Security Assistance Programs: Understanding US Defense Aid and Cooperation, Exams of Nursing

Download Security Assistance Programs: Understanding US Defense Aid and Cooperation and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 ACQ 120 QLesson 1. 1) Which of the following categories is part of Security Cooperation activities? a. International Armaments Cooperation b. Support to Cooperation c. International Training Assistance d. Equipment Sales & Operation 2) Which of the following best describes Security Assistance programs? a. Group of programs by which the United States provides defense articles, training, or other services by grant, loan, cash sale, or lease b. Logistics, infrastructure, and command and control for combined operations that assist partner security forces c. Instruction provided to foreign defense civilians and military to develop technical capacity to support combined operations d. Activities whereby the DoD and a foreign partner(s) share resources and technology for acquisition program development 3) Which of the following provides defense articles and/or services to other nations to enhance their ability to conduct counter-terrorism, counter drug-related activity, and counterinsurgency operations and support U.S. military and stability operations and multilateral peace operations? a. Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs b. Support to Operations c. IMET funds appropriated by Congress d. Economic Support Fund 4) Which of the following is a building block of International Armaments Cooperation? a. Cooperative Production b. Building Partner Capacity c. Loans for Exploratory Discussions d. Education and Training 5) Which of the following international acquisition program forms can be used across the acquisition life cycle? a. International Armaments Cooperation b. Foreign Military Sales c. Building Partner Capacity d. Security Assistance 6) True or False: Title 10 Legislation provides authority for Building Partner Capacity (BPC) and cooperative RDT&E a. True b. False 7) What is the legislation that provides authority for foreign assistance programs such as emergency drawdowns, Grant Aid, Excess Defense Articles, and International Military Education and Training programs? a. The Foreign Assistance Act of 1961 b. The Nunn McCurdy Act of 1982 c. The Nunn McCurdy Act of 1982 2 d. The Nunn McCurdy Act of 1982 5 a. True b. False 10) What document does the embassy country team prepare to articulate mission goals and objectives and serve as the overarching strategy for diplomatic engagement with a country? a. Campaign Support Plan b. Integrated Country Strategy c. Theater Campaign Plan d. Country Annex 11) Which Department of Commerce organization has a significant role in international acquisition in defense trade advocacy and export licensing? a. Bureau of Industry and Security b. Bureau of Labor Statistics c. Bureau of Economics d. Bureau of Standards Lesson 3 1) What Defense Security Cooperation Agency (DSCA) organization provides education and training to advance U.S. foreign policy through Security Assistance and Security Cooperation? a. Defense Institute of Security Assistance Management b. National Defense University c. National War College d. Armed Forces Staff College 2) What USD (AT&L) organization develops policy for international acquisition and defense exportability and develops and staffs international agreements related to acquisition matters? a. Director of International Cooperation b. Directorate of Defense Trade Controls c. Defense Security Cooperation Agency d. Defense Security Cooperation Agency 3) Which OSD organization publishes the DoD Financial Management Regulation 7000.14-R that includes policies and procedures for Foreign Military Sales and cooperative programs? a. USD(Comptroller) b. Defense Security Cooperation Agency c. USD for International Security Affairs d. Office of General Counsel 4) Which of the following is a responsibility of the Office of General Counsel? a. Providing legal advice on international matters to OSD and the DoD Components and coordinating on international agreements and transactions b. Developing strategic policy priorities and providing policy counsel to USD(P) and USD(AT&L) c. Improving the efficiency and effectiveness of the Department of Commerce's programs and operations d. Coordinating on international agreements with primary interests in financial equitability and DoD funds availability 6 5) True or False : The Geographic Combatant Commands are focused on combat operations and are not involved in Security Cooperation planning. 7 a. True b. False 6) Which of the following is included in the Military Departments Security Cooperation organizations? a. A Security Assistance training organization b. Embassy liaison officers c. Defense Intelligence Agencies d. Defense Intelligence Agencies 7) Which document requires the Geographic Combatant Commands to develop Theater Campaign Plans for their area of responsibility? a. Guidance for the Employment of the Force (GEF) b. National Security Strategy c. Integrated Country Strategy d. Country Campaign Plan 8) What is one of the international acquisition functions of the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Research and Engineering a. Provides guidance on program protection planning b. Develops security of supply arrangements with foreign nations c. Develops and staffs international agreements related to acquisition matters d. Develops the DoD position on export license applications made to the State Department 9) Which of the following manages Security Assistance demands on military supply systems for each Military Department (MILDEP)? a. Country Campaign plan b. International Logistics Control Organization (ILCO) c. Security Assistance Training Organization d. Embassy country team 10) What USD (Policy) Organization is responsible for development and implementation technology security policy on the international transfer of defense-related goods, services, and technology? a. Defense Intelligence Agency b. Defense Security Cooperation Agency c. National Security Agency d. Defense Technology Security Administration 11) Which DoD Organization provides DoD policies on international agreements and coordinates on international agreements for legal sufficiency? 6 a. USD (Comptroller) b. Judge Advocate General c. Office of General Counsel d. Office of Legal Affairs ACQ 120 Lesson 4 1) True or False : Within both JCIDS and the Defense Acquisition System, a joint DoD development program is preferred over a cooperative development program with one or more Allied nations. a. True b. False 10 ACQ 120 Lesson 5 1) True or False : Decisions made during the Material Solution Analysis (MSA) generally define the nature of the entire program and determine the extent of international cooperation and potential future exportability to allied and friendly nations. a. True b. False 2) Opportunities for international cooperation in the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction phase include which of the following? a. Using foreign science and technology or subsystem designs to reduce technological risk b. Foreign Military Sales of developed systems c. Entering into cooperative logistics arrangements d. Cooperative Operational Test and Evaluation 3) Which of the following activities unique to International Cooperative Programs is conducted in the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase? a. Conducting system or subsystem cooperative development under an international agreement b. Developing the initial Program Protection plan c. Selling equipment to allies under Foreign Military Sales d. Providing opportunity to enhance allied interoperability 4) Which of the following statements about DCS coproduction is true? a. Involves use of munitions export licenses issued by the State Department b. Conducted under the oversight of Export Administration Regulations c. Coproduction capabilities may be transferred through Letters of Acceptance d. Provides President authority to require certain sales to be made through FMS 5) When does the decision to include international partners in a systems acquisition program need to be made? a. As early as possible b. At the Engineering and Manufacturing Development Phase c. At the Initial Operational Test and Evaluation Phase d. Just prior to beginning Low Rate Initial Production 6) A major activity of the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction phase is the development of which of the following documents a. Country Campaign Plan b. Initial Capabilities Document c. Comprehensive Program Protection Plan d. Capability Production Document 7) Which of the following defines a joint or concurrent international production where each partner produces part of a system and acquires other parts from partners? a. Commercial/Industrial Production b. Direct Commercial Sales Coproduction c. Cooperative Production d. Foreign Military Sales Coproduction 11 ACQ 120 Lesson 6 12 all standardization1) Which NATO organization is responsible for the harmonization and coordination of activities within NATO? a. NATO Standardization Organization b. Five Power National Armaments Directors forum c. NATO Science and Technology Organization d. NATO Industrial Advisory Group 2) Which MILDEP headquarters organization is responsible for International Armaments Cooperation within the Department of the Navy? a. Navy International Program Office b. Naval Supply Command c. ONR Global d. Naval Research Lab 3) Which NATO agency promotes and conducts cooperative scientific research and exchange of technical information among the member nations? a. NATO Science and Technology Organization b. Conference of National Armaments Directors c. NATO Support Agency d. NATO Armaments Group 4) Identify one nation in the Pacific region that the U.S. is involved in formal bilateral armaments cooperation forums. a. Japan b. Taiwan c. Vietnam d. Thailand 5) The core objectives of International Armaments Cooperation are: a. Operational, Economic, Technical, Political, and Industrial b. Security Assistance, Building Partner Capacity, and Counter Terrorism c. Operational, Industrial Participation and Force Protection d. Political, Technical, Tactical, Strategic, Cost-Sharing 6) Which is of the following is not necessarily one of the foundational elements of International Armaments Cooperation, for the United States? a. Membership in NATO b. Similar military requirements c. Solid political and economic ties with the United States d. A robust defense technology or industrial base 7) What is the Australia, Canada, New Zealand, United Kingdom, and United States organization that promotes scientific and technical information exchange? a. The Technical Cooperation Program b. NATO Science and Technology Organization c. Conference of National Armaments Directors d. Air and Space International 8) Australia, Canada, New Zealand, United Kingdom and the United States participate in international standardization forums except which of the following? 