Multiple Choice Questions on Exercise Science and Personal Training, Exams of Nursing

Download Multiple Choice Questions on Exercise Science and Personal Training and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! ACSM CPT Exam Review| 208 Questions| WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS What is the function of the tricuspid valve? A. It acts as a pacemaker. B. To pump blood through the heart. C. Prevents backflow of blood to the left atrium. D. Prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium. correct answer: Answer: D What is the fundamental unit of muscle contraction? A. Myofibril B. Sarcomere C. Myosin D. Sarcolemma correct answer: Answer: B Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body? A. Right ventricle B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Left atrium correct answer: Answer: B What is the natural curve in the lumbar region of the spine? A. Kyphotic curve B. Scoliotic curve C. Lordotic curve D. Myotic curve correct answer: Answer: C Adenosine triphosphate production via "anaerobic" glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product? A. Pyruvic Acid B. Phosphoric Acid C. Citric Acid D. Lactic Acid correct answer: Answer: D The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in _____. A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter. B. muscle fiber number. C. connective tissue thickness. D. hydration state of the muscle. correct answer: Answer: A Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle groups? A. Hamstrings B. Gastrocnemius C. Brachioradialis D. Quadriceps femoris correct answer: Answer: D What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive individual? A. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase. B. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease. C. Systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged. D. Systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged. correct answer: Answer: B How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise? How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise? A. Exponentially B. Linearly C. Curvilinearly D. Inversely correct answer: Answer: B Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining? A. One intensive day followed by three easy days. B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days. C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day. correct answer: Answer: C What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle? A. Absence of striations B. Presence of branching C. Requires nervous system stimulation D. Presence of intercalated disks correct answer: Answer: C What is the correct path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart? A. Left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle. B. Right ventricle; right atrium; left atrium; left ventricle. C. Left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle. D. Right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle. correct answer: Answer: D What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration? A. External intercostals B. Pectoralis minor C. Sternocleidomastoid D. Internal intercostals correct answer: Answer: D Which of the following occurs when walking or running up an incline? A. Greater flexibility of the soleus Which of the following best describes the symptoms that occur at 24-48 hours after a single bout of intensive exercise? A. Delayed onset muscle strain. B. Acute onset muscle strain. C. Delayed onset muscle soreness. D. Acute onset muscle soreness. correct answer: Answer: C Which principle of training best describes a previously active client, who has been ill and bedridden for a prolonged period of time? A. Overload B. Specificity C. Reversibility D. Progression correct answer: Answer: C If you are palpating the thumb side of the forearm in the wrist area, what pulse are you checking? A. Humeral B. Ulnar C. Brachial D. Radial correct answer: Answer: D What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior? A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx. B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral. D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx. correct answer: Answer: D Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings? A. Gastrocnemius B. Iliopsoas C. Gracilis D. Sartorius correct answer: Answer: B Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity? A. The muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood. B. Total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise. C. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase. D. The amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of breathing. correct answer: Answer: B As the intensity of dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs? A. Heart rate, systolic blood pressure, and diastolic blood pressure increase. B. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged. C. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, stroke volume and cardiac output remain the same. D. Stroke volume decreases, heart rate and cardiac output increase. correct answer: Answer: B From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______: A. bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi B. posterior deltoid C. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii D. middle deltoid. correct answer: Answer: D What is the major muscle used to flex the hip joint? A. Vastus lateralis B. Iliopsoas C. Biceps femoris D. Gluteus maximus correct answer: Answer: B A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the following describes the muscle action during the extension? A. Isotonic concentric B. Isotonic eccentric C. Isokinetic concentric D. Isokinetic eccentric correct answer: Answer: B Type II muscle fibers: A. Have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system. B. Have a high capacity to generate energy from fat. C. Are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers. D. Have high endurance capabilities. correct answer: Answer: C Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise? A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload. B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases. C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or decreases slightly. D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the increase in intensity. correct answer: Answer: C Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm? A. Infraspinatus B. Supraspinatus C. Subscapularis D. Medial deltoid correct answer: Answer: B Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production? A. ATP-CP B. Rapid glycolysis C. Slow glycolysis D. Oxidative phosphorylation correct answer: Answer: D What plane divides the body into upper and lower sections? A. Sagittal B. Frontal C. Transverse D. Median correct answer: Answer: C When performing neck flexion in the sagittal plane, which of the following exercises best mimics that movement? A. Cartwheel B. Somersault C. Bicep curl D. Leg curl correct answer: Answer: B Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate? A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes correct answer: Answer: C Typical movements in the weight room such as a biceps curl using free weights and leg press actions using a machine are best described as ____________ muscle actions. A. plyometric B. isokinetic C. ballistic D. isotonic correct answer: Answer: D The latissimus dorsi acts as the prime mover during the concentric phase of which of the following exercises? A. lat pulldown B. flat bench press C. lateral raise D. incline bench press correct answer: Answer: A Which of the following bones facilitate movement of the chest during both inspiration and expiration? A. clavicle B. scapula A 35 year-old male client has a goal of completing a sprint distance triathlon. The certified Personal Trainer prescribes an exercise regimen of swimming 2 days per week, running 3 days per week, and bicycling 2 days per week. What training principle is being used? A. Reversibility B. Overload C. Progression D. Specificity correct answer: Answer: D What are the FITTE Factors? A. Frequency, injury, time, type, enjoyment B. Frequency, intensity, total, type, exercise C. Frequency, intensity, total, type, equipment D. Frequency, intensity, time, type, enjoyment correct answer: Answer: D Why is a cool-down period important? A. Prevents heat stroke B. Helps prevent injuries C. Reduces brain blood flow back to normal D. Returns pooled blood back to central circulation correct answer: Answer: D Which of the following is NOT a principle of training? A. Overload B. Specificity C. Reversibility D. Concentration correct answer: Answer: D What is the first phase of an annual training cycle? A. Transition B. Off-season C. Preparatory D. Competition correct answer: Answer: C What is a function of the hamstring muscles? A. Hip flexors B. Hip extensors C. Plantar flexors D. Knee extensors correct answer: Answer: B What method of training combines a routine of alternating cardiovascular exercises with resistance training exercises? A. Circuit training B. Interval training C. Split routine training D. Periodization training correct answer: Answer: A What resistance training method is described by a light to heavy or heavy to light progression of sets? A. Pyramid B. Superset C. Negative set D. Volume training correct answer: Answer: A What resistance training method is being used when the client is performing a set of bicep curls immediately followed by triceps pushdowns? A. Pyramid B. Supersets C. Plyometrics D. Split routine correct answer: Answer: B Together, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the American College of Sports Medicine recommend that every US adult should accumulate _____ minutes or more of moderateintensity physical activity on most, preferably all days of the week. A. 15 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60 correct answer: Answer: C What is the predominant factor causing increases in strength during the initial weeks of training? A. Changes in whole muscle cross-sectional area B. Increases in overall limb circumference C. Improvements in neuromuscular adaptation D. Increases in muscle-fiber cross-sectional area correct answer: Answer: C Which of the following exercise program variables describes a change in intensity? A. Changing activity from treadmill to stair-stepper. B. Increasing a treadmill incline by five degrees. C. Increasing the number of workout days from two to three per week. D. Increasing treadmill running time from 20 to 30 minutes. correct answer: Answer: B What happens to the muscle during isometric tension development? A. Shortening