Advanced Pathophysiology, Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Answers 2024.pdf, Exams of Nursing

Download Advanced Pathophysiology, Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Answers 2024.pdf and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Advanced Pathophysiology, Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions and Answers 2024 Vesicollobullous disorders is a type of mucocutaneous disease characterized by vesicles and bullae. What are some examples? - ANSWER Pemphigus, bulbous pemphigoid, erythema multiforme, SJS, TEN Types of Angina - ANSWER stable, unstable, variant/printzmetal, silent A 3-day old infant is noted to have a mildly elevated unconjugated bilirubin level and icterus. Your concern is that this child may have: a. physiologic jaundice b. kernicterus c. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency d. pathologic jaundice - ANSWER physiologic jaundice Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury? a. lysosomes b. ribosomesc. smooth endoplasmi c reticulum d. golgi complex - ANSWER Lysosomes Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? A) lysosomes B) peroxisomes C) ribosomes D) oxyhydrosomes - ANSWER Ans: B- peroxisomes The difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes is that eukaryotes: a. all of these answers are correct b. are smaller in size c. contain organelles d. have no nuclear membrane - ANSWER Contain organelles and complex internal membranes What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria? A) enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthese B) influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production C) edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production D) potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure - ANSWER Ans: B- influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production Which of the following is function of Golgi? a. Packages protein for secretion to the outside of the cell b. Produces ATP for cell function c. Contains hydrolytic enzymes d. Is the site of protein synthesis in a cell - ANSWER Packages protein for secretion to the outside of the cell Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis? A) apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered singel cells B) apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm C) apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death D) apoptosis results in benign malignancies - ANSWER Ans: A- apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered singel cells During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: A) during cell injury cause by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: B) the pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels C) the osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane D) oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell - ANSWER Ans: C- the osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell Programmed cell death is an active process of cellular self-destruction. It is also referred to as a. apoptosis b. necrosis c. metastatic calcification d. gangrene - ANSWER Apoptosis The nucleolus is a small dense structure composed mainly of RNA and cellular DNA. What causes the DNA to bind and fold into chromosomes? a. amino acid sequences b. histones c. polymerase d. miRNA - ANSWER Histones Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy is never transmitted from father to son. It is a good example of a. sex-linked recessive disease b. autosomal dominant disease c. x-linked recessive disease d. chromosome structure abnormality disease - ANSWER x-linked recessive disease Which cell is the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? a. t lymphocytes b. neutrophils c. eosinophils d. b lymphocytes - ANSWER Eosinophils Which pathway in the complement system is activated by an antigen-antibody response? a. lectin b. classic c. alternative d. none of the above - ANSWER classic The hallmark of AIDS profound immunosuppression, results from: a. proper function of helper t cells b. infection of b cells c. severe loss of CD4 Th cells d. none of the above - ANSWER severe loss of CD4 Th cells These are proteins released by bacteria during growth. a. endotoxins b. TNF c. exotoxins d. pili - ANSWER exotoxins Activation of the complement cascade may destroy pathogens directly and can activate with virtually every other component of the inflammatory response. True/False - ANSWER True Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by: A) endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus B) exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus C) immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus D) cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus - ANSWER Ans: A- endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus One of the leading causes of death in the intensive care unit is the release of sufficient amounts of endotoxin resulting in endotoxic (septic) shock. The most common cause is: a. cachectin b. fungi c. gram-positive bacteria d. gram-negative bacteria - ANSWER gram-negative bacteria The most common cause of fungal infections in humans are a. staphylococcus b. candida albicans c. gram-negative bacteria d. salmonella - ANSWER candida albicans Which one of the childhood cancers is associated with the tumor suppressor genes? a. wilms tumor b. acute leukemia c. cerebellar hemagioblastoma d. testicular tumor - ANSWER wilms tumor Leukemia refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? a. connective tissue b. epithelial cells c. glandular tissue d. blood-forming cells - ANSWER blood-forming cells Two "hits" are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because: A) each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent B) the first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth C) tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis D) the first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation - ANSWER Ans: A- each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one Tumor suppressor genes encode proteins that in their normal state negatively regulate proliferation. They are also called a. anti-oncogenes b. proto-oncogenes c. mutation of RAS gene d. oncogenes - ANSWER anti-oncogenes What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection ans sweating above the spinal cord lesion? A) craniosacral dysreflexia B) parasympathetic dysreflexia C) autonomic hyperreflexia D) retrograde hyperreflexia - ANSWER Ans: C- autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia) Multiple sclerosis is best described as: A) a CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus B) inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder C) the depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus D) a degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors - ANSWER Ans: A- a CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus Graves disease develops from: A) a viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone B) an autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue C) thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones D) ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter - ANSWER Ans: C) thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased in patients with: (Select 3) a. diabetes mellitus b. hypertension c. obesity d. liver disease e. congenital heart defects f. high alcohol consumption - ANSWER a. diabetes mellitus b. hypertension c. obesity Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include: A) high levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins B) diminished levels of TRH C) high levels of TSH D) diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin - ANSWER Ans: A- high levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum postassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient reports that he has been sick with the "flu" for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency? A) increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space B) decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis C) increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis D) decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss - ANSWER Ans: B- decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease? a. tricuspid valve prolapse b. tricuspid prolapse c. mitral valve prolapse d. aortic stenosis - ANSWER mitral valve prolapse Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as: A) resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues B) the needs for lispro intead of regular insulin C) an increase in glucagon secretion from (alpa) cells of the pancreas D) the presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy (beta) cells in the pancreas - ANSWER Ans: A- resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms An infant has a continuous-machine type of murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole. The infant has a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? a. atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect b. atrial septal defect (ASD) c. patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) d. ventricular septal defect (VSD) - ANSWER patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Which statement best describes a Schilling test? A) administration of radioactive cbalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency B) measurement of anigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia C) measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia D) administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency - ANSWER Ans: A- administration of radioactive cbalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency In aplastic anemis (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following? A) suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes B) suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequte amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes C) lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantitites of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes D) lact of stem cells toform sufficient quantities of leukocytes - ANSWER Ans: B- suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemotlytic anemia? A) warm autimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men B) it is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis C) erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen D) immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes - ANSWER Ans: C- erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by: a. creating alveolar dead space b. impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion c. creating a right to left shunt d. decreasing the oxygen in inspired gas - ANSWER impairing alveolocapillary membrane diffusion Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: A) is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative B) is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive C) has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood D) has type AB blood and the fetus has type O blood - ANSWER Ans: B- is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Alveolar dead space is a result of: a. atelectasis b. pulmonary edema c. pulmonary emboli d. pneumonia - ANSWER pulmonary emboli The cause of pulmonary edema in ARDS is the result of increased: a. oncotic pressure increase by fulminant trauma to the lungs b. capillary hydrostatic pressure c. levels of serum sodium and water d. capillary permeability - ANSWER capillary permeability When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero? A) excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother's circulation is no longer possible B) hemoglobin does now break down inot bilirubin in the intrauterin environment C) the liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form D) the destruction of erythtocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth - ANSWER Ans: A- excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother's circulation is no longer possible How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)? A) by increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction B) by causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia C) by reducing the contractility of the myocardium D) by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system - ANSWER Ans: C- by reducing the contractility of the myocardium c. henoch-schonlein purpura nephritis d. primary nephrotic syndrome - ANSWER primary nephrotic syndrome Factors that contribute to edema in nephrotic syndrome - ANSWER Hypoalbuminemia and sodium retention Types of glomerulonephritis in children - ANSWER PSGN (post streptococcal glomerulonephritis), IgA nephropathy The GFR increases, achieving adults level by what age - ANSWER Two A small kidney with decreased number of nephrons - ANSWER Hypoplastic kidney Benign vs malignant cancer tumor - ANSWER Well demarcation in benign Cancers arising from the mesenchymal tissue usually have the suffix - ANSWER sarcoma Factors that suppress ovulation increase or decrease risk of ovarian cancer - ANSWER Decrease A 45 yo female presents to the ED with abdominal discomfort, epigastric tenderness and upper GI bleeding. She has a hx of a recent H-pylori infection. Her most likely diagnosis would be: a. illeus b. hiatal hernia c. acute gastritis d. GERD - ANSWER acute gastritis What are the important environmental and lifestyle factors correlated with breast cancer - ANSWER Radiation, diet, synthetic chemicals, physical activity What are several disorders collectively known as chronic myeloproliferative disorder - ANSWER Essential theombocytosis, polycythemia Vera, chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, chronic neutrophilic leukemia, chronic eosinophilia leukemia Most common risk factors for endocardial damage - ANSWER Trauma, CHD, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valve Symptomatic changes in chronic kidney disease including increased creatinine, urea and potassium levels do not become apparant until renal function declines to: a. 30% b. < 25% c. 25% d. 50% - ANSWER < 25% On POD #1, your patient is noted to have an elevated