15 5) True or False: International agreements are used by the DoD to establish contracts with foreign defense companies. a. True b. False 6) Identify one exchange program that is encompassed under the Defense Personnel Exchange Program (DPEP)? a. Engineer and Scientist Exchange Program (ESEP) b. Cooperative Information Transfer Program c. Exchange of Military Training Program d. Military Armaments Exchange Program 7) What type of functions can Cooperative Program Personnel perform? a. Planning and managing b. Sign contracts for host government c. Information security officer d. Classified document custodian 8) Which of the following describes military or civilian officials of foreign defense establishment who are authorized by their government to act as an official representative of that government in dealing with a DoD Component? a. Foreign Liaison Officers b. Cooperative Program or Project Personnel c. Security Assistance Officers d. Foreign Exchange Officers 9) Which program encourages DoD components to exchange RDT&E information with other nations? a. Defense RDT&E Information Exchange Program b. Defense Support Program c. Security Assistance Program d. Defense Industrial Cooperation Program 10) Which of the following transactions is NOT considered to be an international agreement by DoDD 5530.3? a. Agreements solely to establish administrative procedures b. Agreements that have no cost to the United States c. Secretary of Defense directed programs d. Agreements that are legally binding under international law 11) Which of the following is characteristic of an international agreement? a. Signifies the intention of the parties to be bound in international law b. Describes agreed-to payment terms and monetary exchange rates c. Contracts signed under the Federal Acquisition Regulations d. Concluded with foreign industry e. 12) What is a main focus of the Coalition Warfare Program a. Early identification of coalition solutions to long-term interoperability issues b. Promotion of international RDT&E cooperation c. Constant monitoring conformity with laws and regulation d. Robust cost-savings programs that improves capabilities of the U.S. Warfighter 16 13) Which individual is formally appointed by a DoD Component and designated to control and administer a specific IEP annex? 17 a. Armaments Cooperation Officer b. Security Assistance Officer c. Technical Project Officer d. Foreign Liaison Officer 14) Which of the following is an objective of the Defense RDT&E Information Exchange Program? a. Establish the exchange of technical services b. Define security procedures c. Reduce cost by avoiding duplication of RDT&E d. Influence political developments in foreign nations 15) Which of the following describes a foreign government representative who is assigned to a DoD component pursuant to a requirement that is outlined in a Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA)? a. International Acquisition Officer b. Foreign Liaison Officer c. Cooperative Program or Project Officer d. Defense Acquisition Officer e. 16) Which program assigns U.S. and foreign civilian and military research and development personnel to DoD and foreign RDT&E facilitates? a. Engineer and Scientist Exchange Program b. Defense Leadership Exchange Program c. Military Personnel Exchange Program d. Administrative and Engineer Exchange Program 17) Which of the following describes military or civilian officials assigned to an international program office for a cooperative program to perform managerial, technical, logistics, financial or other functions in support of all participants? a. Foreign Exchange Officers (FEO) b. Foreign Liaison Officers (FLO) c. Cooperative Program or Project Personnel (CPP) d. Engineer and Scientist Exchange Program (ESEP) Officers 18) Which of the following is a benefit of the Foreign Comparative Testing Program? a. Allow access to basic research information b. Allows transfer to proprietary information c. Increases the domestic industrial base d. Avoids research and development costs 19) What is a specific requirement that the International Cooperative R&D program must follow? a. The International Cooperative R&D funds cannot be spent in the United States b. There must be an international agreement defining project specifics c. The project must meet certain interoperability goals established by USD(AT&L) d. It must allow the possibility of operational or intelligence data to be exchanged 20) True or False: DoD 5230.20 States that the terms and conditions for all foreign national assignments to DoD Components shall be established in a legally binding international agreement or annex to such agreement and also provides the FLOs assigned to DoD Components in support of FMS may be assigned under the terms of an LOA or LOA annex. a. True b. False 20 a. Test and Evaluation Program MOU