Ambulatory Care Nursing Certification 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025, Exams of Nursing

Download Ambulatory Care Nursing Certification 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Ambulatory Care Nursing Certification 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS 2024/2025 How many medications does it typically take to be considered "polypharmacy?" A -Three B -Ten C -Twenty-four D -Five or more D -Five or more The ANP knows that it is her responsibility to report certain things to the proper authorities. Which of the following is NOT required to be reported? A - gunshot wound B - suspected child abuse C - drug abuse D - stab wounds C - drug abuse Drug abuse is not required by law to be reported. Gunshot wounds, stab wounds, and child abuse (actual or suspected) are required to be reported to the proper authorities. Prior to undergoing an abdominal sonogram, the patient should do what? A - refrain from food and water for 12 hours B - empty his or her bladder C - drink a liter of water D - empty his or her bowels C - drink a liter of water Prior to an abdominal sonogram, the patient is asked to drink water. In addition fasting for 8 to 12 hours prior to the procedure is often required. Which of the following is NOT part of a nursing diagnosis? A - statement of the patient's actual health status B -signs of illness C - medical diagnosis (such as stroke or pulmonary blockage) D - symptoms of illness C - medical diagnosis Nursing diagnoses should never contain medical diagnoses. Rather, the nursing diagnosis is a statement of the patient's actual health status, risks for condition developing, causative and related factors, and signs and symptoms. Primary care would be considered the cornerstone of ambulatory care with nurses practicing in which of the following areas of healthcare? A - Telehealth services B - Internal medicine C - Pediatrics D - All of the above D - All of the above Which of the following would FDA stands for? A - Food and Drug Administration B - Food Depression Association C - Fixed Depression Administration D - None of the above a - Food and Drug Administration This is an agency which regulates both the development and sale of drugs. B - secondary C - tertiary D - annual A - primary Primary prevention, such as an immunization, aims to prevent health problems before they start. Secondary prevention promotes early detection and treatments of diseases. Tertiary prevention is designed to help a patient cope with a current problem or prevent relapse. "Annual" is not a type of prevention. For successful communication, the major criteria would include? A - Forcefulness B - Flexibility C - Evaluation D - Developmental B - Flexibility The 4 major criteria for successful communication would include: Feedback, Appropriateness, Efficiency, Flexibility A person's knowledge is sometimes measured by which of the following verbs? A -Recall B - List C - Remember D - All of the above D - all of the above Some of the verbs which might be used to measure a person's knowledge could include: Recall, List, Remember, Identify, State, Define A key value in association with "Baby Boomers" would be considered which of the following? A - Sacrifice B - Duty C -Respect for authority D - Involvement D - Involvement There are 3 key values that are associated with "Baby Boomers:" Involvement, Personal growth, Team You are assessing a patient prior to surgery and want to check for her surgical risk due to alcohol consumption. That patient tells you that her alcohol use varies and she does not seem willing to discuss how much she drinks. Which of the following is an appropriate strategy for getting the information you need? A -Present the patient with graphic images of the internal organs of people who abuse alcohol. B -Shame the patient into telling you what you need to know. C - Refer the patient to a social worker at the hospital. D - Ask a family member, such as the patient's spouse, about the patient's alcohol use. D - Ask a family member, such as the patient's spouse, about the patient's alcohol use. Which of the following is NOT a concern when developing health literacy education for patients? A - Literacy level. B - Cultural background. C - Language. D - Gender D - Gender When learning in the affective domain, it would involve internalization or commitment to which of the following? A - Feelings B - Interests C - Cognitive D - Both A and B D - Both A and B When a person is learning in the affective domain, it would involve internalization or commitment to: Feelings, Interests, Attitudes, Beliefs, Values Of the following, which would be considered the name for when it would reflect the chemical structure of a drug? A - Generic name B - Common name C - Trade name D - Chemical name D - Chemical name An older patient presents with swelling in the lower extremities. Which of the following should be ordered to rule out heart failure? A - CBC B - Spirometry study C - Brain natriuretic peptide test D - Ketone balances C - Brain natriuretic peptide test (BNP) The BNP measures levels of protein made by your heart will be higher than normal since it is produced by your blood vessels in your heart. Nurse Grace knows that the most effective way to educate her patient and assist in her patient care plan is to do what? A - Insist the patient follow the plan exactly as instructed. B - Create a schedule for the patient of future office visits and scheduled treatments. C - Establish a team effort with the patient in the teaching and learning process. D - Ask the patient to involve family members in her care planning. During which of the following situations is full barrier precautions likely to be required? A - Treating a patient with pneumonia. B - Treating a patient with chicken pox. C - Treating a patient who is suspected of having avian flu. D - Treating a patient with an open wound. C - Treating a patient who is suspected of having avian flu. Treating a patient who is suspected of having avian flu CDC guidelines recommend full barrier precautions for all known and suspected cases of avian flu, due to the high degree of transmission of the disease. Full barrier precautions are also used in treating patients with known or suspected cases of SARS and pandemic influenza, as well as hemorrhagic diseases ___________ would be considered the nurse's competency that results from training. A - Education B - Language C - Culture D - Proficiency D - Proficiency The ambulatory care nurse's role would have all except which of the following role dimensions? A - Workload B - Risk management C - Benefits D - Leadership C - Benefits Some of the role dimensions for the ambulatory care nurse would include: Workload, Risk management, Leadership, Staffing, Competency concerns, Workplace regulatory compliance Which of the following is NOT a nonmedical expense? A - Linen. B - Uniform. C - Office supplies. D - Hypodermics. D - Hypodermics. Of the following, which would not be a predisposing factor that might cause a patient to develop a tubercle bacillus infection? A - Cirrhosis B - Alcoholism C - Poor nutrition D - The health care workers that care for low-risk patients D - The health care workers that care for low-risk patients The ______ is supposed to protect the patients' rights, help them to participate in their healthcare decisions, and provide adequate healthcare education. A - Teacher B - Advocate C - Administrator D - None of the above B - Advocate When identifying barriers such as language which can obstruct the provision of optimal patient care, which standard of care with the Standards of Professional Clinical Practice for the Ambulatory Care Nurse would it be considered? A - Standard 6 B - Standard 1 C - Standard 4 D - Standard 3 B - Standard 1 These would include such barriers as language, behavioral health issues, and culture. Nurse Terri is assessing a female patient with red, itchy spots on various parts of the body. She mentions she has no allergies but has recently switched soaps and is trying a new detergent. Terri suspects this is what type of irritation? A - irritant contact dermatitis B - cellulitis C - allergic purpura D - psoriasis A - irritant contact dermatitis Irritant contact dermatitis is a type of rash that is caused by exposure to external irritants such as cosmetics, plants, or even fabrics, and is usually diagnosed when known allergies are not present. Patients can often experience this type of dermatitis when trying new cosmetics and laundry soaps and the problem will often be resolved once the use of this product is discontinued. How far out do most health care facilities' capital budgets plan? A - 5-10 years. B - Less than 1 year. C - 20 years. D - 1-3 years. D - 1-3 years. Because they deal with long-life items, most capital budgets plan for 1-3 years out from the present. It is important for nurses who work on budgets to be aware of their facility's capital budget plans for the next years so that they can appropriately request budget resources for their own units. A - Documentation of information Which of the following abnormal heart sounds is a result of the blood flowing past the normally closed valve? A - valve regurgitation B - valvular stenosis C - ventricular or atrial failure D - electrical conduction defects A - valve regurgitation The sound of valvular regurgitation is known as a murmur. Murmurs can have a blowing or swishing sound and are categorized in a degree of I to VI. Grade I murmurs are very soft, while grade VI murmurs are extremely loud and can be heard with the stethoscope one inch away from the chest wall. Each person has how many intelligences (according to Howard Garner's multiple intelligence theory)? A - 8 B - 12 C - 3 D - 38 A - 8 According to the Howard Garner's multiple intelligence theory, each individual has 8 intelligences. These intelligences form the basis for the individuals learning throughout their life. You are conducting an assessment with a male patient. It is important to know that a normal prostate is the size of what? A - grape B - peanut C - orange D - walnut D - walnut A normal prostate is the size of a walnut. An enlarged prostate can be a sign of prostate cancer or other health conditions. What type of budget should be done for a new practice? A - Zero