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ABRET - Activation Procedures, Effects on an EEG, & Sleep Stages Categories with Complete, Exams of Physiology

ORDA is commonly seen in children with a) Absence seizures b) Febrile Seizures c) Focal Seizures d) Benign Rolandic Epilepsy - ANSWER-a) Absence seizures Which activity does NOT typically cause an attenuation of the posterior dominant alpha rhythm in the normal adult? a) Light sleep b) Having the patient solve a math problem with eyes closed c) Having the patient open their eyes d) Relaxed wakefulness with eyes closed - ANSWER-d) Relaxed wakefulness with eyes closed Photoparoxysmal response: a) Sub-harmonic pattern

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Download ABRET - Activation Procedures, Effects on an EEG, & Sleep Stages Categories with Complete and more Exams Physiology in PDF only on Docsity! ABRET - Activation Procedures, Effects on an EEG, & Sleep Stages Categories with Complete Solutions ORDA is commonly seen in children with a) Absence seizures b) Febrile Seizures c) Focal Seizures d) Benign Rolandic Epilepsy - ANSWER-a) Absence seizures Which activity does NOT typically cause an attenuation of the posterior dominant alpha rhythm in the normal adult? a) Light sleep b) Having the patient solve a math problem with eyes closed c) Having the patient open their eyes d) Relaxed wakefulness with eyes closed - ANSWER-d) Relaxed wakefulness with eyes closed Photoparoxysmal response: a) Sub-harmonic pattern b) EEG response to light with spikes, spike-wave discharge and/or intermittent slow waves. c) EMG artifact time locked with flash frequency d) Occipital pattern linked with flash rate - ANSWER-b) EEG response to light with spikes, spike-wave discharge and/or intermittent slow waves. What type of response to photic stimulation is characterized by generalized spike-and- wave discharges continuing after the last flash? a) Photoelectric b) Photoparoxysmal c) Photic recruiting d) Photomyogenic - ANSWER-b) Photoparoxysmal During hyperventilation, a 9-year-old patient develops generalized 100 - 300 microvolts slowing. If, within thirty seconds post hyperventilation, the record returns to its prehyperventilation state, the reaction would be a) compatible with a seizure disorder. b) a normal response to hyperventilation. c) suggestive of a metabolic disturbance. d) suggestive of a tumor. - ANSWER-b) a normal response to hyperventilation. A subharmonic photic driving response is: a) The exact frequency of the flash strobe b) Half the frequency of the flash strobe c) Twice the frequency of the flash strobe d) Attenuation for duration of flash strobe - ANSWER-b) Half the frequency of the flash strobe Hyperventilation should be done at a rate of: a) 20 breaths per minute b) 10 breaths per minute c) 15 breaths per minute d) 25 breaths per minute - ANSWER-a) 20 breaths per minute Photic induced epileptiform discharges are most likely associated with a) Down syndrome. b) barbiturate withdrawal. c) meningitis. d) hepatic encephalopathy. - ANSWER-b) barbiturate withdrawal. Which of the following activation procedures should be AVOIDED in a patient with a recent intracranial hemorrhage? a) Mental exertion b) Hyperventilation c) Sleep d) Photic stimulation - ANSWER-b) Hyperventilation HYPERVENTILATION a) Hypocapnia b) Hyperglycemia c) Hypercapnia d) Hypoatremia - ANSWER-c) Hypocapnia The removal rate of CO2 is increased during HV. Photic stimulation is most effective in evoking epileptiform abnormalities in patients with a) focal occipital seizures b) a family history of seizures c) metabolic coma d) syncope - ANSWER-b) a family history of seizures What is a sub harmonic response to photic stimulation? a) Photic driving at half the speed of the flash rate b) An abnormal response to the photic stimulation c) Photic driving at the exact frequency to the flash rate d) Photic driving double the speed of the flash rate - ANSWER-a) Photic driving at half the speed of the flash rate b) Hide channels with artifact c) Turn on notch filters d) Attempting to eliminate the technical issues - ANSWER-d) Attempting to eliminate the technical issues Regarding eye movement artifacts, which of the following is true? a) Vertical eye movements are seen maximally at FP1 and FP2, while horizontal eye movements are recorded