b. Umbrella RDT&E MOU c. Master RDT&E MOU d. Cooperative Development and Test MOU 8) Cooperation during the Engineering and Manufacturing development (EMD) and Production and Deployment phases of an International Cooperative Program would likely be covered by which type of international agreement? a. Program-Specific Defined MOU b. An umbrella MOU c. Program agreement d. Master RDT&E MOU 9) True or False: Equitability is determined by evaluating the participating nation’s financial and non- financial contributions to an International Cooperative Program relative to the benefits received. a. True b. False 10) What is a type of integrated program structure where a legal entity is established through a NATO approved charter that can contract on behalf of the participating nations? a. NATO Agency b. Project Management Office c. International Military Stuff d. North Atlantic Council 11) How are specific projects agreed to under a Master RDT&E MOU? a. Project Agreement or Project Arrangement (PA) b. Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) c. Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA) d. Letter of Intent (LOI) 12) Which of the following does Title 10 U.S.C. 2350a authorize? a. Cooperative production and follow-on support b. Cooperative research, development, test, and evaluation c. Security Assistance Programs d. Dependable Undertakings 13) What is a type of joint program management structure where each participant performs independent work and shares the results under the control of a Steering Group or Committee? a. Decentralized Structure b. International Program Office c. Lead Nation Approach d. Collaborative Program Office 14) What is a feature of the International Cooperative Programs initiated under AECA section 27? a. One-way transfers/grants b. Industry-only relationships c. Full program funding upon MOU signature d. 30-day Congressional notification period 15) Which of the following best describes the United States and another nation jointly managing an effort to 21 satisfy a common requirement by sharing efforts, costs, risks, and benefits through international agreement? 22 a. Multinational Program Management b. International Exchange Program c. Technology Transfer d. International Cooperative Program 16) Which of the following best describes the principle that a participant’s financial and non- financial contributions should be proportionally equal to the benefits it receives from a cooperative project a. Dependable Undertaking b. Project Workshare c. Financial Equitability d. Industrial Participation 17) Which of the following best describes Program-Specific Framework or Umbrella MOUs? a. Uses Project Agreements that are not subject to international agreement review and approval process b. Flexible international agreements that do not require equitable sharing of costs c. Defines details of a Foreign Cooperative Testing Evaluation project d. International agreement developed to support cooperation on a specific acquisition program, technology area, or a broadly defined scope of cooperation 18) What is an attractive feature of conducting a test project under a Test and Evaluation Program (TEP) MOU? a. Foreign disclosure approvals are not required b. Preferred rates with less than full cost recovery c. Testing can be conducted at no cost d. Project Arrangement are not required 19) Which of the following is not a form of international agreement used to support International Cooperative Programs? a. Master RDT&E b. RDT&E Loan Agreement c. Test and Evaluation Program MOU d. Information Exchange Annex 20) True or False: A Project Agreement or Project Arrangement (PA) is subordinate to a master RDT&E MOU and all terms of the MOU apply to the PA. a. True b. False ACQ 120 Lesson 9 1) Which of the following documents is required to request authority to negotiate when using the standard procedures for DoD review and approval of international agreements? a. Technology Assessment/Control Plan b. Statement of Intent c. Letter of Intent d. Case Act Report 2) What delegations are provided to the Defense Security Cooperation Agency for international 25 10) True or False: A Financial Management Procedures Document is prepared by the participating nations on an International Cooperative Program to explain how funds will be transferred and when payments need to be made. a. True b. False 11) How many days prior to authorizing an agreement is DoD required to notify Congress for international agreements conducted under Arms Export Control Act Section 27 authority? a. 90 Days b. 30 Days c. 15 Days d. 60 Days 12) Which of the following is a step in the standard procedures for DoD review and approval of international agreements? a. Recognition of Delegation b. Authority of Negotiate c. Department of State approval d. Receipt of Memorandum of Understanding 13) True or False: USD(AT&L) has been delegated authority to authorize international agreements for Security Assistance including coproduction programs. a. True b. False ACQ 120 Lesson 10 1) Which of the following is an eligibility requirement for sales or leases of defense articles or services under Section 3 of the Arms Export Control Act? a. Furnishing the defense articles and services must strengthen U.S. security and promote world peace b. Recipient country