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AFAA PERSONAL TRAINER CERTIFICATION EXAM 2024 WITH 100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS Describe the practice of Wellness, and list the six dimensions that incorporate total well-being - ANSWER ââway of living that prevents disease and disability (physical, social, emotional, occupational, spiritual, intellectual) List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention of the following diseases: Stroke - ANSWER ââdiet and exercise List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention of the following diseases: Lung Cancer - ANSWER ââsmoking, exercise, diet List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention of the following diseases: Pancreatic Cancer - ANSWER ââobesity, high fat diet, smoking List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention of the following diseases: Liver Cancer - ANSWER ââalcohol, exercise, control weight, diet List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention of the following diseases: Diabetes - ANSWER ââdiet, exercise, self-care List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention of the following diseases: COPD - ANSWER ââsmoking and exercise List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention and management of the following conditions: Osteoporosis - ANSWER ââdiet, exercise, smoking, alcohol, obesity List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention and management of the following conditions: Osteoarthritis - ANSWER ââmoderate exercise, obesity, protection of joints List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention and management of the following conditions: Back Pain - ANSWER ââexercise, smoking, obesity, posture, good mattress List at least two lifestyle factors that influence the prevention and management of the following conditions: Metabolic Syndrome - ANSWER ââsmoking, weight, exercise, diet What are the six strategies for optimal well-being? - ANSWER ââ1. exercise and remain moderately active 2. proper diet 3. prevent obesity 4. stop smoking 5. practice stress management 6. practice self- care List a few common screening tests for men and women that should be checked regularly between 20-50 years of age - ANSWER ââeye test, dental exam, colorectal, cholesterol, blood pressure Describe the structure of the heart - ANSWER ââRight atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle, veins, arteries, systole/contracts, diastole/relaxes, fist sized, double pump system Myocardial Infarction (MI) - ANSWER ââlack of blood flow through the coronary arteries (heart attack) Ischemia - ANSWER ââlack of blood flow to heart muscle Stroke Volume - ANSWER ââamount of blood output per beat (blood pumped out) Cardiac Output - ANSWER ââblood pumped per minute (hr x sv = amount x bpm) Venous Return - ANSWER âârate of blood flow back to the heart Valsalva Maneuver - ANSWER ââlack of breathing during exercise Minute Ventilation - ANSWER ââvolume of gas inhaled/exhaled from a person's lungs per minute Residual Lung Volume - ANSWER ââvolume of air remaining in lungs after forceful expiration Name the tree types of muscle tissue - ANSWER ââCardiac - heart, involuntary, Smooth - digestive system, blood vessels, involuntary, Skeletal - biceps, triceps, abs, voluntary Maximal Oxygen Uptake - ANSWER ââ(VO2Max) max ability to transport/utilize oxygen at the cellular level Name and describe the two major muscle fiber types - ANSWER ââSlow twitch: aerobic, oxidative, endurance Fast twitch: anaerobic, fast fatiguable, intermediate Describe the function of a muscle spindle - ANSWER ââStretch receptors within the body of a muscle that primarily detects changes in length of the muscle, convey this to the central nervous system Sarcomere - ANSWER ââstructural unit of myofibril in striated muscle Actin - ANSWER ââforms contractive filaments of muscle cells Myosin - ANSWER ââforms contractive filaments of muscle cells Motor Unit - ANSWER ââmotor neuron and skeletal muscle fibers filled with nerves EPOC - ANSWER ââ(excess post-exercise oxygen consumption) replacing oxygen stores, panting after a sprint Describe the function of a Golgi tendon organ - ANSWER ââSenses changes in muscle tension (origins and insertion