of the muscle B. Lengthening of the muscle C. No change in the length of the muscle D. Relaxation of the muscle correct answer: Answer: C Which of the following is the most important exercise to include in an overall training plan for an apparently healthy automobile mechanic who performs daily overhead movements? A. Lat pulldown B. Upright Row C. Tricep extension D. Shoulder press correct answer: Answer: D A client's workout record shows changes in exercise volume and intensity over time. What training concept is being demonstrated? A. Specificity B. Overtraining C. Reversibility D. Periodization correct answer: Answer: D When performing a seated leg extension, which muscle group is the primary antagonist during the concentric phase? A. Hamstrings B. Quadriceps C. Hip extensors D. Back extensors correct answer: Answer: A What position should women in their second or third trimester of pregnancy avoid when performing exercise? A. Prone B. Supine C. On their side D. On all fours (hands and knees) correct answer: Answer: B What is the suggested order of an exercise session? A. Stretch, warm-up, endurance phase, cool-down B. Warm-up, endurance phase, cool-down, stretch C. Stretch, endurance phase, warm-up, cool-down D. Warm-up, endurance phase, stretch, cool-down correct answer: Answer: B What does it mean if a specific activity is contraindicated? A. Perform less-intensively than normal B. Do not perform it as often C. Perform it slower than normal D. Do not perform at all correct answer: Answer: D Which of the following statements is true regarding exercise for the prepubescent child? A. Children are less tolerant of heat because of a higher threshold for sweating. B. Since children are anatomically immature, they should not participate in any form of resistance training exercise. C. Because of the lack of development of the epiphyseal growth plates, children should not participate in any form of endurance training. Which of the following is the correct energy expenditure in METs associated with an exercise oxygen uptake of 28 ml''kg-1''min-1? A. 8 B. 10 C. 98 D. 112 correct answer: Answer: A What of the following is the formula for calculating the heart rate reserve? A. 220, minus the age of the client B. 220, minus the resting heart rate C. Client's maximum heart rate, minus their resting heart rate D. Client's maximum heart rate, minus their age correct answer: Answer: C What is the minimum duration of an intermittent bout of aerobic activity that may be accumulated throughout the day? A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 30 minutes correct answer: Answer: A Case study: A new client who has been resistance training for 6 months, comes to you with a goal of increasing muscular size. Following health appraisal and fitness testing including a modified 1 RM test, you design a program to meet the client's goal. Which of the following regimens best defines an appropriate plan to achieve this client's goal? A. 4-6 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 85% 1 RM B. 1-3 sets of 10-15 repetitions at 75% 1 RM C. 4-6 sets of 10-15 repetitions at 60% 1 RM D. 1-3 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 60% 1 RM correct answer: Answer: A A client who wants to strengthen muscles of the chest must perform exercises such as the bench press and dumbbell flys as opposed to lat pull down and dumbbell rows. Which of the following principles of training best describes this principle? A. Overload B. Specificity C. Progression D. Goal setting correct answer: Answer: B The Valsalva maneuver may elicit which of the following physiological responses during the concentric phase of a resistance training repetition? A. Increased intrathoracic pressure and decreased heart rate B. Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased heart rate C. Increased intrathoracic pressure and increased systolic blood pressure D. Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure correct answer: Answer: C Which of the following is the term used for a training regimen that begins with rapid eccentric muscle action followed by concentric action of the same muscle? A. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation B. Plyometrics C. Dynamic Activity Preparation D. Progression correct answer: Answer: B Which of the following indicate the appropriate height range for performing depth jump training effectively and safely? A. 16 to 42 inches (41 to 107 cm) B. 24 to 48 inches (61 to 122 cm) C. 32 to 60 inches (81 to 152 cm) D. 40 to 60 inches (102 to 152 cm) correct answer: Answer: A Case Study: Your new client is a 38-year old female that wants to be able to participate in a 3- day charity walk. Her ultimate goal is to gradually improve her cardiovascular fitness. Which of the following exercise programs should you initially prescribe to best meet your client's needs? A. 3-5 days a week, 20-60 minutes in duration, 40-85% HRR B. 3-5 days a week, progressing from 1-3 hours in duration, 60-85% HRR C. 5-7 days a week, 20-60 minutes in duration, 35-50% HRR D. 5-7 days a week, progressing from 1-3 hours in duration, 35-50% correct answer: Answer: A Case Study: A female client expresses an interest in joining a recreational crew team. She hires you to train her to withstand the demands of the sport. You design a resistance training program that includes low reps, 4-6 sets of high intensity squats and seated row within a comprehensive resistance training program. You gradually increase her sets and load/intensity. In addition, you have included sprints and long distance swimming in her overall program plan. Which of the following training principles have you incorporated? A. specificity, reversibility and variation B. overload, adaptability and strength C. specificity, overload and variation D. overload, strength and specificity correct answer: Answer: C With respect to the exercise prescription for children (defined as < 13 years), it can be said that _____. A. adult guidelines for resistance training can generally be applied B. treadmill exercise is not a suitable mode of testing C. exercise should be limited to 3-4 d '' wk-1 D. vigorous activity should be avoided in this population correct answer: Answer: A An exercise prescription for your pregnant client should include _____. A. exercise occurring no more than three times per week B. avoidance of moderate intensity resistance training C. dynamic, rhythmic activities that use the large muscle groups D. team sports such as basketball, soccer, and racquet sports correct answer: Answer: C Which of the following statements is correct regarding the warm-up and cool-down components of the exercise training session? A. Warm-up should last twice as long as cool-down. B. Cool-down should approximate an intensity that is between 40 and 60% of VO2R C. Warm-up need not involve cardiorespiratory activity if the conditioning phase of the exercise session involves resistance training. D. Cool-down during the exercise session can be eliminated if at least 10 minutes of stretching is performed instead. correct answer: Answer: B Neural mechanisms responsible for adaptations in strength and power include all of the following EXCEPT an increased _____. A. motor unit recruitment B. antagonist muscle coactivation C. motor unit firing rate D. fast-twitch fiber recruitment correct answer: Answer: B General guidelines to follow when prescribing resistance training exercise to the client with arthritis include which of the following? A. regimens with a frequency of 2-3 days per week B. intensities that never exceed body weight C. regimens with a frequency of no more than once per week D. machine (as opposed to free weight) modes only correct answer: Answer: A Which of the following factors affect intensity of lower body plyometric drills? A. speed, height of the drill, and body weight B. speed, range of motion, and reaction time C. strength of the athlete, points of contact, and flexibility D. strength of the athlete, height of the drill, and reaction time correct answer: Answer: A Which of the following indicates the correct order for a traditional periodization program for resistance training? A. hypertrophy, peaking, strength/power, recovery B. strength/power, peaking, recovery, hypertrophy C. strength/power, hypertrophy, recovery, peaking D. hypertrophy, strength/power, peaking, recovery correct answer: Answer: D "I have been thinking about starting an exercise program, but there never seems to be enough time," is an example of which stage in the Transtheoretical Model? A. Preparation B. Contemplation C. Precontemplation client who has a blood pressure of 150/70 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 240 mg/dL (6.2 mmol/L)? A. No risk B. Low risk C. Moderate risk D. High risk correct answer: Answer: C What risk stratification would physician supervision be recommended during exercise testing? A. Low risk, max testing B. Low risk, submax testing C. Moderate risk, submax testing D. High risk, submax testing correct answer: Answer: D What does waist to hip ratio assess? A. Frame size B. Weight relative to height C. Distribution of body weight D. The amount of subcutaneous fat correct answer: Answer: C Your new client is a 42 year old male who is a stock broker. His health history revealed the following: total cholesterol 185 mg/dL (4.7 mmol/L) , HDL 32 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), LDL 110 mg/dL (2.8 mmol/L), resting blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg, waist circumference 98 centimeters. What is his initial risk stratification? A. Low risk B. Moderate risk C. High risk D. Only a physician can determine this clients risk stratification correct answer: Answer: A Who should obtain a physician's clearance before starting an exercise program? A. Every individual who is beginning an exercise program. B. Sedentary individuals who are going to perform vigorous exercise. C. Those who are considered low risk and perform only moderate exercise. D. Men who are younger than 45 years of age and women who are younger than 55 years of age. correct answer: Answer: B A sedentary 48 year old male with controlled hypertension has hired you to assist him with beginning a marathon training program. Which level of pre-participation screening must a certified Personal Trainer require? A. Medical health history questionnaire only. B. PAR-Q form would be adequate information to begin. C. No screening is needed as he is considered low risk due to his age. D. Medical examination performed by his physician before he begins. correct answer: Answer: D The risk of developing a myocardial infarction increases when