must pay cash in advance for all articles or services c. Recipient country agrees to periodic inspection of their defense articles by the United Nations d. Secretary of Defense national interest determination 2) Which DoD agency performs contract administration and management, quality assurance, and inspections for both the DoD and foreign customers? a. Defense Contract Management Agency b. Defense Security Cooperation Agency c. Defense Contract Audit Agency d. Defense Logistics Agency 3) Which of the following is true about international weapons competitions? a. Foreign nations often compete weapon system procurements b. Foreign nations must pursue a sole source acquisition strategy c. The United States restricts its offers to a single proposal d. The United States does not participate in international weapons competitions 4) True or False: The U.S. Government is bound to honor commitments made by industry on DCS programs. a. True b. False 26 5) True or False: A Letter of Request (LOR) is submitted by the Implementing Agency for the foreign customer in the format prescribed by the Security Assistance Management Manual (SAMM). a. False b. True 6) True or False: A Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA) is an offer from the U.S. Government to sell defense articles and services through Foreign Military Sales (FMS). a. False b. True 7) True or False: Technology Security and Foreign Disclosure (TS&FD) must be addressed prior to providing P&A data or offering an LOA. a. True b. False 8) True or False: Blanket order cases are often used for spare and repair parts, support equipment, supplies, maintenance, technical assistance, publications, and training aids. a. False b. True 9) True or False: An FMS case manager’s role ends before case closure when the purchased articles are delivered or the services are provided. a. False b. True 10) Which of the following governs DoD acquisition and program management activities on FMS programs? a. DoD 5000-Series Directives and Instructions b. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) c. Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution System (PPBES) d. FMS contracting regulations issued by the State Department 11) True or False: On FMS and DCS hybrid programs it is important to clearly define integration responsibilities to manage program risk. a. False b. True 12) True or False: Reconciliation should not begin until all deliveries under an FMS case have been completed. a. True b. False 13) True or False: Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs are initiated when the foreign government submits a Letter of Request (LOR) to an Implementing Agency. a. True b. False 14) Which of the following best reflects the DoD position on Foreign Military Sales (FMS) versus Direct Commercial Sales (DCS) a. DoD is generally neutral b. DoD prefers International Cooperative Programs c. DoD strongly supports FMS d. DoD generally prefers DCS 15) Which of the following is true for Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs? a. Customer initiates through Letter of Request b. Customer signs the Pseudo LOA 27 c. Foreign government is responsible for all costs d. Programs are executed through Security Assistance automated systems 30 d. Letter of Offer and Acceptance 25) True or False: Effective FMS case reconciliation can return surplus funds to the customer for other projects and purposes. a. True b. False 26) Which of the following statements about a Letter of Request (LOR) is true? a. Contains and overview of the customer’s procurement plans b. Prepared in a format prescribed by the Security Cooperation Organization c. Requires cooperation surveys to understand customer requirements d. Can be used to request Price and Availability Data or a Letter of Offer and Acceptance 27) What is one way authorized by Arms Export Control Act for a foreign country or international organization to purchase U.S. defense articles or services? a. Industrial offsets b. International arms transfer c. Third Party procurement d. Direct Commercial sales 28) Which DoD agency augments the domestic infrastructure to support the unique functions required to conduct Security Assistance and Building Partner Capacity programs by allocating FMS administrative surcharge funds? a. Defense Security Cooperation Agency b. Defense Contract Audit Agency c. Defense Contract Management Agency d. Defense Logistics Agency 29) Which of the following is a program management consideration on FMS programs? a. Contracting actions are conducted in accordance with FMS Contracting Regulation b. Relevant principles of the DoD 5000-series directives and instructions apply c. Requirements are determined through the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) d. Funds are provided through the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution system 30) True or False: In Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs during the Planning and Requirements Definition phase a U.S. Government Requesting Authority submits an actionable Memorandum of Request (MOR) to an Implementing Agency a. True b. False 31) Which of the following best describes AECA Section 21 Sales from stock a. President may direct cost-free transfer of Excess Defense Articles b. President may enter into contracts for the procurement of defense articles or services c. President may sell defense articles and services from stocks of DoD and U.S. Coast Guard d. President is authorized to finance the procurement of defense articles and services 32) What is the type of FMS case used for sale of items that require item by item foreign disclosure and security control a. Cooperative Logistics Supply Support Arrangement b. Blanket Order Case c. Weapon system design case 31 d. Defined Order case 32 applicable laws and 33) Who is the DoD individual for all aspect of assigned FMS cases in compliance with regulations a. Program Executive Officer (PEO) b. Implementing Agency Case Manager c. DSCS County Director d. Integrated Product Team (IPT) Chief 34) Which activity occurs in the preliminary stage of the FMS case development process? a. Customer initiates working agreements with supporting activities b. Customer requests an administrative surcharge waiver c. Customer signs LOA by Offer Expiration Date d. Customer conducts a threat analysis and researches options and sources ACQ 120 Lesson 11 1) True or False: In Building Partner Capacity (BPC) programs during the Planning and Requirements Definition phase a U.S. Government Requesting Authority submits an actionable Memorandum of Request (MOR) to an Implementing Agency. a. True b. False 2) Which of the following sets of actions correctly defines major Security Assistance functions of SCOs? a. Training management and program monitoring b. FMS program management and intelligence collection c. Training management and operational testing d. LOA preparation and intelligence collection 3) True or False: SCOs assist the DoD acquisition workforce in identifying and making recommendations on cooperative opportunities with the host nation. a. True b. False 4) With which embassy official does the SCO work with to enhance U.S. trade? a. Commercial Attache b. Defense Attache c. Public Affairs Office d. U.S. Trade Representative 5) Select the statement that best describes a SCO duty. a. The SCO brokers information exchanges that enhance interoperability for future combined operations b. The SCO shields the U.S. from access to host nation decision-makers c. The SCO reduces U.S. industry access to the host nation defense market d. The SCO vets and rejects U.S. visas for international military students 6) The SCO participates as a member of the embassy country team, headed by which of the following Individuals? a. Ambassador/Chief of Mission b. Defense Attaché c. Political Military Officer 35 countries d. ISO 9000 Agreements and Procurement Quality Assurance Agreements 36 4) True or False: Contracting officer participation is not necessary in P&A data or LOA preparation and begins when the Request for Proposal is issued. a. True b. False 5) What document defines the process for DoD consideration of foreign government sole source requests based on the objective needs of the purchaser? a. Security Assistance Management Manual b. DoDI 5000.02 c. Letter of Offer and Acceptance d. Defense Acquisition Guidebook 6) The senior leadership of which of the following OSD organizations encourages the acquisition community to actively seek opportunities for customer participation in FMS acquisitions? a. DSCA and DPAP b. DPAP and MILDEPs c. DPAP and DTSA d. DSCA and State Department 7) On an International Cooperative Program for another country to contract on behalf of the U.S., what type of approval is required? a. Determination and Finding (D&F) b. Justification and Approval (J&A) c. Reciprocal Defense Procurement (RDP) MOU d. Government Quality Assurance (GQA) agreement 8) True or False: On International Cooperative Programs the DoD seeks best value procurement without guarantees of specific workshare but if needed will work to attain equitable worksharing. a. True b. False 9) To address some domestic preference restrictions while meeting DoD procurement needs, the DoD enters into what type of pact with other nations? a. Reciprocal Defense Procurement Agreements b. Foreign Military Sales Cases c. Cooperative RDT&E MOUs d. NATO Weapons System Partnership 10) Which of the following statement is correct? a. Offset agreements are between the U.S. Government and the foreign purchaser b. U.S. industry may recover offset cost on FMS contracts c. Presidential policy allows executive branch agencies to agree to offset arrangements on an International Cooperative Program d. U.S. law forbids industry from entering into offset agreements 11) Based on the Buy American Act (BAA), for a DoD contract, the cost of domestic components must exceed what minimum percentage of the cost of all components to be considered a domestic end product? a. 80% b. 50% 37 c. 20% d. 75% 40 ACQ 120 Lesson 14 1) All of the following are systems engineering activities or design considerations that have important effects on international acquisition programs except? a. Conducting a cooperative opportunity analysis b. Development of a list of known or probable Critical Program Information (CPI) and potential countermeasures c. Use of open systems design across the acquisition life cycle d. Pursuit of opportunities throughout the acquisition life cycle that enhance allied interoperability 2) Information that if compromised could cause significant degradation