of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscles) Horizontal Plane of Movement - ANSWER ââtop and bottom, rotational movement Frontal Plane of Movement - ANSWER ââfront and back, sideways movement (abduction/adduction) Saggital Plane of Movement - ANSWER ââright and left, up and down or front and back movement (flexion/extension) Supine - ANSWER ââlying face up, on your back Prone - ANSWER ââlying flat, face down Axial Skeleton - ANSWER ââhead and vertebral bones Appendicular Skeleton - ANSWER ââappendage bones Diathrodial Joints - ANSWER ââmost common, moveable joint, a layer of fibrocartilage on bone and synovial fluid Cartilage - ANSWER ââfirm, whitish connective tissue/cushions joints Synovial Membrane - ANSWER ââspecialized connective tissue lining synovial joins and tendon sheaths/moves freely/most common Bursae - ANSWER ââfluid-filled sac/ sack-like cavity countering friction at a joint/protects soft tissue Ligament - ANSWER ââshort band of tough, flexible fibrous connective tissue connecting bone/cartilages, joint stability Tendon - ANSWER ââflexible, inelastic, strong fibrous collagen tissue attaching muscle to bone Fascia - ANSWER ââthin sheath of fibrous tissue enclosing a muscle of other organ List the nine primary joint actions of the shoulder joint - ANSWER ââFlexion, extension, abduction, adduction, horizontal abduction/extension, horizontal adduction/flexion, internal rotation, external rotation, circumduction Name the rotator cuff muscles - ANSWER ââSubscapularis, infraspiratus, teres minor, supraspinatus Describe the shoulder girdle, and list its eight primary joint actions - ANSWER ââScapulotherasie joint (scapula and ribs) sternoclavicular joint (sternum and clavicle) scapular elevation, depression, retraction/adduction, protraction/abduction, upward and downward rotation, upward and downward tilting There are four parts of the trapezius muscle. Name their primary joint actions - ANSWER ââUpper (1+2), scapular elevation, middle (3), scapular retraction, lower (4) scapular depression and upward rotation Scapular adduction is commonly referred to as - ANSWER ââScapular retraction Supination - ANSWER ââparallel radius and ulna (soup) Pronation - ANSWER ââcrossed radius and ulna Name the four primary joint actions of the spine - ANSWER ââFlexion, extension, rotation, lateral flexion Name the three joint actions of the pelvic girdle - ANSWER ââanterior pelvic tilt, posterior pelvic tilt, lateral pelvic tilt Describe the concerns involved with excessive hip flexor strengthening and/or tightness - ANSWER ââcan cause lumbar spine to be misaligned causing back problems Name the three muscles of the hamstring - ANSWER ââbiceps femoris, semitendinosis, semimembranosus Name the four muscles of the quadriceps - ANSWER ââVastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedus, rectus femoris What legal documents should always be administered by personal trainers? - ANSWER ââinformed consent form and release of liability (exercise waiver) List several other questionnaires that may be helpful during the initial process - ANSWER ââexercise and activity quiz, nutrition and weight profile, self-assessment quiz List four benefits of fitness assessments - ANSWER ââ1. establish a client's current fitness status and provide baseline 2. utilize information for future comparison 3. educational and motivational tool (aides in adherence) 4. demonstrates professional prudence and knowledge List six components of a fitness assessment session - ANSWER ââ1. resting heart rate and blood pressure 2. body composition 3. cardiorespiratory fitness 4. muscular strength and or endurance 5. flexibility 6. posture Which test(s) may only be performed by licensed healthcare professionals in some states - ANSWER ââresting blood pressure What are the current blood pressure values for: Hypertension - ANSWER ââsystolic 140+, diastolic 90+ What are the current blood pressure values for: Prehypertension - ANSWER ââsystolic 120-139, diastolic 80-89 What are the current blood pressure values for: Optimal - ANSWER ââsystolic ,120, diastolic <80 List at least five cardiorespiratory tests, and indicate whether they are max or submax tests - ANSWER ââ1. stress test - maximal 2. 3 min step test - submaximal 3. treadmill - submaximal 4. field test - maximal 5. 1 mile walking test - submaximal Describe the importance of body fat percent testing - ANSWER ââeducate client on risk of too much body fat (diabetes, CHD, increased blood pressure, cancer, back pain) List several methods of estimating body fat percent and their possible limitations - ANSWER ââhydrostatic, skin fold analysis, bioelectrical impedance, near-infrared interactance, plethysmography (egg), dexa (doctor) What body fat percent is considered by AFAA to be average for healthy young adults? - ANSWER ââmen 15%, women 25% List the protocols for skinfold testing - ANSWER ââright side, stand tall, 1/2 cm from pinched fingers, maintain pinch, wait 1-2 seconds, rotate through sites multiple times, mark sites What are the purpose and goals of cardiovascular testing? - ANSWER ââdiagnose and assess levels of fitness List several submaximal exercise tests - ANSWER ââ3 minute step test, rockport walking test, rockport treadmill test What are four advantages of submax CV testing? - ANSWER ââless expensive, less risky, less specialized equipment, don't need trained professional to perform Describe the protocols for the 3-minute YMCA Step Test - ANSWER ââpurpose -> no warm up, you can stretch -> practice 2-3 -> no talking -> stepping on 12 inch bench @ 96bpm -> put whole foot on bench - >pain=stop -> 3 min up, sit for pulse test -> 1 min check for recovery rate (tell time) Define muscular fitness - ANSWER ââmuscle or muscle groups ability to sustain repetitive contractions over a period of time Describe the protocols for a 1RM test - ANSWER ââStretch -> comfortable weight -> add weight until only one rep can be performed at proper form -> divide lbs/client weight for % What are the major disadvantages of a 1RM test? - ANSWER ââinjury, valsalva manuever (not breathing + closed throat_ not good for beginers List and describe the protocols for four different muscular endurance tests: Push-up - ANSWER ââpurpose-> maintain proper form and alignment -> breathe List and describe the protocols for four different muscular endurance tests: Partial curl-up - ANSWER ââpurpose -> proper form -> slow -> exhale List and describe the protocols for four different muscular endurance tests: Sit-up - ANSWER ââpurpose -> elbows to knees -> feet held in place List and describe the protocols for four different muscular endurance tests: Dynamic Bench Press - ANSWER ââpurpose -> 60bpm -> stop when they slow or break form Define muscular flexibility - ANSWER âârange of motion around a joint List and describe the procedure for testing flexibility at the following sites: Shoulder - ANSWER ââstand -> one arm up and pat back -> other arm around back -> touch fingers List and describe the procedure for testing flexibility at the following sites: Calf - ANSWER ââstand against a wall -> toes up one inch List and describe the procedure for testing flexibility at the following sites: Quadriceps - ANSWER ââprone -> knees together -> heel to butt List and describe the procedure for testing flexibility at the following sites: Hamstrings - ANSWER ââsupine position -> 2 legs straight up 90 angle -> other leg flat List and describe the procedure for testing flexibility at the following sites: Trunk - ANSWER ââprone - > push up -> straight elbows hips on floor List and describe the procedure for testing flexibility at the following sites: Hip Flexor - ANSWER ââsupine -> hands behind knees -> other leg flat Muscle Stability - ANSWER ââstabilize join and maintain position without movement Hypertrophy - ANSWER ââincreased cross-sectional size of muscle more filaments Overload Principle - ANSWER ââbeneficial adaptations occur when pushed beyond threshold Specificity Principle - ANSWER ââexercise specific to muscles involved Volume - ANSWER ââreps x time Progressive Resistance Exercise - ANSWER ââincreasing ability of muscles to generate force Periodization - ANSWER ââvariation of program to optimize gains in strength List ACSM guidelines for resistance training - ANSWER ââ2-4 sets per major muscle group, 8-12 reps, fatigue not failure Complete the following chart of opposing muscle groups: Biceps Deltoids Pectoralis Major Abdominals Quads Hip Abductors - ANSWER ââTriceps Latissimus Dorsi Traps/Rhomboids Erector Spinae Hamstrings Hip Adductors Name some of the steps in designing a resistance training program - ANSWER ââgoals, injuries, starting point, time/schedule, areas of special attention, types of muscle training, exercises and order, frequency, sets, reps Single-Set - ANSWER ââone set per group Multiple-Set - ANSWER ââ3-6 sets per group Super-Set - ANSWER ââ2 exercises, no rest, multiple sets Pyramid - ANSWER ââlight to heavy or heavy to light Pre-Exhaustion - ANSWER ââlarge muscles -> large + small muscles Split Routine - ANSWER ââdifferent body part each day Circuit Training - ANSWER ââmultiple workouts, little rest, 40-60% max Super-Circuit - ANSWER ââresistance and cardiovascular training Eccentric Training - ANSWER âânegative resistance training List two advantages of each of the following types of resistance training: Constant Resistance - ANSWER ââbalance, variety List two advantages of each of the following types of resistance training: Variable Resistance - ANSWER ââproductive, circuit training List two advantages of each of the following types of resistance training: Isokinetic Resistance - ANSWER âârehab, feedback List two advantages of each of the following types of resistance training: Isometric Resistance - ANSWER âârehab, joint angle specific Name at least five common training errors - ANSWER ââtoo much weight, improper/no warm-up , inability to sabilize core, excessive speed, breath holding, poor body awareness, excessive/inadequate ROM, "no pain, no gain" mentality Define DOMS - ANSWER ââdelayed onset muscle soreness, eccentric microtears List several genetic factors that may influence the ability to lift heavier weights - ANSWER ââlimb length, tendon exertion, muscle belly length, muscle composition, testosterone List several of the symptoms of overtraining - ANSWER ââdecline in physical performance, loss of strength, decreased appetite, muscle tenderness, joint soreness, increased injuries, bad sleep, increased hr + bp, depression, irritability, loss of motivation List several spotting guidelines - ANSWER ââkeep area clean, ensure you are strong enough, practice injury prevention, keep hands close to weights, even bar, collars and clips, communicate, assist when speed changes What are the three main types of learning styles - ANSWER ââvisual, auditory, kinesthetic Name at least six different types of cues effective when working with clients - ANSWER ââeducational/informational, safety, breathing, motivational/affirmational, imagery, visual, wrong/right, tactile list the five steps to remember when detailing a new exercise for a client - ANSWER ââstarting position, specific alignment, safety factors, demonstrate, client performs movement Name the muscle groups responsible for each of the following exercises: Upright Row - ANSWER ââupper traps, delts, biceps Name the muscle groups responsible for each of the following exercises: Barbell Back Squat - ANSWER ââquad, hamstring, gastrocnemius, soleus Name the muscle groups responsible for each of the following exercises: Knee Extension - ANSWER ââquads and hamstrings Name the muscle groups responsible for each of the following exercises: Bent-Over Row - ANSWER ââtraps, lats, delts, rhomboids Name the muscle groups responsible for each of the following exercises: Horizontal High Row - ANSWER ââdelts, traps, rhomboids, biceps Name the concentric joint action and muscles that are used in each of the following exercises: Bench Press Squat Front Lunge Triceps Dip High-Pulley Scapular Depression Overhead Press - ANSWER ââshoulder (horizontal adduction), elbow extension, pectoralis major, anterior delt, tricep Name the concentric joint action and muscles that are used in each of the following exercises: Squat - ANSWER ââhip extension, knee extension, ankle plantar flexion, gluteus maximus, quad, gastrocnemius, soleus Name the concentric joint action and muscles that are used in each of the following exercises: Front Lunge - ANSWER ââhip extension, knee extension, ankle plantar flexion, gluteus maximus, quad, hamstring, gastrocnemius Name the concentric joint action and muscles that are used in each of the following exercises: Triceps Dip - ANSWER ââelbow extension, shoulder flexion, tricep, anterior