there is a family history of myocardial infarction or sudden death before the ages of: A. 50 years of age in a first-degree female relative; 60 years of age in a first-degree male relative B. 50 years of age in any male relative; 60 years of age in any female relative C. 55 years of age in a first-degree male relative; 65 years of age in a first-degree female relative D. 55 years of age in any male relative; 65 years of age in any female relative correct answer: Answer: C What is the standard site for the measurement of the subscapular skinfold? A. Directly over the inferior angle of the scapula. B. One centimeter below the inferior angle of the scapula. C. Five centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula. D. Five centimeters to the left of the inferior angle of the scapula. correct answer: Answer: B What are the most commonly used modes for cardiovascular exercise testing? A. Treadmill, cycle ergometer, and stair climber B. Treadmill, cycle ergometer, and bench stepping C. Treadmill, rowing ergometer, and bench stepping D. Treadmill, cycle ergometer, and rowing ergometer. correct answer: Answer: B 0Mr. Smith wishes to enroll in your exercise program. Preliminary evaluation revealed the following information: Age = 50 years Resting heart rate = 78 beats/min Weight = 198 lb (90 kg) Resting blood pressure = 162/94 mm Hg Height = 70 inches (178 cm) Body fat = 30% Blood chemistry: Total cholesterol = 240 mg/dl (6.21 mmol/L) HDL cholesterol = 34 mg/dl (0.88 mmol/L) Triglycerides = 180 mg/dl (2.03 mmol/L) Glucose = 98 mg/dl (5.55 mmol/L) Family history and current habits: Father died of heart attack at 90 years of age Hypertensive mother died at age 84 Smokes a pipe after dinner each evening Smokes cigarettes (25-30 per day) Reports too much work and is struggling to meet deadlines Currently doing moderate exercise No medications at present According to ACSM stratification guidelines, Mr. Smith has which of the following coronary artery disease risk factors? A. Hypertension, obesity, high total cholesterol:HDL ratio. B. Smoking, probable diabetes, high blood pressure. C. Smoking, high total cholesterol, aggressive type A personality. D. Hypertension, high total cholesterol, smoking. correct answer: Answer: D If a 50 year old male checked a "yes" response on his PAR-Q, what is the next step for his certified Personal Trainer? A. Administer fitness test and begin program B. Refer client to his physician C. Discuss health history and begin program D. Recommend a maximal stress test correct answer: Answer: B Of the nine possible skinfold sites, which three sites are measured on a diagonal fold? A. Chest, subscapular, medial calf B. Midaxillary, suprailiac, chest C. Chest, subscapular, suprailiac D. Midaxillary, subscapular, suprailiac correct answer: Answer: C What is the difference between absolute and relative contraindication? A. Relative contraindications are acute where absolute contraindications are chronic. B. Absolute contraindications consist of risk/benefit analysis whereas relative contraindications do not. C. Absolute contraindications prevent the individual from participating in some testing and participation whereas relative contraindications do not allow any participation in exercise testing or prescription. D. Absolute contraindications prevent the individual from any/all exercise testing correct answer: Answer: D What is the appropriate sequence for fitness testing? A. Flexibility, cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular fitness, body composition B. Cardiorespiratory endurance, flexibility, muscular fitness, body composition C. Body composition, cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular fitness, flexibility D. Body composition, flexibility, cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular fitness correct answer: Answer: C What factors should be taken into account when determining appropriate exercise test and mode? A. Age, health history, lifestyle B. Age, health history, gender C. Health history, lifestyle, occupation D. Health history, gender, lifestyle correct answer: Answer: A What is the anatomical reference for the waist circumference measurement? A. The maximal circumference between the chest to just below the gluteal fold. B. Two centimeters below the umbilicus. C. Narrowest part of the torso, above the umbilicus, and below the xiphoid process. For the comparison of body mass index (BMI) and plethysmography body composition assessment techniques, which of the following statements is correct? A. Plethysmography is inferior to BMI because of the difficulties associated with determination of lung volume. B. BMI is inferior to plethysmography because it does not account for lean/fat mass in its calculation. C. Plethysmography is superior to BMI because it accounts for the hydration state of the client. D. BMI is superior to plethysmography because its standard error of estimate for predicting percent body fat is usually lower. correct answer: Answer: B Which of the following circumference sites are used to compute a waist-to-hip ratio? A. Abdomen, suprailiac B. Midaxillary, hips/thigh C. Waist, buttocks/hips D. Midaxillary, suprailiac correct answer: Answer: C As described by the American College of Sports Medicine, proper technique during the push-up test involves _____. A. timing