in mission effectiveness; shorten the expected combat-effective life of a system; reduce technological advantage; significantly alter program direction; or enable an adversary to defeat, counter, copy, or reverse engineer the technology or capability describes what type of information? a. Critical Program Information b. Export Controlled Information c. Classified Information d. Not Releasable to Foreign Nationals (NOFORN) Information 3) Which of the following is a program manager responsibility for anti-tamper (AT) measures? [Identify program manager responsibilities for anti-tamper.] a. Implement AT measures and plan for verification and validation b. Construct and maintain AT technology roadmaps c. Establish and maintain the AT technology database d. Identify and develop new and innovative AT technologies 4) A Letter of Offer and Acceptance (LOA) that includes any weapon systems or components that contain CPI may not be offered until what condition exists? a. The DoD ATEA has issued written approval of the AT plan b. The DoD ATEA has waived all AT requirements c. DSCA has issued written approval of the AT plan d. DSCA has waived all AT requirements 5) What is the name of the pilot program established to develop and incorporate technology protection features into a system or subsystem during its research and development phase? a. Defense Exportability Features b. Defense Technological Export Features c. Defense Technology Protection Program d. National Defense Exportability Program 6) When preparing design-to-specifications for a system, program personnel should identify International Standardization Agreements (ISAs) that meet which of the following requirements a. Ratified by the United Sates that are applicable to the program b. Ratified by NATO that apply only to the exportable items the program will develop for NATO allies c. Ratified by NATO that are applicable to the program d. Developed by the United States that are applicable to the program 7) System Security Engineering (SSE) should include an assessment of security criteria that sets limits on 41 what types of programs? 42 a. International Cooperative Programs, Foreign Military Sales (FMS), and Direct Commercial Sales (DCS) b. FMS and DCS Program c. ICR&D Program and CWP d. International Standardization and FMS programs 8) Which of the following is a program manager responsibility for anti-tamper (AT) measures? a. Inspect FMS items to ensure product integrity during transit b. Approve the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) prepared AT recommendations c. Include AT requirements in program budgets and plans d. Advise the foreign customer of AT risks 9) When preparing a response to a Letter of Request (LOR) for weapon systems or components containing CPI, the implementing agency must coordinate with the DoD Anti-Tamper Executive Agent (ATEA) for what reason? a. To ensure that waivers to AT implementation policies are obtained in a timely manner b. To ensure that AT techniques are fully explained to the FMS customer c. To ensure that sensitive technology or program information is defended against unlawful exploitation or loss and that an approved AT plans is in place d. To ensure that sensitive technology or program information is not included in the end item 10) What is the primary objective of the International Standardization Program? a. Establish procedures for multinational military exercises b. Establish, operate, and administer the NATO Interoperability Council c. Promote the use and implementation of standardization as one of the essential elements to interoperability with allies and partners d. Publish and distribute standards for weapons system logistics support LESSON 15 1) What are three general categories of information that require protection on international acquisition programs? a. Foreign Government Information, Classified Information, and Controlled Unclassified Information b. Personnel Reliability Program Information, Foreign Government Information, and Controlled Unclassified Information c. Foreign Government Information, NATO Restricted documents, and Personnel Reliability Program Information d. Personnel Reliability Program Information, Classified Information, and NATO Restricted documents 2) True or False: In making an access decision prior to the release of U.S. defense articles or controlled information it must be determined that the proposed transfer is in the best interest of the United States and supports U.S. foreign policy and national security interests. a. False b. True 3) The body responsible for balancing technology security considerations and building allied and partner 45 c. Foreign Disclosure Agent d. Technology Disclosure Officer 46 11) What are the two principle export licensing authorities in the U.S. Government? a. State Department and Commerce Department b. Defense Department and Treasury Department c. State Department and Defense Department d. Defense Department and Department of Homeland Security 12) Unclassified information to which access or distribution controls have been applied in accordance with national laws and regulations is known as a. Controlled Unclassified Information b. Unclassified but Sensitive Information c. Confidential Unclassified Information d. For Official Use Only Information