial medial meniscectomy and synovectomy, right knee The patent was brought to the operating room, placed in the supine position after which he underwent general anesthesia. The right knee was then prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. The arthroscope was introduced through an anterolateral portal, interim portal created anteromedially. The suprapatellar pouch was inspected. The findings on the patella and the femoral groove were as noted above. An intra- articular shaver was introduced to debride the loose fibrillated articular cartilage from the medial patellar facet. The hypertrophic synovial scarring between the patella and the femoral groove was debrided. The hypertrophic impinging medial synovial plica was resected. The hypertrophic synovial scarring overlying the intercondylar notch and lateral compartment was debrided. The medial compartment was inspected. An upbiting basket was introduced to transect the base of the degenerative posterior horn flap tear. This was removed with a grasper. The meniscus was then further contoured and balanced with an intra-articular shaver, reprobed and found to be stable. The cruciate ligaments were probed, palpated and found to be intact. The lateral compartment was then inspected. The lateral meniscus was probed and found to be intact. The loose fibrillated articular cartilage along the lateral tibial plateau was debrided with the intra-articular shaver. The knee joint was then thoroughly irrigated with the arthroscope. The arthroscope was then removed. Skin portals were closed with 3-0 nylon sutures. A sterile dressing was applied. The patient AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 60 D. 22318 Correct Answer: D. 22318 The patient is a 51-year-old gentleman who has end-stage renal disease. He was in the OR yesterday for a revision of his AV graft. The next day the patient had complications of the graft failing. The patient was back to the operating room where an open thrombectomy was performed on both sides getting good back bleeding, good inflow. Select the appropriate code for performing the procedure in a post-operative period: A. 36831-76 B. 36831 C. 36831-78 D. 36831-58 Correct Answer: C. 36831-78 The patient is a 77-year-old white female who has been having right temporal pain and headaches with some visual changes and has a sed rate of 51. She is scheduled for a temporal artery biopsy to rule out temporal arteritis. A Doppler probe was used to isolate the temporal artery and using a marking pen the path of the artery was drawn. Lidocaine 1% was used to infiltrate the skin, and using a 15 blade scalpel the skin was opened in the preauricular area and dissected down to the subcutaneous tissue where the temporal artery was identified in its bed. It was a medium size artery and we dissected it out for a length of approximately 4 cm with some branches. The ends were ligated with 4-0 Vicryl, and the artery was removed from its bed and sent to Pathology as specimen. What CPT® code is reported? A. 37609 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 61 B. 37605 C. 36625 D. 37799 Correct Answer: A. 37609 A 50-year-old female has recurrent lymphoma in the axilla. Ultrasound was used to localize the lymph node in question for needle guidance. An 11 blade scalpel was used to perform a small dermatotomy. An 18 x 10 cm Biopence needle was advanced through the dermatotomy to the periphery of the lymph node. A total of 4 biopsy specimens were obtained. Two specimens were placed an RPMI and 2 were placed in formalin and sent to laboratory. The correct CPT® code(s) is (are): A. 10005 B. 38500, 77002-26 C. 38505, 76942-26 D. 38525, 76942-26 Correct Answer: C. 38505, 76942-26 Patient is going into the OR for an appendectomy with a ruptured appendicitis. Right lower quadrant transverse incision was made upon entry to the abdomen. In the right lower quadrant there was a large amount of pus consistent with a right lower quadrant abscess. Intraoperative cultures anaerobic and aerobic were taken and sent to microbiology for evaluation. Irrigation of the pus was performed until clear. The base of the appendix right at the margin of the cecum was perforated. The mesoappendix was taken down and tied using 0-Vicryl ties and the appendix fell off completely since it was already ruptured with tissue paper thin membrane at the base. There was no appendiceal stump to close or to tie, just an opening into the cecum; therefore, the appendiceal opening area into the cecum was tied twice AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 62 using figure of 8 Vicryl sutures. AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 65 was then inserted and the lower uterine segment AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 66 incised in a transverse fashion with the scalpel. The bladder blade was removed and the infant's head delivered atraumatically. The nose and mouth were suctioned with the bulb suction trap and the cord doubly clamped and cut. The placenta was then removed manually. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this procedure? A. 59610, O34.211, Z37.0, Z3A.39 B. 59510, O64.1XX0, Z37.0, Z3A.39 C. 59514, O82, Z37.0, Z3A.39 D. 59515, O82, Z37.0, Z3A.39 Correct Answer: C. 59514, O82, Z37.0, Z3A.39 A 55-year-old female has a symptomatic rectocele. She had been admitted and taken to the main OR. An incision is made in the vagina into the perineal body (central tendon of the perineum). Dissection was carried underneath posterior vaginal epithelium all the way over to the rectocele. Fascial tissue was brought together with sutures creating a bridge and the rectocele had been reduced with good support between the vagina and rectum. What procedure code should be reported? A. 45560 B. 57284 C. 57250 D. 57240 Correct Answer: C. 57250 A craniectomy is being performed on a patient who has Chiari malformation. Once the posterior inferior scalp was removed a C-1 and a partial C-2 laminectomy was then performed. The right cerebellar tonsil was dissected free of the dorsal medulla AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 67 and a gush of cerebrospinal fluid gave good decompression of the posterior fossa content. Which CPT® code is reported? A. 61322 B. 61345 C. 61343 D. 61458 Correct Answer: C. 61343 Under fluoroscopic guidance an injection of a combination of steroid and analgesic agent is performed on T2-T3, T4-T5, T6-T7 and T8-T9 on the left side into the paravertebral facet joints. The procedure was performed for pain due to thoracic root lesions. What are the procedure codes? A. 64479, 64480x3, 77003 B. 64490, 64491, 64492x2, 77003 C. 64520x4, 77003 D. 64490, 64491, 64492 Correct Answer: D. 64490, 64491, 64492 An entropion repair is performed on the left lower eyelid in which undermining was performed with scissors of the inferior lid and inferior temporal region. Deep sutures were used to separate the eyelid margin outwardly along with stripping the lateral tarsus to provide firm approximation of the lower lid to the globe. The correct CPT® code is: A. 67914-E4 B. 67924-E2 C. 67921-E2 D. 67917-E1 Correct Answer: B. 67924-E2 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 70 Anesthetist (CRNA). Code the anesthesia service. AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 71 A. 00400-QX-QS B. 00400-QS C. 00300-QS D. 00300-QX-QS Correct Answer: A. 00400-QX-QS PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Multivessel coronary artery disease. POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Multivessel coronary artery disease. NAME OF PROCEDURE: Coronary artery bypass graft x 3, left internal mammary artery to the LAD, saphenous vein graft to the obtuse marginal, saphenous vein graft to the diagonal. The patient is placed on heart and lung bypass during the procedure. Anesthesia time: 6:00 PM to 12:00 AM Surgical time: 6:15 PM to 11:30 PM What is the correct anesthesia code and anesthesia time? A. 00567, 6 hours B. 00566, 6 hours C. 00567, 5 hours and 30 minutes D. 00566, 5 hours and 30 minutes Correct Answer: A. 00567, 6 hours A CT density study is performed on a post-menopausal female to screen for osteoporosis. Today's visit the bone density study will be performed on the spine. Which CPT® code is reported? A. 77075 B. 77080 C. 77078 D. 72081 Correct Answer: C. 77078 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 72 The patient is 15-weeks pregnant with twins coming back to her obstetrician to have a transabdominal ultrasound performed to reassess anatomic abnormalities of both fetuses that were previously demonstrated in the last ultrasound. What ultrasound code(s) is (are) reported? A. 76815 B. 76816, 76816-59 C. 76801, 76802 D. 76805, 76810 Correct Answer: B. 76816, 76816-59 67-year-old female fractured a port-a-cath surgically placed a year ago. Under sonographic guidance a needle was passed into the right common femoral vein. The loop snare was positioned in the right atrium where a portion of the fractured catheter was situated. The catheter crossed the atrioventricular valve with the remaining aspect of the catheter in the ventricle. A pigtail catheter was then utilized to loop the catheter and pull the catheter tip into the inferior vena cava. The catheter was then snared and pulled through the right groin removed in its entirety. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported? A. 37200, T81.509D B. 37197, T82.514A C. 37193, T80.219A D. 37217, T88.8XXA Correct Answer: B. 37197, T82.514A AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 75 A. 92601 B. 92603 C. 92604 D. 92562 Correct Answer: B. 92603 A cardiologist pediatrician sends a four week-old baby to an outpatient facility to have an echocardiogram. The baby has been having rapid breathing. He is sedated and a probe is placed on the chest wall and images are taken through the chest wall. A report is generated and sent to the pediatrician. The interpretation of the report by the pediatrician reveals the baby has an atrial septal defect. Choose the CPT® code the cardiologist pediatrician should report. A. 93303 B. 93315-26 C. 93303-26 D. 93315 Correct Answer: C. 93303-26 Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation affecting which system? A. Digestive B. Nervous C. Urinary D. Cardiovascular Correct Answer: C. Urinary When a patient has fractured the proximal end of his humerus, where is the fracture located? A. Upper end of the arm AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 76 B. Lower end of the leg C. Upper end of the leg D. Lower end of the arm Correct Answer: A. Upper end of the arm What is another term for when a physician performs a reduction on a displaced fracture? A. Casting B. Manipulation C. Skeletal traction D. External fixation Correct Answer: B. Manipulation What does oligospermia mean? A. Presence of blood in the semen B. Deficiency of sperm in semen C. Having sperm in urine D. Formation of spermatozoa Correct Answer: B. Deficiency of sperm in semen Thoracentesis is removing fluid or air from the: A. Lung B. Chest cavity C. Thoracic vertebrae D. Heart Correct Answer: B. Chest cavity An angiogram is a study to look inside: AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 77 A. Female Reproductive System B. Urinary System C. Blood Vessels D. Breasts Correct Answer: C. Blood Vessels When a person has labyrinthitis what has the inflammation? A. Inner ear B. Brain C. Conjunctiva D. Spine Correct Answer: A. Inner ear Patient is going back to the OR for a re-exploration L5-S1 laminectomy for a presumed cerebrospinal fluid leak following a decompression procedure. A small partial laminectomy was slightly extended, however revealed no real evidence of leak. Valsalva maneuver was performed several times, no evidence of leak. There was a hematoma, which was drained. What ICD-10- CM code(s) is (are) reported by the physician? A. G96.0 B. G97.61 C. G96.8 D. G96.0, T81.4XXA Correct Answer: B. G97.61 A patient that has hypertensive heart disease with congestive heart failure is coded: A. I11.0, I50.9 B. I13.0 AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 80 After Many episodes of anxious behavior, a patient's PCP diagnoses them with GAD. How would this diagnoses be billed? A. F40.8 B. F41.1 C. F41.9 D. F43.0 Correct Answer: B. F41.1 Bob was referred to an OT status post left index finger arthroplasty. The patient's goal is to decrease pain and return to pre-morbid functional status with use of hand. The OT should look to which G codes for reporting therapy sessions? A. Changing and maintaining body positions G code set B. Other PT/OT subsequent G code set C. Carrying, moving, and handling objects G code set D. Mobility G code set Correct Answer: C. Carrying, moving, and handling objects G code set Tina was referred to a PT for low back pain that radiates to her left, lower extremity. Pain increases when she ascends/descends stairs, goes from sitting to standing or vice versa, and when she lies down. The patient's goal is to reduce her pain and be more comfortable. The PT should look to which G codes for reporting therapy sessions? A. Other PT/OT primary G code set B. Self-care G code set AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 81 C. Mobility G code set D. Changing and maintaining body positions G code set Correct Answer: D. Changing and maintaining body positions G code set A physician orders 90 minutes of HBOT. The documentation for the HBOT treatment indicates the patient was in the chamber at 100 percent oxygen for 90 minutes. Additional time of 10 minutes for descent, a 10-minute air break, and 10 minutes for ascent was also documented. How many units of G0277 are billed by the hospital? A. 3 units B. 5 units C. 2 units D. 4 units Correct Answer: D. 4 units Put a policy in place that requires a scribe to sign and date all medical records entries: A. When the practice is under the jurisdiction of a MAC that requires it B. Never, since a signature is not required by a scribe C. When the scribe is certified by a national organization D. When the practice/organization may be surveyed by The Joint Commission Correct Answer: D. When the practice/organization may be surveyed by The Joint Commission Can an NPP work as a scribe? A. Only if they indicate in the documentation that they are working as a AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 82 scribe, and not as a clinician. B. Never. It's too expensive to use NPPs as scribes. C. Yes, because they are able to interject observations and impressions the provider might leave out, resulting in better documentation. D. Only if they have the appropriate scribe certification. Correct Answer: A. Only if they indicate in the documentation that they are working as a scribe, and not as a clinician. Mr. Valdez arrives in the emergency department with complaints of shortness of breath and wheezing. After study, he is found to have an exacerbation of COPD. He has a history of emphysema. ICD-10-CM code(s) are: A. R06.02, R06.2 B. J44.1 C. J44.1, J43.9 D. J43.9 Correct