the number of push-ups performed in two minutes B. requiring both female and male subjects to use the toes as the pivotal point of movement C. allowing a slight (20'') elbow flexion at the "top" of the movement D. stopping the test when the subject strains forcibly correct answer: Answer: D Your client is wearing a heart rate monitor while performing a 1.5 mile run to assess aerobic capacity. During the test, your client reaches 85% of her age-predicted heart rate maximum. With this information, you should _____. A. continue the test until she reaches 100% of her age-predicted heart rate maximum B. terminate the test for safety purposes C. continue the test if there is otherwise no reason to believe that the client has reached aerobic capacity D. terminate the test if you continue to observe a steady increase in heart rate with increasing workload correct answer: Answer: C What is the correct hand placement when spotting the dumbbell fly exercise? A. Close to your clients biceps without touching them. B. Close to the dumbbells or wrists of your client without touching them. C. Maintaining contact behind your clients elbows on the descent of the dumbbells. D. Hands held at your sides in a ready position, with your elbows flexed at a 45-degree angle. correct answer: Answer: B What is the correct spotting technique for the barbell flat bench press? A. Keep your hands on the client's elbows. B. Keep both hands on the bar at all times. C. Keep your hands close to the bar without touching it. D. Hands held at your sides in a ready position, with your elbows flexed at a 45-degree angle. correct answer: Answer: C What is the correct spotting technique of the seated barbell shoulder press? A. Keep hands in an alternate grip position on the bar. B. Wrap your arms around and underneath your client's arms. C. Keep hands underneath your client's elbows and assist only when necessary. D. Keep hands in an alternate grip position close to the bar, and assist only when necessary. correct answer: Answer: D Which of the following exercises is contraindicated by the American College of Sports Medicine? A. Pelvic tilt B. Trunk extensions C. Seated hip/trunk flexion D. Unsupported hip/trunk flexion correct answer: Answer: D What exercise should be avoided for a person suffering from shoulder impingement syndrome? A. Lateral raise B. Seated row C. Overhead press D. Bench press correct answer: Answer: C For your client who is training outside in 90''F (32''C) weather at a moderate intensity, how often should they drink water? A. Once every 15 minutes. B. Once every 30 minutes. C. Once every 60 minutes. D. Only when they are thirsty. correct answer: Answer: A The recommended initial treatment for an acute joint injury is the application of which of the following? A. Compression combined with short intervals of cold and heat. B. Elevation and heat. C. Compression and heat. D. Compression and cold. correct answer: Answer: D What is the correct spotting technique for the barbell lunge? A. Keep hands close to client's hips/waist or torso at all times. B. Keep hands near the barbell. C. Place arms underneath your client's arms. D. Keep hands on client's hips/waist or torso at all times. correct answer: Answer: A Which of the following recommendations would you make to your client who plans on playing tennis on a very hot and humid afternoon? A. Consume 2 - 3 salt tablets per hour. B. Consume 2 - 3 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight. C. Consume fluids at temperatures of 15 to 22.2 degrees Celsius (59-72 degrees Fahrenheit). D. Consume 5 - 6 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight. correct answer: Answer: C In which of the following scenarios should an Automated External Defibrillator (AED) be used? A. Conscious or unconscious client with shortness of breath B. Unconscious client with a pulse C. Conscious client with chest pain D. Unconscious client without a pulse correct answer: Answer: D Which four extrinsic risk factors may be associated with an increased risk of musculoskeletal injury ? A. Restricted range of motion, previous injury, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment B. Adverse environmental conditions, muscle weakness and imbalance, body composition, faulty equipment C. Excessive Load on the body, training errors, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment D. Bony alignment abnormalities, joint laxity, training errors, faulty equipment correct answer: Answer: C A client at your fitness center complains of a headache and seems disoriented. He appears ashen and has moist, cold skin. You know from his health history that he has Type II diabetes. Which of the following steps do you take after you call for medical assistance? A. Administer insulin. B. Administer sugar. C. Administer water. D. Administer nothing'' wait until emergency medical services arrive. correct answer: Answer: B What is a warning sign of anorexia nervosa? A. Eating when depressed B. Prefering to eat in isolation C. Visits to the bathroom following meals D. Frequent gains and losses in body weight correct answer: Answer: B What is the equivalent of 2.5 pounds (1.13 kg) of body fat in kilocalories? A. 5250 kilocalories B. 7000 kilocalories C. 8000 kilocalories D. 8750 kilocalories correct answer: Answer: D Individuals