based. B - Hyperlink Process. C - Historical based budget. D - Capital budget. A - Zero based. Established practices used historical based budgets that are based off previous years. Zero based budgets are used with new practices and requires expenses to be tracked and managed carefully. You are performing an assessment with a patient. On auscultation of heart sounds, you hear a scratching, creaking sound. Which of the following conditions might this heart sound indicate? A - congestive heart failure B - benign heart murmur C - pericarditis D - pneumothorax C - pericarditis. Patients with pericarditis will often have a scratching or creaking sound. This is known as a pericardial friction rub and results from inflammation of the pericardium. The 5 M's of categorizing information (according to the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis) would include all but which of the following? A - Materials B - Maneuvering C - Methods D - Machines B = Maneuvering The 5 M's of categorizing information (according to the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis) would include: Machines, Management, Manpower, Materials, Methods Where is the submental lymph node located? A - in the hollow of the clavicle B - right below the chin C - junction between back of head and neck D - behind the ears B - right below the chin The supraclavicular lymph node is in the hollow of the clavicle. The suboccipital lymph node is located in the junction between the back of the head and neck. The postauricular lymph node is behind the ears. The objective for nursing practice in each state would be considered all of the following except? A - Will define the practice of professional nursing. B - Provide the disciplinary action of licenses for certain causes. C - Will define the length of the shifts that the nurse may work. D - Would set the minimal educational qualifications and other requirements for licensure. C - Will define the length of the shifts that the nurse may work. The 4 objectives for the nursing practice in each state: Will determine the legal titles and abbreviations nurses may use. Would set the minimal educational qualifications and other requirements for licensure. Provide the disciplinary action of licenses for certain causes. Will define the practice of professional nursing. In negotiations the development of trust would include which of the following? A - Do not prepare beforehand B - Putting nurses on either permanent day or permanent night shifts. C - Keeping schedules as regular as possible. D - Encouraging employees to avoid caffeine, alcohol, and other substances that might interfere with sleep. B - Putting nurses on either permanent day or permanent night shifts. Shiftwork carries numerous risks, including sleep deprivation and resulting health issues such as immune system depression and digestive problems. Changing shifts often carries problems, but keeping employees on permanent night shifts also carries risks including loss of family time, health problems resulting from difficulties sleeping during the day, sleep deprivation, and emotional problems. Tips for the ambulatory care nurse in association with communication would not include? A- Use open ended questions B - Don't gather feedback from staff members C - Conduct communication at the proper time and place D - Use fewer words B - Don't gather feedback from staff members Communication tips would include: Use open ended questions. Gather feedback from staff members. Conduct communication at the proper time and place. Use fewer words. Watch language used, avoid using technical terms and acronym which might not be understood by all. Respect the viewpoints and opinions of other's. Use body language to show interest. Use communication to build "USA" - understanding, support, and acceptance At what point in the autoclaving process are wrapped items considered sterile? A - As soon as they reach the recommended temperature. B - Immediately on removal from the autoclave, even if wrapping is still wet. C - As soon as the wrapping is dry. D - As soon as they reach room temperature after removal from the autoclave and all wrappings are dry. D - As soon as they reach room temperature after removal from the autoclave and all wrappings are dry. It may take several hours for items to be fully dry and cool to room temperature after removing them from the autoclave. Wet packs must at all times be considered non- sterile, even if they have cooled to room temperature. In a clinical workflow chart, what is the link that moves the workflow forward between processes? A - Dynamic connector. B - Hyperlink Process. C - On-page connector. D - Off-page connector. B - Hyperlink Process. The hyperlink process is also called the hot link. It moves the workflow forward between processes. Which of the following is meant to standardize the patient care practices? A - OSHA regulations B - Respiratory Care protocols C - MSDS sheets D - USGS protocols B - Respiratory Care protocols __________ would be when a nurse is talking with a patient and their verbal communication doesn't match their non-verbal communication? A - Incongruent B - Congruent C - Discongruent D - Non-congruent A - Incongruent Which of the following classifications of medications contain "thy?" A - Sulfonamides B - Glucocorticoids and corticosteroids C - Thyroid hormones D - Nitrates C - Thyroid hormones Thyroid hormones contain "thy. "Glucocorticoids and costicosteroids end with "sone." Nitrates contain "nitr." Sulfonamides include "sulf." Of the following, which is the greatest risk factor for childhood obesity? A - Lack of cognitive stimulation. B - Poverty. C - Parental divorce. D - Parental Education. A - Lack of cognitive stimulation. While all the choices listed are risk factors, lack of cognitive stimulation is most strongly associated with childhood obesity. Healthcare education and screening must thus address this issue. A brief account by the patient of any signs or symptoms he or she is experiencing is known as what? A - functional assessment B - focused assessment C - review of systems D - systemic review C - review of systems In the review of systems, the patient tells the nurse in his or her own words what signs or symptoms he or she has experienced in various body systems. It is important that _________ would be considered the federal law which helps to protect the privacy of student educational records? A - FMLA B - ADA C - FERPA D - HIPAA C - FERPA FERPA stands for Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act. This is a federal law which helps to protect the privacy of student educational records. When defibrillating a patient, the second shock is typically at which dose? A - 100 B - 360 C - 200 to 300 D - 300 C - 200 to 300 When defibrillating a patient, the shock levels are typically:First-200 joules, Second-200 to 300 joules, All of the rest-360 joules In the clinic, which step of the nursing process does Nurse Betty use to determine if the patient understands the health information he was just presented? A - implementation B - evaluation C - assessment D - goal planning B - evaluation The evaluation step of the nursing process includes the nurse observing the patient and asking questions to get a better idea of the person as a whole and to ensure he is learning the health information needed. This also gives the patient a chance to ask questions and clear up any misunderstandings. A hospitalized patient is diagnosed with pressure ulcers. What is one type of independent nursing intervention that can be used to help the patient? A - Apply a drying agent to reduce moisture at the site. B - Change the patient's positions to minimize pressure on the ulcers. C - Order surgical removal of the necrotic tissue. D - Soak the areas in Epsom salt. B - Change the patient's positions to minimize pressure on the ulcers. Changing a patient's position reduces stress and pressure to the ulcer site and promotes healing. Applying a drying agent would not be effective since wounds need moisture to heal, and soaking would not relieve pressure and could spread infection. Surgical removal of the tissue would need to be prescribed and performed by a physician. The nurse is educating an adult patient regarding medications for asthma. Which order would be the most appropriate for administration? A - Albuterol, Flovent, Tobramycin B - Flovent, Intal, Tobramycin C - Tobramycin, Intal, Albuterol D - Intal, Tobramycin, Albuterol A - Albuterol, Flovent, Tobramycin Telephone triage may be a responsibility of the ambulatory care nurse. What are the appropriate components of telephone triage? A - The nurse should give generic information and leave the responsibility to the patient or caller B - The nurse should immediately call 911 C - The nurse should state that he or she is unable to discuss medical information and refer the patient to the primary care physician D - The nurse must clearly identify him- or herself, take a quick and accurate history, and quickly be able to make a decision D - The nurse must clearly identify him- or herself, take a quick and accurate history, and quickly be able to make a decision What are the best question types to ask when gaining information from a patient? A - specific, open-ended questions regarding current symptoms and medical history B - general questions with yes or no answers C - questions related to childhood diseases D - demographics questions A - specific, open-ended questions regarding current symptoms and medical history In what order would the nurse prioritize the care of the following patients presenting to the clinic at the same time: a parent carrying a smiling infant with a fever, a pale and sweaty male with flank pain for two days, a carpenter with a nail in his thumb, and a three-year-old with vomiting. A - flank pain, three-year-old with vomiting, infant with a fever, and man with the nail B - three-year-old with vomiting, flank pain, man with the nail, and infant with fever C - flank pain, infant with fever, three-year-old with vomiting, and man with the nail D - three-year-old with vomiting, infant with fever, flank pain, and man with the nail A - flank pain, three-year-old with vomiting, infant with a fever, and man with the nail Mom has described her child's symptoms as fever for three days and vomiting for the last 24 hours. She states the child has been very sleepy for the last two to three hours. What subtle symptom alerts the nurse that this child needs to be seen as soon as possible? A - You suspect there is more to his complaint than he states and immediately begin a cardiac workup by placing him in a room and ordering an EKG Each person has how many intelligences (according to Howard Garner's multiple intelligence theory)? 