creatinine. The most likely cause would be ? a. non-oliguric b. intrarenal c. prerenal d. postrenal - ANSWER prerenal The most common form of hyperthyroidism; caused by an autoimmune defect that creates antibodies that stimulate the overproduction of thyroid hormones; exophthalmos is a featured characteristic - ANSWER Graves disease The features of nephrotic syndrome include all EXCEPT? a. hyperlipidemia b. infection c. orbital edema d. hypernatremia - ANSWER hypernatremia pericarditis - ANSWER inflammation of the pericardium Functional dysphagia can be seen in a patient with: a. myasthenia gravis b. tumor c. GERD d. esophageal stricture - ANSWER myasthenia gravis Disorders of the posterior pituitary - ANSWER SIADH and DI The most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is a. coagulative necrosis b. obstruction c. vascular damage d. alcohol abuse - ANSWER alcohol abuse Right heart failure most often results from: - ANSWER Severe left heart failure When examining the results of a patient's thyroid studies, what would be the correct diagnosis if the labs revealed a decreased TSH, increased free T4, increased total T4 and increased T3? a. hyperparathyroidism b. ADP c. IGF-1 d. ADH - ANSWER ADH infected pleural effusion - ANSWER empyema DKA is most commonly associated with: a. type I DM b. HHNKS c. diabetes insipidus d. type II DM - ANSWER type I DM Weight gain and accumulation of adipose tissue in the trunk, face and cervical areas is seen with: a. hypothyroidism b. metabolic syndrome c. graves disease d. cushing disease - ANSWER cushing disease Results from destruction of elastin in alveolar septa and loss of passive elastic recoil - ANSWER Emphysema/Chronic Bronchitis The most common type of monitoring and control system for our hormones is: a. positive feedback system b. down regulation c. negative feedback system d. up regulation - ANSWER negative feedback system Disorders of the Adrenal Cortex - ANSWER Cushing, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hyperaldosteronism, hypersecretion of adrenal androgens and estrogens, adrenocortical hypofunction Acute complications of diabetes - ANSWER Hypoglycemia, DKA, HHNKS, Somogyi effect, dawn phenomenon The most common hormonally active pituitary tumor in both men and women is: a. prolactin b. ACTH c. TSH d. FSH e. oxytocin - ANSWER Prolatin Two common types of IBD - ANSWER Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is most often caused by a. HIV b. E. coli c. H. influenze d. gonorrhea and chlamydia - ANSWER gonorrhea and chlamydia The use of oral contraceptives, nulliparity, and 30 years or older at first birth are associated with risk of breast cancer. increased/decreased - ANSWER increased Most cancers of the prostate are that develop in the periphery of the gland. a. myeloma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. adenocarcinomas d. sarcomas - ANSWER adenocarcinomas Your patient presents with HTN, palpitations, tachycardia, glucose intolerance, excessive sweating & constipation. Your most likely diagnosis is: a. pheochromocytoma b. cushing syndrome c. hypoparathyroidism d. hypocortisolism e. hyperpituitarism - ANSWER pheochromocytoma The most common form of diabetes in children is: a. type I DM b. SIADH c. type II DM d. diabetes insipidus - ANSWER type I DM HHNKS is most closely associated with a. hyperkalemia b. type II DM c. increased ketosis d. somogyi effect - ANSWER type II DM The usual site of fertilization of an ovum is in the ? Multiple sclerosis is best described as: A) a CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus B) inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder C) the depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus D) a degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors - ANSWER a CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus Graves disease develops from: A) a viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone B) an autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue C) thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones D) ingestion of goitrogenes, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter - ANSWER Ans: C) thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum postassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient reports that he has been sick with the "flu" for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency? A) increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space B) decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis C) increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis D) decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss - ANSWER Ans: B- decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as: A) resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues B) the needs for lispro intead of regular insulin C) an increase in glucagon secretion from (alpa) cells of the pancreas D) the presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy (beta) cells in the pancreas - ANSWER resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: A) hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration B) the dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime C) hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise D) Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity - ANSWER hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with: A) the Somogyi effect B) the dawn phenomenon C) diabetic ketoacidosis D) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome - ANSWER the Somogyi effect Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ? A) wher the squamos epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina B) where the columnar epithelium fo the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus C) where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus D) where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina - ANSWER where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina In aplastic anemis (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following? A) suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes B) suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequte amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes C) lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantitites of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes D) lact of stem cells toform sufficient quantities of leukocytes - ANSWER suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemotlytic anemia? A) warm autimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men B) it is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis C) erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen D) immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes - ANSWER erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: A) is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative B) is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive C) has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood D) has type AB blood and the fetus has type O blood - ANSWER is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive