Muscle Physiology and Exercise Science Quiz Answers, Exams of Nursing

Download Muscle Physiology and Exercise Science Quiz Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! ACSM CPT Exam Review Questions with Verified Answers 100% What is the function of the tricuspid valve? A. It acts as a pacemaker. B. To pump blood through the heart. C. Prevents backflow of blood to the left atrium. D. Prevents backflow of blood to the right atrium. - Correct answer: D What is the fundamental unit of muscle contraction? A. Myofibril B. Sarcomere C. Myosin D. Sarcolemma - Correct answer: B Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the body? A. Right ventricle B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Left atrium - Correct answer: B What is the natural curve in the lumbar region of the spine? A. KY photic curve B. Scoliosis curve C. Lord tic curve D. Myopic curve - Correct answer: C Adenosine triphosphate production via "anaerobic" glycolysis is associated with the significant formation of what by-product? A. Pyruvic Acid B. Phosphoric Acid C. Citric Acid D. Lactic Acid - Correct answer: D The changes in muscle size associated with long-term resistance training is most likely due to increases in _____. A. muscle fiber cross-sectional diameter. B. muscle fiber number. C. connective tissue thickness. D. hydration state of the muscle. - Correct answer: A Downhill walking/jogging/running is characterized by eccentric activation of which of the following muscle groups? A. Hamstrings B. Gastrocnemius C. Brachioradialis D. Quadriceps femoris - Correct answer: D What is the typical resting blood pressure response to long term aerobic exercise in a hypertensive individual? A. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will increase. B. Both systolic and diastolic pressures will decrease. C. Systolic will increase, while diastolic will remain unchanged. D. Systolic will decrease, while diastolic will remain unchanged. - Correct answer: B How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise? How does heart rate increase in relation to work rate and oxygen uptake during dynamic exercise? A. Exponentially B. Linearly C. Curvilinear D. Inversely - Correct answer: B Which cardiovascular training approach, if repeated frequently, is most likely going to lead to overtraining? A. One intensive day followed by three easy days. B. One long day followed by three shorter duration days. C. Two consecutive intensive days, followed by one easy day. - Correct answer: C What feature is unique to skeletal muscle as compared to cardiac muscle? A. Absence of striations B. Presence of branching C. Requires nervous system stimulation D. Presence of intercalated disks - Correct answer: C What is the correct path of blood flow through the chambers of the heart? A. Left ventricle; left atrium; right atrium; right ventricle. B. Right ventricle; right atrium; left atrium; left ventricle. C. Left atrium; right atrium; left ventricle; right ventricle. D. Right atrium; right ventricle; left atrium; left ventricle. - Correct answer: D What respiratory muscles can cause forceful expiration? A. External intercostal B. Pectorals minor B. Extension at the elbow. C. Pronation of the forearm. D. Supination of the forearm. - Correct answer: A Cardiac output is a product of heart rate multiplied by ___________. A. peripheral resistance. B. blood pressure. C. blood volume. D. stroke volume. - Correct answer: D Which of the following best describes the symptoms that occur at 24-48 hours after a single bout of intensive exercise? A. Delayed onset muscle strain. B. Acute onset muscle strain. C. Delayed onset muscle soreness. D. Acute onset muscle soreness. - Correct answer: C Which principle of training best describes a previously active client, who has been ill and bedridden for a prolonged period of time? A. Overload B. Specificity C. Reversibility D. Progression - Correct answer: C If you are palpating the thumb side of the forearm in the wrist area, what pulse are you checking? A. Humeral B. Ulnar C. Brachial D. Radial - Correct answer: D What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior? A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx. B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral. D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx. - Correct answer: D Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings? A. Gastrocnemius B. Iliopsoas C. Graceless D. Sartorius - Correct answer: B Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity? A. The muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood. B. Total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high- intensity exercise. C. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase. D. The amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of breathing. - Correct answer: B As the intensity of dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs? A. Heart rate, systolic blood pressure, and diastolic blood pressure increase. B. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged. C. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, stroke volume and cardiac output remain the same. D. Stroke volume decreases, heart rate and cardiac output increase. - Correct answer: B From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______: A. bicep brachii and Latissimus dorsi B. posterior deltoid C. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii D. middle deltoid. - Correct answer: D What is the major muscle used to flex the hip joint? A. Vast us laterals B. Iliopsoas C. Biceps femoris D. Gluteus Maximus - Correct answer: B A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the following describes the muscle action during the extension? A. Isotonic concentric B. Isotonic eccentric C. Isokinetic concentric D. Isokinetic eccentric - Correct answer: B Type II muscle fibers: A. Have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system. B. Have a high capacity to generate energy from fat. C. Are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers. D. Have high endurance capabilities. - Correct answer: C Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise? A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload. B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases. C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or decreases slightly. D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the increase in intensity. - Correct answer: C Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm? A. Infraspinatus B. Supraspinatus C. Subscapular is D. Medial deltoid - Correct answer: B Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production? A. ATP-CP B. Rapid glycolysis C. Slow glycolysis D. Oxidative phosphorylation - Correct answer: D What plane divides the body into upper and lower sections? A. Sagittal B. Frontal C. Transverse D. Median - Correct answer: C When performing neck flexion in the sagittal plane, which of the following exercises best mimics that movement? A. Cartwheel B. Somersault C. Bicep curl D. Leg curl - Correct answer: B Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate? What is the formula to determine 60% of heart rate reserve? A. 220 - age x 60% B. Maximum heart rate x 60% C. Maximum heart rate - resting heart rate x 60% D. Maximum heart rate - resting heart rate x 60% + resting heart rate - Correct answer: D A 50 year old client has a resting heart rate of 70 beats per minute. Calculate the exercise heart rate for this client using 50% of heart rate reserve. A. 85 beats per minute B. 100 beats per minute C. 110 beats per minute D. 120 beats per minute - Correct answer: D When should a client exhale during performance of a bench press? A. Only after the movement ends. B. Immediately before the movement begins. C. During the eccentric phase of the movement. D. During the concentric phase of the movement. - Correct answer: D What health-related physical fitness component is primarily emphasized in a circuit training program that has 30 stations, 60 seconds per station, at 25% of one repetition maximum? A. Muscular Strength B. Muscular Flexibility C. Muscular Endurance D. Muscular Power - Correct answer: C What is a result of resistance training in adolescents? A. It promotes muscular strength. B. It increases muscular bulk. C. It increases the risk of osteoporosis. D. It causes permanent musculoskeletal damage. - Correct answer: A A 35 year-old male client has a goal of completing a sprint distance triathlon. The certified Personal Trainer prescribes an exercise regimen of swimming 2 days per week, running 3 days per week, and bicycling 2 days per week. What training principle is being used? A. Reversibility B. Overload C. Progression D. Specificity - Correct answer: D What are the FITTE Factors? A. Frequency, injury, time, type, enjoyment B. Frequency, intensity, total, type, exercise C. Frequency, intensity, total, type, equipment D. Frequency, intensity, time, type, enjoyment - Correct answer: D Why is a cool-down period important? A. Prevents heat stroke B. Helps prevent injuries C. Reduces brain blood flow back to normal D. Returns pooled blood back to central circulation - Correct answer: D Which of the following is NOT a principle of training? A. Overload B. Specificity C. Reversibility D. Concentration - Correct answer: D What is the first phase of an annual training cycle? A. Transition