delts, pectoralis major Name the concentric joint action and muscles that are used in each of the following exercises: High- Pulley Scapular Depression - ANSWER ââscapular depression, trapezius, pectoralis minor Name the concentric joint action and muscles that are used in each of the following exercises: Overhead Press - ANSWER ââshoulder abduction, scapula upward rotation, elbow extension, supraspinatus, trap, anterior serratus, triceps List at least five benefits of flexibility training - ANSWER ââdecrease risk of injury, chronic muscle tension, low back pain, improved posture, increased motor performance, decreased stress, relief of soreness Define flexibility - ANSWER ââthe range of motion around a joint or series of joints What are the ACSM guidelines for flexibility training? - ANSWER ââwarm up, static stretch major muscle tendon units and muscles and joints with reduced ROM, 2-5min (5-7rec) days per week, tightness not discomfort, 15-60 seconds, 4 or more reps List the muscles that are commonly tight - ANSWER ââupper trapezius, pectoralis major, anterior delt, erector spinae, iliospoas, hamstring, gastrocnemius, soleus Describe each of the following types of stretching: Ballistic Stretching - ANSWER ââbouncing, pulsing, rapid or uncontrolled types of movement Describe each of the following types of stretching: Static Stretching - ANSWER ââallows muscles to elongate Describe each of the following types of stretching: Active Stretching - ANSWER ââby yourself Describe each of the following types of stretching: Passive/Assisted Stretching - ANSWER ââaided Describe each of the following types of stretching: Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation - ANSWER ââstimulating receptors, hold and release List several factors that determine and influence flexibility - ANSWER ââgenetic bone structure, muscle fascial sheath, stress/tension, tight/loose ligaments, tight joint capsule, injury/trauma, pregnancy, age, core temp Describe at least two appropriate stretches for all the major muscle groups: Pectoralis Major/Anterior Deltoid - ANSWER ââwall/door stretch, butterfly, chest stretch Describe at least two appropriate stretches for all the major muscle groups: Trapezius/Rhomboid/Posterior Deltoid - ANSWER ââlateral flexion, cervical spinal flexion Describe at least two appropriate stretches for all the major muscle groups: Deltoids - ANSWER ââfront or back Describe at least two appropriate stretches for all the major muscle groups: Latissimus Dorsi - ANSWER ââforward arms, unilateral side Describe at least two appropriate stretches for all the major muscle groups: Triceps - ANSWER ââoverhead, arm front Describe at least two appropriate stretches for all the major muscle groups: Biceps - ANSWER ââbehind or infront Describe at least two appropriate stretches for all the major muscle groups: Rectus Abdominis - ANSWER ââcobra, pencil Describe at least two appropriate stretches for all the major muscle groups: Obliques - ANSWER ââknee twist down (supine), seated knee to chest twist Describe at least two appropriate stretches for all the major muscle groups: Erector Spinae - ANSWER ââknees to chest, cat stretch Personal trainers must be familiar with common muscle imbalances, list the muscles that generally need to be strengthened - ANSWER ââTraps, rhomboids, posterior delts, lower traps, pectoralis minor, external rotator cuff, abdominals, vastus medialis For the general public, which moves should be avoided or minimized in order to decrease the risk of injury? - ANSWER ââdeadlift, yoga plough, hurdlers stretch, straight leg sit-ups, ballistic stretches, knee bends, v-sit ups Name four shoulder joint injuries - ANSWER âârotator cuff tendonitis, bicep tendonitis, shoulder bursitis, impingement syndrome Name four mechanisms of shoulder joint injury - ANSWER ââspending too much time in the red zone, avoid extreme horizontal abduction, regular shoulder abduction above 90 degrees, allowing an imbalance to occur/continue List two injuries that can cause pain in the elbow - ANSWER ââlateral epicondylitits, medial epicondylitis Carpal Tunnel Syndrome - ANSWER ââpressure on wrist of median nerve -> tingling/numbness Neutral Spinal Alignment - ANSWER ââproper curves, extremities in alignment