best at F7 and F8. b) The eyeball acts as a dipole, with a negative pole anteriorly near the cornea, and a relative positivity posteriorly near the retina. c) Placement of infraorbital eye leads is of little or no clinical utility in differentiating eye movements from cortical activity. d) With lateral conjugate eye movements the negativity is seen in the direction of the eye movement. - ANSWER-a) Vertical eye movements are seen maximally at FP1 and FP2, while horizontal eye movements are recorded best at F7 and F8. What is the name of artifact that appears as a prominent R wave with positivity over the left posterior quadrant of the head and can resemble spikes? a) Respiration artifact b) Chewing artifact c) Lateral eye movement artifact d) ECG artifact - ANSWER-d) ECG artifact Glossokinetic artifact a) Biological b) Mechanical c) External d) Instrumental - ANSWER-a) Biological Glossokinetic a) Eye Movement b) Tongue Movement c) Chewing d) Head movement - ANSWER-b) Tongue Movement An EEG shows eye blink and muscle artifact. What is the likely state of the patient? a) Awake b) Drowsy c) REM d) Stage 1 sleep - ANSWER-a) Awake Sweat artifact is severely obscuring the EEG. What is the FIRST step the technologist should take to eliminate the artifact? a) Cool the patient down by removing blanket and fanning patient. b) Turn the LFF to 5Hz c) Turn the sensitivity down d) Place a rolled up towel under the head - ANSWER-a) Cool the patient down by removing blanket and fanning patient. Sweat artifact a) Slow deflection b) Spike c) Eliminated with HFF 15 Hz d) Associated with EKG - ANSWER-a) Slow deflection Artifact that is caused by movement of people near the patient: a) Electrostatic artifact b) 60-Hz artifact c) Respiration artifact d) EKG artifact - ANSWER-a) Electrostatic artifact While recording using a bipolar montage, you notice that the channel C4-P4 is unusually flat compared to the other channels. What is a possible cause? a) The electrodes are too far apart b) The impedances were too high c) The electrodes require more paste d) The electrodes are too close together - ANSWER-d) The electrodes are too close together Broken lead wire during a recording: a) not important, since the system reference can still be used as input two b) requires replacement c) can cause a dangerous leakage current d) can be corrected using a software patch - ANSWER-b) requires replacement If 60 Hz artifact is present in two channels of an EEG tracing, the first step in troubleshooting should be to a) change high frequency filter to 15 Hz. b) switch to another power outlet. c) turn on 60 Hz filter. d) check electrode impedance. - ANSWER-d) check electrode impedance. NON-PHYSIOLOGIC ARTIFACT a) EMG b) EOG c) Electrode d) Glossokinetic - ANSWER-c) Electrode What should be the first reaction to 60 hertz artifact in one electrode? a) Turn on the 60 hz filter. b) Utilize the high filter. c) Change the montage. d) Check electrode impedance. - ANSWER-d) Check electrode impedance. 60 hertz filter a) Low Filter b) Notch Filter c) Muscle Filter d) Rapid Roll-off Filter - ANSWER-b) Notch Filter If a patient starts to have a seizure during photic stimulation, the technologist should a) turn off EEG instrument. b) decrease stimulation rate. c) turn off photic stimulator. d) increase sensitivity. - ANSWER-c) turn off photic stimulator. A patient has generalized tonic-clonic seizure during EEG recording. If one electrode is pulled off, which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EEG technologist? a) Stop the recording and protect the patient from injury b) Stop the recording and fix the electrode c) Fix the electrode and then attend to the patient d) Protect the patient from injury and keep EEG running - ANSWER-d) Protect the patient from injury and keep EEG running What is the most common frequency of sleep spindles? a) 10 Hz b) 5 Hz c) 12 Hz d) 14 Hz - ANSWER-d) 14 Hz REM onset occurs a) 30 minutes after sleep onset. b) after age 17. c) 90 minutes after sleep onset. d) between n2 and n3. - ANSWER-c) 90 minutes after sleep onset. Typically the latency to REM is: a) 90 min b) 120 min c) 60 min d) 30 min - ANSWER-a) 90 min Small Sharp Spikes (SSS) a) REM sleep b) Drowsy c) Awake d) Stage I-II sleep - ANSWER-d) Stage I-II sleep
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