B. Off-season C. Preparatory D. Competition - Correct answer: C What is a function of the hamstring muscles? A. Hip flexors B. Hip extensors C. Plantar flexors D. Knee extensors - Correct answer: B What method of training combines a routine of alternating cardiovascular exercises with resistance training exercises? A. Circuit training B. Interval training C. Split routine training D. Periodization training - Correct answer: A What resistance training method is described by a light to heavy or heavy to light progression of sets? A. Pyramid B. Superset C. Negative set D. Volume training - Correct answer: A What resistance training method is being used when the client is performing a set of bicep curls immediately followed by triceps pushdowns? A. Pyramid B. Supersets C. Plyometric D. Split routine - Correct answer: B Together, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the American College of Sports Medicine recommend that every US adult should accumulate _____ minutes or more of moderate intensity physical activity on most, preferably all days of the week. A. 15 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60 - Correct answer: C What is the predominant factor causing increases in strength during the initial weeks of training? A. Changes in whole muscle cross-sectional area B. Increases in overall limb circumference C. Improvements in neuromuscular adaptation D. Increases in muscle-fiber cross-sectional area - Correct answer: C Which of the following exercise program variables describes a change in intensity? A. Changing activity from treadmill to stair-stepper. B. Increasing a treadmill incline by five degrees. C. Increasing the number of workout days from two to three per week. D. Increasing treadmill running time from 20 to 30 minutes. - Correct answer: B What happens to the muscle during isometric tension development? A. Shortening of the muscle B. Lengthening of the muscle C. No change in the length of the muscle D. Relaxation of the muscle - Correct answer: C Which of the following is the most important exercise to include in an overall training plan for an apparently healthy automobile mechanic who performs daily overhead movements? A. Lat pull-down B. Upright Row C. Triceps extension D. Shoulder press - Correct answer: D An appropriate exercise to develop muscle endurance for the ________ is ________ . A. quadriceps; one set of 15 knee flexion’s at low resistance. B. triceps; one set of 15 repetitions of arm curls at low resistance. C. wrist flexors; one set of 15 repetitions of wrist curls at low resistance. D. hip abductors; one set of 15 repetitions of half-squats at low resistance. - Correct answer: C The ACSM recommended exercise prescription for developing and maintaining muscular strength and endurance for health and fitness includes a minimum of: A. 1 set of 8-12 repetitions using 8-10 exercises that train the major muscle groups of the upper and lower body. B. 2-3 sets of 10-15 repetitions using 80% of the 1 repetition maximum (RM) for exercises that train the major muscle groups of the upper and lower body. C. 2-3 sets of 8-12 repetitions alternating days between upper and lower body exercises. D. 1-2 sets of 8-15 repetitions using 50-85% of the 1 repetition maximum (RM) for exercises that train the major muscle groups of the upper and lower body. - Correct answer: A As the percentage of 1 RM (Repetition Maximum) resistance increases: A. the amount of rest you should allow between training days should increase. B. the number of sets performed should increase. C. the number of repetitions until fatigue decreases. D. the amount of rest you should allow between sets should decrease. - Correct answer: C Which of the following describes a Valsalva maneuver performed during a free weight biceps curl? A. a normal part of the concentric phase of the exercise. B. inspiration of air through an open glottis. C. a normal part of the eccentric phase of the exercise. D. expiration of air against a closed glottis. - Correct answer: D You are working as a certified Personal Trainer, and have a client who recently confided to you that she is getting divorced. She admits to you that her exercise routine has suffered as a result of the increased stress. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for you to take? A. Recommend that she increase the duration of her sessions scheduled with you as a way to cope with this stressful situation. B. Recommend that she seek a mental health professional who can help her manage the increased stress. C. Make a future appointment with her to discuss the divorce. D. Recommend that she increase the number of sessions scheduled with you as a way to cope with this stressful situation - Correct answer: B A client exercising at a level 15 on the Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale is likely to describe the exercise as ____________ . A. Very hard B. Hard C. Fairly light D. Very light - Correct answer: B Which of the following is the correct energy expenditure in METs associated with an exercise oxygen uptake of 28 ml''kg-1''min-1? A. 8 B. 10 C. 98 D. 112 - Correct answer: A What of the following is the formula for calculating the heart rate reserve? A. 220, minus the age of the client B. 220, minus the resting heart rate C. Client's maximum heart rate, minus their resting heart rate D. Client's maximum heart rate, minus their age - Correct answer: C What is the minimum duration of an intermittent bout of aerobic activity that may be accumulated throughout the day? A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 30 minutes - Correct answer: A Case study: A new client who has been resistance training for 6 months, comes to you with a goal of increasing muscular size. Following health appraisal and fitness testing including a modified 1 RM test, you design a program to meet the client's goal. Which of the following regimens best defines an appropriate plan to achieve this client's goal? A. 4-6 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 85% 1 RM B. 1-3 sets of 10-15 repetitions at 75% 1 RM C. 4-6 sets of 10-15 repetitions at 60% 1 RM D. 1-3 sets of 6-12 repetitions at 60% 1 RM - Correct answer: A A client who wants to strengthen muscles of the chest must perform exercises such as the bench press and dumbbell fly’s as opposed to let pull down and dumbbell rows. Which of the following principles of training best describes this principle? A. Overload B. Specificity C. Progression D. Goal setting - Correct answer: B The Valsalva maneuver may elicit which of the following physiological responses during the concentric phase of a resistance training repetition? A. Increased intrathoracic pressure and decreased heart rate B. Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased heart rate C. Increased intrathoracic pressure and increased systolic blood pressure D. Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure - Correct answer: C Which of the following is the term used for a training regimen that begins with rapid eccentric muscle action followed by concentric action of the same muscle? A. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation B. Plyometric C. Dynamic Activity Preparation D. Progression - Correct answer: B Which of the following indicate the appropriate height range for performing depth jump training effectively and safely? A. 16 to 42 inches (41 to 107 cm) B. 24 to 48 inches (61 to 122 cm) C. 32 to 60 inches (81 to 152 cm) D. 40 to 60 inches (102 to 152 cm) - Correct answer: A Case Study: Your new client is a 38-year old female that wants to be able to participate in a 3-day charity walk. Her ultimate goal is to gradually improve her cardiovascular fitness. Which of the following exercise programs should you initially prescribe to best meet your client's needs? A. 3-5 days a week, 20-60 minutes in duration, 40-85% HRR B. 3-5 days a week, progressing from 1-3 hours in duration, 60-85% HRR C. 5-7 days a week, 20-60 minutes in duration, 35-50% HRR What type of learner would benefit from a handout with written instructions? A. Visual B. Aesthetic C. Auditory D. Kinesthetic - Correct answer: A An auditory learner benefits most from which of the following? A. Written instructions B. Voice cues C. Touch training D. Demonstrations - Correct answer: B When discussing strategies for changing physical activity habits with clients, it is usually best to: A. give strong and clear advice about what works based on your professional experience. B. assist clients to formulate their own behavior change strategies based on what has worked for them before. C. refer clients to a behavioral psychologist for expert advice. D. emphasize knowledge of the health benefits of exercise. - Correct answer: B Stimulus control as a behavioral strategy to enhance exercise adherence can best be described as: A. utilizing environmental cues to remind participants to maintain their commitment to exercise. B. establishing realistic expectations and avoiding overly pessimistic or optimistic expectations. C. developing a behavioral contract, signed by the participant that formalizes their commitment to exercise. D. orienting participants to the advantages and disadvantages of exercise. - Correct answer: A An individual participates regularly in his workplace fitness program because he earns a discount on his health insurance premium for doing so. For this individual, the