8 - According to the Howard Garner's multiple intelligence theory, each individual has 8 intelligences. These intelligences form the basis for the individuals learning throughout their life. You are conducting an assessment with a male patient. It is important to know that a normal prostate is the size of what? A -grape B -peanut C -orange D -walnut D - Walnut What type of budget should be done for a new practice? A- Zero based B -Hyperlink Process C -Historical based budget D -Capital budget. A - Zero based - Zero based budgets are used with new practices and requires expenses to be tracked and managed carefully. You are performing an assessment with a patient. On auscultation of heart sounds, you hear a scratching, creaking sound. Which of the following conditions might this heart sound indicate? A -congestive heart failure B -benign heart murmur C -pericarditis D -pneumothorax C - pericarditis - Patients with pericarditis will often have a scratching or creaking sound. This is known as a pericardial friction rub and results from inflammation of the pericardium. The 5 M's of categorizing information (according to the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis) would include all but which of the following? A -Materials B -Maneuvering C -Methods D -Machines B - maneuvering is not 5 Ms-Machines, Management, Manpower, Materials, Methods Where is the submental lymph node located? A -in the hollow of the clavicle B -right below the chin C -junction between back of head and neck D -behind the ears B - right below the chin The supraclavicular lymph node is in the hollow of the clavicle. The suboccipital lymph node is located in the junction between the back of the head and neck. The postauricular lymph node is behind the ears. Which of the following platelet counts puts your patient at serious risk of bleeding? A -15,000/mm3 B -50,000/mm3 C -100,000/mm3 D -145,000/mm3 A - 15,000 While all the choices given indicate that the patient's platelet count is lower than the acceptable range, not all the counts are low enough to cause concern for increased bleeding. Platelet counts below 20,000/mm3 do put patients at increased risk of bleeding, A disinfectant solution needs to be marked with the name, _______. A -Date prepared and the date expired. B -Date prepared. C -Date expired. D -Solution density. A - Date prepared and the date expired. A nurse encourages a patient with diabetes to eat healthier and exercise using open ended questions and encouragement. What type of interview is she using? A -Community education. B -Motivational interview. C -Group education. D -Aligning with the patient. B -Motivational interview. Some primary indications for a patient to have a pacemaker implanted? A -Heart block B -Bradyarrhythmias C -Asystole D -All of the above D -All of the above The following indications would be for the patient that is symptomatic or those refractory to pharmacological therapy. Some of the primary indications for a patient to have a pacemaker implanted would include: Asystole, Sick-sinus syndrome, Atrial tachyarrhythmias, Bradyarrhythmias, Heart block or she has forgotten eyeglasses at home. D -The patient does not ask questions during the appointment. B -The patient is not Caucasian. The ambulatory care nurse's role would have all except which of the following role dimensions? A -Workload B -Risk management C -Benefits D -Leadership C -Benefits Some of the role dimensions for the ambulatory care nurse would include: Workload, Risk management, Leadership, Staffing, Competency concerns, Workplace, regulatory compliance When identifying barriers such as language which can obstruct the provision of optimal patient care, which standard of care with the Standards of Professional Clinical Practice for the Ambulatory Care Nurse would it be considered? A -Standard 6 B -Standard 1 C -Standard 4 D -Standard 3 B -Standard 1 Standard 1 in the Standards of Professional Clinical Practice for ambulatory care nursing would include the identification of barriers to promote optimal care. These would include such barriers as language, behavioral health issues, and culture. How far out do most health care facilities' capital budgets plan? A -5-10 years. B -Less than 1 year. C -20 years. D -1-3 years. D -1-3 years. Because they deal with long-life items, most capital budgets plan for 1-3 years out from the present. It is important for nurses who work on budgets to be aware of their facility's capital budget plans for the next years so that they can appropriately request budget resources for their own units. would be when a leader aligns themselves with others to help obtain information, ideas, advice, power, and influence? A -Consensus-building B -Negotiation C -Networking D -Development C -Networking Networking would be when a leader aligns themselves with others to help obtain information, ideas, advice, power, and influence. The most effective negotiation process would have a win-win outcome. What is the MOST effective form of research a nurse can do before establishing a diabetes prevention course for patients? A -Making a list of the local endocrinologists that are currently treating diabetic patients. B -Estimating what age groups would attend the course. C -Documenting what causes diabetes and why. D -Finding diabetic-friendly recipes to share with the class. C -Documenting what causes diabetes and why. When a nurse is planning an event to raise awareness of preventing a disease, the first types of research that should be done is what causes the disease and why. Once this information is documented, the nurse can build her lesson around methods of prevention, warnings signs, etc. Which of the following abnormal heart sounds is a result of the blood flowing past the normally closed valve? A - valve regurgitation B -valvular stenosis C -ventricular or atrial failure D -electrical conduction defects A - valve regurgitation The sound of valvular regurgitation is known as a murmur. Murmurs can have a blowing or swishing sound and are categorized in a degree of I to VI. Grade I murmurs are very soft, while grade VI murmurs are extremely loud and can be heard with the stethoscope one inch away from the chest wall. Each person has how many intelligences (according to Howard Garner's multiple intelligence theory)? A -8 B -12 C -3 D -38 A -8 Tips for the ambulatory care nurse in association with communication would NOT include? A -Use open ended questions B -Don't gather feedback from staff members C -Conduct communication at the proper time and place D -Use fewer words B -Don't gather feedback from staff members _________ would be considered the federal law which helps to protect the privacy of student educational records? A -FMLA B -ADA C -FERPA D -HIPAA C -FERPA FERPA stands for Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act. This is a federal law which helps to protect the privacy of student educational records. When defibrillating a patient, the second shock is typically at which dose? A -100 B -360 C -200 to 300 D -300 C -200 to 300 When defibrillating a patient, the shock levels are typically: First-200 joules Second-200 to 300 joules All of the rest-360 joules You are conducting an assessment with a patient who says that sometimes she feels as though she should have been born male. She prefers to dress in men's clothing and feels disgust toward the overtly female parts of her body. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient? A- delusions B -thought processes, altered C -gender dysphoria D -personal identity disturbance C -gender dysphoria This patient is demonstrating gender dysphoria. Gender dysphoria is the feeling of discomfort or distress that might occur in people whose gender identity differs from their sex assigned at birth or sex-related physical characteristics. What is the overarching vision of Healthy People 2020? A -To provide universal health care. B- To promote a society in which all people live long, healthy lives. C -To eliminate poverty worldwide. D -To reduce healthcare costs. B- To promote a society in which all people live long, healthy lives. Which of the following is a qualitative method used in nursing research? A -Charting changes in blood pressure over time. B -Survey questions that ask patients to rate their satisfaction on a scale of 0 to 10. C -Analyzing patient narratives to discover what education they received about their diagnoses. D -Data charting the number of nursing hours per patient day over the last two years. C -Analyzing patient narratives to discover what education they received about their diagnoses. Qualitative research looks at the patient's response to his actual or potential medical issues. This method looks at the "why" and "how" of decision-making. NIC would stand for which of the following? A -Neurology Institute Classes B -Nerve Institute Commission C -Nursing Interventions Classifications D -Neuropathy Insurance Classes C -Nursing Interventions Classifications A defibrillator would be used for which of the following cardiac rhythms? A -Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B -Atrial tachycardia C -Second degree block D -Sinus bradycardia A -Pulseless ventricular tachycardia A defibrillator would be used for: Pulseless ventricular tachycardia & Ventricular fibrillation Objectives of ambulatory care nursing would include all but which of the following? A - To help minimize suffering B - To decrease the cost of the patient's healthcare C -To prevent injury D -To protect the patient's health B - To decrease the cost of the patient's healthcare Some objectives of ambulatory care nursing would include: To help minimize suffering, prevent injury, protect the patient's health, promote the patient's health, maximize health literacy/education, prevent illness, apply nursing interventions to human responses