Answer: D. J43.9 Ms. Gardose is a 75-year-old woman who presented to emergency department with sharp pain during inhalation. The physician diagnosed her with pneumonia and flare up of COPD. Diagnosis code(s) to report this patient's condition are: A. J44.0, J18.9 B. J44.0, J18.9, J44.1 C. J44.1, J18.9 D. J18.9 Correct Answer: B. J44.0, J18.9, J44.1 What documentation indicates a "rupture" when coding for an endovascular repair? AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 85 A. HMO/EPO B. PPO C. POS D. Traditional Correct Answer: A. HMO/EPO You may want to consider being an out-of-network provider if all of your referrals come from the following marketing sources: A. Word of mouth B. Other colleagues C. Independent marketing D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above A patient presents to the urgent care after accidently cutting two fingers with a bagel knife. The laceration on the index finger is 1 cm and the laceration on the middle finger is 2 cm. Simple repairs are performed on each laceration with 5-0 nylon. How should you code these repairs? A. 12001 x 2 B. 12001 C. 12002 D. 12042 Correct Answer: C. 12002 A patient presents with an abscess on his back that requires drainage. The procedure note indicates: I&D of abscess - complicated. Area injected with 1% lidocaine, anesthesia achieved. Area incised with #11 blade, frank pus expressed approx. 5 mL. Abscess probed to break loculations and wound irrigated and then AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 86 packed with nugauze. Sterile dressing applied. How should you code? A. 10040 B. 10061 C. 10060 D. 10180 Correct Answer: B. 10061 The patient is a 49-year-old woman who presents to the ER with an acute onset of pain in her right wrist after falling while being chased by a dog. She fell onto an outstretched hand and struck it sharply against her front doorstep. X-rays of her right hand and wrist confirm she sustained a Colles distal radius fracture. The orthopedist on call places her in a short-arm cast and the visit is documented to Level 3. A. 25600-RT, 99283-57 B. 25600-RT, 29075-59-RT, 99283-57 C. 25605-RT, 29075-51-RT, 99283-25 D. 25605-RT, 99283 Correct Answer: A. 25600-RT, 99283-57 A 68-year-old, Medicare patient was woodworking in his basement workshop in his single- family home, preparing a new finish to a coffee table. He lost his grip on a powered sander and suffered a crushing injury into the capitate and hamate bones of his right wrist as well as a Gustilo-Anderson Type I open fracture of the hamate body. In the hospital, an orthopedic surgeon performed a flexor tendon decompression fasciotomy with extensive debridement of muscle, nerve tissue and bone as well as a 2-bone carpectomy. An ORIF of the fracture was also done. AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 87 The surgery took place in the hospital the day after admission at Level 2 subsequent hospital care. This procedure was actually done in consult, but Medicare does not pay for consultation CPT® codes. The patient is placed in an extension control cock-up wrist splint. Code the encounter. A. 25023-RT, 25628-51-RT, 25210-51-RT B. 25023-RT, 25628-51-RT, 25210-51-RT x 2 C. 25023-RT, 11012-51, 25645-51-RT, 25210-51-RT x 2 D. 25023-RT, 25645-51-RT, 25210-51-RT x 2, 99232-57 Correct Answer: D. 25023-RT, 25645- 51-RT, 25210-51-RT x 2, 99232-57 Atherosclerosis: A. Is a significant risk factor for AAA B. May cause muscle weakness in the legs C. May cause tears in the inner layer of the aorta D. Both a and b Correct Answer: D. Both a and b True or False: You can use a general diagnosis code (Z00.00) for an in-depth procedure test, such as TSH screening panel. A. True B. False Correct Answer: B. False A patient presents to the urgent care after accidently cutting two fingers with a bagel knife. The laceration on the index finger is 1 cm, and 2 cm on the middle finger. Simple repairs are performed on each laceration with 5-0 nylon. Which is proper coding? AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 90 EHR. The service was performed on 2/1/2018 at 9:30 a.m. Dr. Torrey reviewed his work and agreed with the findings on 2/2/2018 at 10 a.m. Does this meet CMS' requirements for billing E/M services? A. Yes: The EHR automatically adds her name and date stamp. B. No: The teaching physician must be present at the time the patient is examined. Correct Answer: B. No: The teaching physician must be present at the time the patient is examined. When coding an adverse effect for a drug that was correctly prescribed and properly administered, what should be coded first? A. The drug B. The underlying condition treated C. The side effect of the drug D. The activity the patient was involved in when the drug was taken Correct Answer: C. The side effect of the drug From a documentation standpoint, which is most useful in determining whether a patient has a true drug allergy or just a drug intolerance? A. The underlying condition treated B. The place of occurrence