Forward Head - ANSWER ââchin tuck, ears in front of shoulders, chin forward Excessive Kyphosis - ANSWER ââhunchback, premature curvature, upper spine Excessive Lordosis - ANSWER ââswayback/increase in secondary curvature in lower back Scoliosis - ANSWER ââabnormal lateral (sideways) curvature of the spine Herniated Disk - ANSWER ââprotrusion of a degenerated/fragmented intervertebral disk List some strategies that are helpful in the management of excessive kyphosis - ANSWER ââStrengthening posterior deltoids, scapula, retractors, awareness List some good initial strategies that are helpful in the management of excessive lordosis - ANSWER ââstretch erector spinae and hip flexors List five exercise hazards for the low back - ANSWER ââspinal flexion with weights, spinal flexion with rotation, lateral flexion, back extensions, supine leg lifts ITB Syndrome - ANSWER ââinflammation of bursa, flexed knee, increased hip adduction and knee interior rotation (cyclist/runner) Piriformis Syndrome - ANSWER ââcompression of siatic nerve by piriformis Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome - ANSWER ââcontact of posterior surface of patella with femur Patellar Tendinitis - ANSWER ââinjury affecting tendon connecting kneecap to shin bone (jumpers) Ligament Injuries of the Knee - ANSWER ââanterior, posterior, and medial cruciate ligament Meniscus Tears - ANSWER ââtear of cartilage, sudden twist, varus/valgus stretch, hyperextension Open Kinetic Chain - ANSWER ââdistal segment moves freely (distal = away from torso) Closed Kinetic Chain - ANSWER ââstationary feet, proximal end moves (proximal = far from torso) Shin Splits - ANSWER ââpain and inflammation of tendons of flexor muscles over anterior tibia Anterior Compartment Syndrome - ANSWER ââmuscle too large for sheath, swelling and bleeding can occur Achilles Tendinitis - ANSWER ââpainful inflammation of achilles, caused by excessive stress Inversion Sprains - ANSWER ââinverting past the joints' normal range of motion Plantar Fasciitis - ANSWER ââinflammation of fascia usually of the heel Metatarsalgia - ANSWER ââinflammation of nerve between 3rd and 4th metatarsal List at least 10 pregnancy related changes to a woman's body - ANSWER ââincreased hr, bp, cardio output, potential compression of vena cava, increased fatigue, shortness of breath, increased BMR, difficulty sleeping, nausea, constipation and heartburn, decreased tolerance of heat, fluctuating emotions What are four potential risks or concerns of exercise during pregnancy - ANSWER ââstrenuous exercisers may gain less weight and have smaller babies, exercise may elevate body temp which affects the fetus, blood shunting from uterus to working muscle may restrict oxygen, repeated episodes of hypoglycemia may inhibit fetal growth, supine exercises may constrict vena cava Name at least four 2002 ACOG guidelines for exercise during pregnancy that affect programming - ANSWER ââpelvic floor exercises should eb performed, pregnant women should exercise, 30min or more per day of moderate exercise (12-14 on RPE) strenuous exercise should be monitored, weight lifting shouldn't be used unless the woman had been lifting before becoming pregnant Describe the procedure for checking to see if a client has diastasis recti - ANSWER ââsupine cruch, palpate center line, search for separation, +2in = needs recovery, push aps together during crunches but avoid excessive abdominal exercise Describe three abdominal exercises appropriate for most pregnant women after the first trimester - ANSWER ââstanding spinal flexion, side spinal flexion, hands and knees spinal flexion Sarcopenia - ANSWER ââloss of muscle mass, strength, function that comes with age What are signs of hypoglycemia - ANSWER ââexcessive fatigue, nausea, lightheadedness, dizziness, profuse perspiration, spots by eyes, confusion, shakiness, rapid hr, seizures Name four preventative steps a personal trainer can take to help persons with diabetes avoid a hypoglycemic reaction - ANSWER ââwork with doctor, avoid exercise after insulin injection, don't exercise at peak insulin action, eat carbs BDA List at least four recommendations for persons exercising with asthma - ANSWER ââlonger warm up, exercise in warm humid air, breathe through nose, 1-4 hr refectory period for ideal exercise after attack What are five major diseases/conditions affected by nutrition/body composition - ANSWER ââCHD, cancer, diabetes, metabolic syndrome, osteoporosis Describe the role and function of the following nutrient: Carbohydrates - ANSWER ââmain source of energy, simple + complex, 4cal/g Describe the role and function of the following nutrient: Protein - ANSWER ââbuilding/repairing lean tissue, 22 aminos, 13 produced, 9 essential, 4cal/g Describe the role and function of the following nutrient: Fat - ANSWER ââproducing energy, 9cal/g, saturated and unsaturated Describe the role and function of the following nutrient: Fiber - ANSWER ââindigestible, insoluble and soluble, 20-30g/day Describe the role and function of the following nutrient: Vitamins/minerals - ANSWER ââmicronutrients, vital to health and body processes Describe the role and function of the following nutrient: Water - ANSWER ââessential, 2/3 of body List the current guidelines for carbohydrate, fiber, protein, fat, and cholesterol consumption - ANSWER ââ45-65% carbs, 20-30g/day fiber, 0.8g/kg body weight (more for athletes), 20-30% fat, <200 (LDL <130, HDL > 40, triglycerides <150) List several strategies for reducing fat and cholesterol in your client's diet - ANSWER ââread labels, sub out read meat, small portions, limit saturated fats, increase HDL, stop smoking, increase soluble fiber What is the ACSM position stand on exercise and fluid replacement - ANSWER ââ500ml water 2hr prior and at regular intervals during, cool for best absorption, unflavored is best, sports drinks for 60+ minutes Describe the purpose behind the 2005 Food Guide Pyramid and what changes were made from the original 1992 Food Guide Pyramid - ANSWER ââindividual eating plan, age, gender, activity level, grains, veggies, fruit, milk, meat, beans and oil, 2000cal/day Glycemic Index - ANSWER ââcarb ranking based on food's affect on blood glucose levels Carbo Loading - ANSWER ââmaximize muscle glycogen stores before athletic event Anorexia Nervosa - ANSWER ââfear of weight gain, self-starvation Bulimia Nervosa - ANSWER ââbinge and purge Female Athlete Triad - ANSWER ââamenorrhea, osteoporosis, eating disorders To maintain normal metabolic rate and provide energy for activities of daily living (ADL), the ADA recommends ___ calories/day for men and ___ calories/day for women - ANSWER ââ1400, 1200 What are the three components of energy expenditure - ANSWER ââresting metabolic rate, energy used with exertion, excess post-oxygen consumption List several weight loss strategies - ANSWER ââ1-2 lbs/week, short term goals, small losses are good, read food labels List several strategies for healthful weight gain - ANSWER ââ3 hearty meals, large portions, frequent, high/cal nutrient dense meals, juice and milk, resistance training Calculate percentages of each nutrient in food - ANSWER ââg-> calories, divide by total In regards to behavior change, how does the Transtheoretical Model help personal trainers with their clients? - ANSWER ââallows them to be more effective agents of change for our clients List and describe the five stages of change - ANSWER ââpre-contemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance Define self-efficacy, and list several factors that may influence your feelings toward self-efficacy - ANSWER ââinner confidence of ability to accomplish a task, successful personal experience, vicariousness, verbal persuasion, measurable physiological responses List several barriers to exercise and ways to overcome them - ANSWER ââtime, effort, interest, lack of accessibility, money, fear of injury be active during daily life, short periods of time, earlier in the day Create a sample goal using the SMARTS system - ANSWER ââspecific, measurable, action-oriented, realistic/relevant, timed, self-determined List several ways to support behavior change in your clients - ANSWER ââemphasize benefits, positive feedback, prepare for setbacks, prevent boredom, minimize injuries, be a good role model Intrinsic Motivation - ANSWER ââinner motivation to accomplish a goal Extrinsic Motivation - ANSWER ââmotivation that comes from something or someone Avoidance Goals - ANSWER âânegative, anxiety, depression, less enjoyable