discount is an example of ________ . A. Relapse prevention B. Intrinsic motivation C. Self-monitoring. D. Extrinsic motivation - Correct answer: D Which of the following terms finish the acronym SMART with respect to goal setting: Specific, Measurable, Attainable __________ and ____________. A. Realistic, Tried B. Related, Tried C. Realistic, Time-anchored D. Related, Time-anchored - Correct answer: C Which of the following theories addresses the human need to explain why things happen in an attempt to gain control or increase predictability? A. Motivation B. Attribution C. Transfer D. Retention - Correct answer: B Case study: After demonstrating a variety of weight training exercises to a new client, you ask if she has any questions. The client does not have any questions even though you observe her performing an exercise with improper form. After re-teaching the exercise, you should then reframe your questions to be more specific in order to __________________________. A. check for safety B. demonstrate their mistake C. demonstrate your knowledge D. check for understanding - Correct answer: D The acronym IDEA includes which of the following steps to solve a problem? A. Identifying the client's response B. Developing a list of solutions C. Evaluating the client's response D. Analyzing the consequences - Correct answer: B Your client is telling you about his progress during the past week. You do not quite understand what the client is trying to convey. You restate what the client just told you and ask him/her if that is correct. Which of the following terms define the communication strategy described in the above scenario? A. advising B. reflecting C. probing D. diverting - Correct answer: B What is the initial American College of Sports Medicine risk stratification of a 57 year old female client who has a blood pressure of 150/70 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 240 mg/ld. (6.2 moll/L)? A. No risk B. Low risk C. Moderate risk D. High risk - Correct answer: C What risk stratification would physician supervision be recommended during exercise testing? A. Low risk, max testing B. Low risk, submit testing C. Moderate risk, submit testing D. High risk, submit testing - Correct answer: D What does waist to hip ratio assess? A. Frame size B. Weight relative to height C. Distribution of body weight D. The amount of subcutaneous fat - Correct answer: C Your new client is a 42 year old male who is a stock broker. His health history revealed the following: total cholesterol 185 mg/ld. (4.7 moll/L) , HDL 32 mg/ld. (0.8 moll/L), LDL 110 mg/ld. (2.8 moll/L), resting blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg, waist circumference 98 centimeters. What is his initial risk stratification? A. Low risk B. Moderate risk C. High risk D. Only a physician can determine this clients risk stratification - Correct answer: A Who should obtain a physician's clearance before starting an exercise program? A. Every individual who is beginning an exercise program. B. Sedentary individuals who are going to perform vigorous exercise. C. Those who are considered low risk and perform only moderate exercise. D. Men who are younger than 45 years of age and women who are younger than 55 years of age. - Correct answer: B A sedentary 48 year old male with controlled hypertension has hired you to assist him with B. Age, health history, gender C. Health history, lifestyle, occupation D. Health history, gender, lifestyle - Correct answer: A What is the anatomical reference for the waist circumference measurement? A. The maximal circumference between the chest to just below the gluteal fold. B. Two centimeters below the umbilicus. C. Narrowest part of the torso, above the umbilicus, and below the xiphoid process. D. At the level of the umbilicus. - Correct answer: C Which of the following risk factors for coronary heart disease enables you to subtract one risk factor from the total amount of positive risk factors? A. Body Mass Index < 30 kg/m2 B. High serum HDL cholesterol > 60 mg/dl (1.6mmol/L) C. Fasting blood glucose of < 110mg/ld. (6.1 moll/L) D. A former cigarette smoker who stopped more than six months ago. - Correct answer: B Which of the following modifiable risk factors is the most preventable cause of death in the United States today? A. Diabetes B. Hypertension C. Cigarette Smoking D. Hypercholesterolemia - Correct answer: C What was the purpose of the original Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion? A. To estimate oxygen consumption during exercise B. To determine the level of fatigue during exercise C. To estimate systolic and diastolic blood pressure during exercise D. To estimate subject's