participating in a non-medically based supervised weight loss program should reduce their caloric intake by _____ kilocalories per day, and reduce their dietary fat intake to less than A. The bar is sweetened with a disaccharide. B. Fructose in this bar would give it a high glycemic index. C. The bar is sweetened with a monosaccharide. D. Fructose is a type of organic micronutrient. correct answer: Answer: C According to the current (2005) Dietary Guidelines for Americans: A. people over the age of 50 better absorb vitamin B12 in comparison to children and other adults B. non-heme (plant) sources of iron are richer than heme (animal) sources of iron for women of childbearing age C. women of child-bearing age who may become pregnant require a higher daily intake of folic acid than the pregnant female D. the elderly and individuals with dark skin are at greater risk of low vitamin D concentrations than other populations correct answer: Answer: D Which of the following statements about dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is correct? A. The body does not produce DHEA. B. DHEA has been shown to improve body composition and physical performance in most elderly men and women. C. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has classified DHEA as a controlled drug. D. DHEA has no potential influence on testosterone production by both men and women. correct answer: Answer: C What term best describes accurate record keeping, a safe exercise environment, and proper supervision? A. Risk management B. Help management C. Legal management D. Assistance management correct answer: Answer: A A certified Personal Trainer fails to properly spot a client performing heavy incline dumbbell presses and the client injures himself. This is an example of what type of negligence? A. Casual B. Serious C. Omission D. Commission correct answer: Answer: C A certified Personal Trainer fails to properly spot a client performing heavy incline dumbbell presses and the client injures himself. This is an example of what type of negligence? A. Casual B. Serious C. Omission D. Commission correct answer: Answer: D Which of the following is NOT true regarding a properly administered informed consent form? A. It provides an explanation of all procedures to be performed. B. It releases the facility and personnel from liability. correct answer: Answer: B Which legal term is defined as "failure to conform one's conduct to a generally accepted standard or duty"? A. Battery B. Neglect C. Abandonment D. Negligence correct answer: Answer: D Clients seeking nutritional meal planning from an ACSM certified Personal Trainer should be: A. Informed about their nutritional supplement needs. B. counseled on sport beverage intake only. C. referred to a Registered Dietician. D. counseled on macronutrients but not micronutrients. correct answer: Answer: C A routine pattern of adhering to and documenting compliance with fitness industry guidelines is often an effective guard against ________. A. Breach of contract B. Malfeasance C. Negligence D. Malpractice correct answer: Answer: C What is the heart's predominant pacemaker? A. Sinoatrial node B. Left bundle branch C. Right bundle branch D. Atrioventricular node correct answer: Answer: A Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL (4.6 mmol/L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). She has come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness. How many risk factor thresholds for coronary artery disease does this client possess? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five correct answer: Answer: B Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL (4.6 mmol/L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). She has come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness. What are the risk factors according to the American College of Sports Medicine? A. Family history, cigarette smoking B. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, hypercholesterolemia C. Hypercholesterolemia, impaired fasting glucose, obesity, hypertension D. Family history, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, hypertension, cigarette smoking correct answer: Answer: B Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL (4.6 mmol/L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/dL (5.6 mmol/L). She has come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness. What initial American College of Sports Medicine risk stratification does this client fall into? A. Low risk B. Moderate risk C. High risk D. Very high risk correct answer: Answer: B Your client reports ankle edema. What would a certified Personal Trainer look for? A. Pain B. Atrophy C. Swelling D. Red coloration correct answer: Answer: C What is the role of High Density Lipoprotein in the blood? A. Transports cholesterol B. Increases anaerobic enzymes C. Increases triglycerides D. Decreases total cholesterol correct answer: Answer: A What is the definition of arteriosclerosis? A. Death of cardiac tissue B. Accumulation of plaque C. Hardening of the arteries D. Widening of the arteries correct answer: Answer: C What are three non-modifiable conditions that place someone at increased risk for the development of coronary artery disease? A. Advanced age, gender, family history B. Family history, obesity, diabetes mellitus