C. The activity the patient was involved in when the drug was taken D. The reaction the patient experienced and the drug that caused the reaction Correct Answer: D. The reaction the patient experienced and the drug that caused the reaction AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 91 OP-25 is the measure for Safe Surgery Checklist Use (outpatient). Which should be done to ensure patient safety? A. Mark the site of the body area to be operated on. B. Confirm the patient's identity before initiating the procedure. C. Identify the allergy(ies) the patient has prior to initiating the procedure. D. All of the above. Correct Answer: D. All of the above. A patient admitted for left hip replacement has a medical history of COPD, with hospitalization six months ago due to acute exacerbation, diabetes with neuropathy, appendicitis s/p RT appendectomy 1997, and a history of prostate cancer s/p TURP, radiation and chemotherapy, no NED and no medications noted. Considering the importance of capturing comorbidities in the inpatient setting, which conditions should the providers document and address as active conditions for accurate code reporting during this admission? A. Appendicitis, COPD, and diabetic neuropathy B. COPD and diabetic neuropathy C. COPD with exacerbation and diabetic neuropathy D. COPD, diabetic neuropathy, and prostate cancer Correct Answer: B. COPD and diabetic neuropathy Local Coverage Determinations (LCDs) are: A. Applicable across the United States B. Issued by CMS C. Contain information about standards for "reasonable and necessary" items and AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 92 services D. Not enforceable by the Medicare administrative contractor (MAC) Correct Answer: C. Contain information about standards for "reasonable and necessary" items and services The Sessions and Brand memos are: A. New policies on how the DOJ should proceed regarding agency guidance B. Effective upon their date of issue C. Applied to guidance documents such as LCDs, CMS' Medicare manuals, and OIG advisory opinions D. All the above Correct Answer: D. All the above A progress note with one to three elements of HPI for a new patient office visit will result in an E/M level no higher than: A. 99203 B. 99214 C. 99202 D. 99213 Correct Answer: C. 99202 When comparing the review of systems and physical examination to the chief complaint and HPI in an EHR, the auditor is looking for: A. A comprehensive level B. A detailed level AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 95 Which one is NOT a covered entity of HIPAA? A. Medicare B. Worker's Compensation C. Dentists D. Pharmacies Correct Answer: B. Worker's Compensation Which is an NCD interpreted at the MAC level considered? A.MAC adjusted NCD B. ABN C. LCD D. MAC's cannot interpret and NCD Correct Answer: C. LCD When should an ABN be signed? A. When a service is considered medically necessary by Medicare. B. When a service is not expected to be covered by Medicare. C. Routinely for any service given to Medicare patient. D. After service is denied and the patient should be billed. Correct Answer: B. When a service is not expected to be covered by Medicare. The amount on an ABN should be within how much of the cost to the patient? A. $250 of cost B. $100 or 25% of cost C. $10 or 10% D. $100 or 10% of cost Correct Answer: B. $100 or 25% of cost AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 96 An entity that processes non standard health information they receive from another entity into a standard format is considered what? A Billing Company B. Electronic Heath Record Vendor C. Clearinghouse D. Practice Management Vendor Correct Answer: C. Clearinghouse What is PHI? A. Personal History Information B. Problem with History of infection C. Partial Health Information D. Protected Health Information Correct Answer: D. Protected Health Information Intentional billing of services not provided is considered A. Deceptive Billing B. Fraud C. Abuse D. Common practice Correct Answer: B. Fraud AAPC PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS GUARANTEED SUCCESS RATED A+ 97 What OIG document should a provider review for potential problem areas that will receive special scrutiny in the upcoming year? A. Compliance Program Guidance B. Safe Harbor Regulations C. Red Flag Rules D. OIG work plan Correct Answer: D. OIG Work Plan A patient sustains an injury to her great saphenous vein would have sustained an injury to which of the following anatomical sites? A. Neck B. Arm C. Leg D. Abdomen Correct Answer: C. Leg Which of the following is a function of the pancreas ? A. Supplies digestive enzymes B. Manufactures melatonin C. Stimulates growth D. Secretes vasopressin Correct Answer: A. Supplies digestive enzymes Which of the following statements is False? A. Fraud consists of payment for items that are billed by mistake but should not be paid for by Medicare. B. The OIG Work Plan outlines priorities for investigating potential problem areas with submissions