immediate intrinsic motivation during exercise - Correct answer: B Which of the following is the correct sequence of events when starting the process for exercise prescription for a new client? A. Obtain a medical history, have the client perform a risk factor assessment, interpret the data, prescribe exercise, give lifestyle counseling. B. Obtain a medical history, have the client perform a risk factor assessment, administer fitness tests, interpret the data, prescribe exercise. C. Have the client perform a risk factor assessment, obtain a medical history, administer fitness tests, prescribe exercise and interpret the data. D. Have the client perform a fitness assessment, obtain a medical history, give lifestyle counseling, interpret the data, prescribe exercise. - Correct answer: B Which of the following locations is most sensitive to the baroreceptor reflex , when palpating the pulse of an exercising client? A. Radial artery B. Carotid artery C. Brachial artery D. Femoral artery - Correct answer: B Which of the following is a limiting factor when using the body mass index (BMI) to determine obesity and disease risk? A. Body density must be computed or estimated first. B. Skinfold thicknesses must be measured first. C. Fat and lean tissue weights are not differentiated. D. Underestimates individuals with above average muscle mass. - Correct answer: c Client pre-participation screening procedures should be _____. A. valid and include fitness testing at the first meeting B. pre-approved by a physician and cost effective C. valid, cost effective and time efficient D. pre-approved by a physician and include fitness testing at the first meeting - Correct answer: C Which of the following screening mechanisms would best optimize safety during exercise testing and aid in the development of a safe and effective exercise prescription? A. Postural analysis and bone density screening B. Health history screening to determine risk stratification C. PAR-Q form and prudent goal setting D. Health history screening to identify metabolic syndrome - Correct answer: B Which of the following structures are important to anterior/posterior postural observation and analysis? A. Vertebral column for scoliosis and scapula for balance B. Glen humeral joint for balance and elbow/wrist for alignment C. Vertebral column for balance and elbow/wrist for rotation D. Glen humeral joint for rotation and scapula for balance - Correct answer: A The personal trainer's analysis of posture and body alignment should be made from which of the three different positions? A. Anterior, posterior, superior B. Line of gravity, laterally from both sides, posterior C. Line of gravity, posterior, superior D. Anterior, posterior, laterally from both sides - Correct answer: D Information about the personal habits of a client including alcohol, caffeine, and tobacco consumption is typically included in what document? A. Blood profile analysis B. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire C. Medical history D. Informed consent - Correct answer: C Which of the following points should NOT be included in an Informed Consent document regarding fitness testing? A. Statement that the patient has been given an opportunity to ask questions about procedures B. Reminder that the client is free to stop the test at any point C. Warning that death could result from participation D. Identical language for both diagnostic and prescriptive tests - Correct answer: D For the comparison of body mass index (BMI) and plethysmography body composition assessment techniques, which of the following statements is correct? A. Plethysmography is inferior to BMI because of the difficulties associated with determination of lung volume. B. BMI is inferior to plethysmography because it does not account for lean/fat mass in its calculation. C. Plethysmography is superior to BMI because it accounts for the hydration state of the client. D. BMI is superior to plethysmography because its standard error of estimate for predicting percent body fat is usually lower. - Correct answer: B Which of the following circumference sites are used to compute a waist-to-hip ratio? A. Abdomen, suprailiac B. Maxillary, hips/thigh C. Waist, buttocks/hips D. Maxillary, suprailiac - Correct answer: C As described by the American College of Sports Medicine, proper technique during the push-up test involves _____. A. timing the number of push-ups performed in two minutes B. requiring both female and male subjects to use the toes as the pivotal point of movement Which four extrinsic risk factors may be associated with an increased risk of musculoskeletal injury ? A. Restricted range of motion, previous injury, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment B. Adverse environmental conditions, muscle weakness and imbalance, body composition, faulty equipment C. Excessive Load on the body, training errors, adverse environmental conditions, faulty equipment D. Bony alignment abnormalities, joint laxity, training errors, faulty equipment - Correct answer: C A client at your fitness center complains of a headache and seems disoriented. He appears ashen and has moist, cold skin. You know from his health history that he has Type II diabetes. Which of the following steps do you take after you call for medical assistance? A. Administer insulin. B. Administer sugar. C. Administer water. D. Administer nothing'' wait until emergency medical services arrive. - Correct answer: B What is a warning sign of anorexia nervosa? A. Eating when depressed B. Preferring to eat in isolation C. Visits to the bathroom following meals D. Frequent gains and losses in body weight - Correct answer: B What is the equivalent of 2.5 pounds (1.13 kg) of body fat in kilocalories? A. 5250 kilocalories B. 7000 kilocalories C. 8000 kilocalories D. 8750 kilocalories - Correct answer: D Individuals participating in a non-medically based supervised weight loss program should reduce their caloric intake by _____ kilocalories per day, and reduce their dietary fat intake to less than _____ percent of their total caloric intake. A. 500 to 1000 kilocalories; 30% B. 1250 to 1500 kilocalories; 35% C. 1500 to 1750 kilocalories; 30% D. 2000 to 2200 kilocalories; 40% - Correct answer: A What is considered a normal Body Mass Index (BMI) range? A. 14.5 to 20.9 BMI B. 18.5 to 24.9 BMI C. 16.5 to 23.5 BMI D. 19 to 27.5 BMI - Correct answer: B According to the Food Guide Pyramid, how should fats and oils be used in the diet? A. Sparingly B. Equal the daily intake of protein C. Be consumed only with breakfast D. Should make up at least 30% of each meal - Correct answer: A An athlete in heavy endurance training should maintain a daily carbohydrate intake that is approximately what percentage of his/her total energy intake? A. 30% B. 55% C. 65% D. 85% - Correct answer: C Which of the following is true about energy contents? A. fat = 9 kcal/gram, carbohydrate = 7 kcal/gram, water = 0 kcal/gram B. carbohydrate = 7 kcal/gram, protein = 4 kcal/gram, alcohol = 7 kcal/gram C. water = 0 kcal/gram, protein = 4 kcal/gram, alcohol = 7 kcal/gram D. protein = 9 kcal/gram, fat = 4 kcal/gram, carbohydrate = 4 kcal/gram - Correct answer: C A client is attempting to lose 10 pounds. In order to lose 1.5 pounds per week, she will have to reduce her caloric intake per day by how many calories? A. 350 B. 500 C. 750 D. 1000 - Correct answer: C Your client is 5' 3" tall and weighs 130 pounds. After calculating her BMI, you have determined that she falls in which of the following weight status categories? A. Underweight B. Normal C. Overweight D. Obese - Correct answer: B If a food product had 250 kilocalories per serving, a recommended serving size of 5 ounces, and contained 10 servings per container, how many kilocalories would one consume if s/he ate '' of the container? A. 625 B. 937 C. 2500 D. 3125 - Correct answer: A If your active client consumed 2100 kilocalories each day for one week and burned off 2600 kilocalories each day for that same week, how much weight would your client lose that particular week, assuming normal hydration? A. 0 pounds B. '' pound C. 1 pound D. 2 pounds - Correct answer: C What is your best course of action when you have evidence that one of your clients has an eating disorder? A. Monitor the client's diet as needed B. Refer the client to a medical professional C. Perform regular weigh-ins to monitor weight as needed D. Offer nutritional and dietary education - Correct answer: B Vitamins classified as fat soluble are in which of the following groups? A. A, B, C, D B. A, D, E, K C. A, B, D, E D. A, C, D, K - Correct answer: B An intake of additional protein calories above an average individual's daily requirement will result in which of the following? A. A conversion to fat and stored as triglyceride B. Muscle hypertrophy C. An increase in water retention D. A conversion to carbohydrates and stored as glycogen - Correct answer: A Which of the following is a potential danger of long-term consumption of a high-protein diet? A. Zinc becomes less absorbable B. Calcium is drawn from the bones & excreted in the urine C. Iron levels drop causing anemia D. Sodium is lost in the sweat causing hyponatremia - Correct answer: B Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/ld. (4.6 moll/L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/ld. (0.8 moll/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/ld. (5.6 moll/L). She has come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness. How many risk factor thresholds for coronary artery disease does this client possess? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five - Correct answer: B Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/ld. (4.6 moll/L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/ld. (0.8 moll/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/ld. (5.6 moll/L). She has come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness. What are the risk factors according to the American College of Sports Medicine? A. Family history, cigarette smoking B. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, hypercholesterolemia C. Hypercholesterolemia, impaired fasting glucose, obesity, hypertension D. Family history, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, hypertension, cigarette smoking - Correct answer: B Your client is a 59 year old sedentary female with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. She has no history of heart disease herself, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 66. She is an ex-smoker who quit 15 years ago, blood pressure is consistently 135/85 mm Hg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/ld. (4.6 moll/L) with an HDL level of 30 mg/ld. (0.8 moll/L), and blood glucose is 100 mg/ld. (5.6 moll/L). She has come to you for advice because she wishes to improve her overall health and fitness. What initial American College of Sports Medicine risk stratification does this client fall into? A. Low risk B. Moderate risk C. High risk D. Very high risk - Correct answer: B Your client reports ankle edema. What would a certified Personal Trainer look for? A. Pain B. Atrophy C. Swelling D. Red coloration - Correct answer: C What is the role of High Density Lipoprotein in the blood? A. Transports cholesterol B. Increases anaerobic enzymes C. Increases triglycerides D. Decreases total cholesterol - Correct answer: A What is the definition of arteriosclerosis? A. Death of cardiac tissue B. Accumulation of plaque C. Hardening of the arteries D. Widening of the arteries - Correct answer: C What are three non-modifiable conditions that place someone at increased risk for the development of coronary artery disease? A. Advanced age, gender, family history B. Family history, obesity, diabetes mellitus C. Gender, family history, dyslipidemia D. Post-menopausal status, excessive alcohol consumption, advanced age - Correct answer: A What effect should a bronchodilator have on your asthmatic client? A. Increase airway resistance B. Decrease airway resistance C. Decrease blood pressure D. Increase blood pressure - Correct answer: B Which of the following blood lipids is influenced more by physical activity than by nutrition modification? A. LDL B. HDL C. VLDL D. Total cholesterol - Correct answer: B What are the acute effects of alcohol intake on exercise? A. Increases blood pressure and impairs exercise capacity B. Decreases metabolic rate and increases blood pressure C. Promotes dehydration and increases risk of heart arrhythmias D. Increases risk of heart arrhythmias and increases exercise capacity - Correct answer: C Which of the following practices are NOT recommended for persons with asthma who desire to participate in a strenuous aerobic exercise program? A. Exercise in an environment with warm, moist air. B. Self-administer prescribed medication as directed prior to or during the exercise session. C. Use a short, intense warm-up. D. Use a scarf or surgical mask in front of the mouth if exercising in cold weather. - Correct answer: C What are three non-modifiable conditions that place someone at increased risk for the development of coronary artery disease? A. Gender, family history, dyslipidemia B. Family history, obesity, diabetes mellitus C. Advanced age, gender, family history D. Post-menopausal status, excessive alcohol consumption, advanced age - Correct answer: C What is the leading cause of non-cardiovascular death in young athletes? A. Contact Sports Injuries B. Anemia C. Hypothermia D. Overheating - Correct answer: D A client who reports a decreased Rating of Perceived Exertion at a given treadmill running speed after taking albuterol, likely suffers from which of the following conditions? A. Depression B. Asthma C. Bradycardia D. Claudication - Correct answer: B What is the exercise response to acute cigarette smoking? A. Respiration rate increases; blood pressure response to exercise decreases B. Likelihood of coronary artery spasm increases; blood pressure response to decreases C. Heart rate increases; likelihood of coronary artery spasm increases