in health, illness, disease, disability, and end-of-life circumstances, actively advocate for optimal coordinated healthcare of families, individuals, communities, and populations that are aimed at the improvement of the whole person's well-being. How often should biological indicators be tested? A -Daily B -Hourly C -Weekly D -After each use of a machine. C -Weekly A -Synthesis B -Inferences C -Explanation D -Interpretation A -Synthesis The skills used for critical thinking would be: Inferences, Explanation, Interpretation, Analysis If the ambulatory care nurse is looking at a chest x-ray, the posterior ribs will appear as? A -Circular angle B -At a sharper downward angle C -At a curved downward angle D -At a curved upward angle B -At a SHARPER downward angle The stages of Kohlberg's Stages of Moral Reasoning would include?A - Preconventional B -Ultraconventional C -Concurrent D -Provisional A -Preconventional The 3 stages of Kohlberg's Stages of Moral Reasoning as a function of cognitive development: Preconventional, Conventional, Postconventional Which of the following would be considered the branch of pharmacology that includes the use of the medications to treat, prevent or diagnose? A -Pharmacogenetics B -Pharmacotherapeutics C -Pharmacokinetics D -None of the above B -Pharmacotherapeutics The branch of pharmacology that includes the use of medications to treat, prevent or diagnose would be considered pharmacotherapeutics. Pharmacology would be considered the study of medications, which also includes the medications interactions with living systems. __________ would be when the patient's verbal communication matches their non-verbal communication? A -Discongruent B -Congruent C -Non-congruent D -Incongruent B -Congruent The term which would be used to mean the art of teaching adults would be considered which of the following? A -Andragogy B -Visions C -Consultation D -Instructing A -Andragogy Which of the following is the largest category of expenditure for most health care facilities? A -Operating budget B -Personnel budget C -Capital budget D -Malpractice insurance. B -Personnel budget The acronym "ABCD" (associated with written objectives) stands for which of the following? A -Ambition, behavioral, confusion, and diffusion B -Audience, behavioral, condition, and degree of attainment C -Analysis, benign, commission, and district D -Able, believable, conditioning, and delivery B -Audience, behavioral, condition, and degree of attainment A nurse is examining a skin growth on one of her patients. The patients hasn't felt any symptoms but has noticed the growth is starting to look abnormal. This type of examination is considered what type of prevention? A -Infectious B -Secondary C -Primary D -Primordial. B -Secondary Secondary Examining the abnormal skin growth is an example of secondary prevention due to the fact the patient has already come forward with an abnormality or possible illness and the nurse is examining it to ensure there are no further complications from it. Although the patient is not having symptoms at this time, the nurse will monitor the growth to see if he will in the future. A parent with whom you are discussing immunizations says that she refuses to vaccinate her child because vaccines cause autism. What model of health are you encountering in this situation? A -Clinical model B -Holistic model. C -Health belief model D -Total wellness model. get a clear picture of the heart with regular echocardiography. Patients with a history of gastroesophageal disease, who have dysphagia, and who are allergic to topic anesthetics are not considered candidates for TEE. Which of the following methods is MOST effective for measuring the effectiveness of a community program to reduce childhood obesity?A -Compare national rates of childhood obesity from before and after program implementation. B -Compare citywide rates of childhood obesity from before and after program implementation. C -Follow up with program participants after 6 months to see if they have experienced weight loss. D -Conduct a new survey to see how many children in the community are overweight. C -Follow up with program participants after 6 months to see if they have experienced weight loss. This strategy is most likely to indicate the effectiveness of the program because if measures effects on those who actually participated in the program. Comparing national or citywide rates does not reveal whether a specific intervention had any effect on childhood obesity. Which of the following is an example of objective data? A -Patient reports feeling chills. B -Patient has a fever. C -Patient has a temperature of 102° F. D -Patient has as elevated temperature. C -Patient has a temperature of 102° F. Objective data must be measurable and verifiable. Simply saying the patient has a fever or an elevated temperature does not tell the health care team very much. Providing a direct measurement of the patient's temperature is far more useful in crafting a care plan and diagnosis. How many liters does interstitial fluid need to exceed before it becomes apparent? A -2.5 to 3.5 liters B -4.0 to 5.5 liters C -2.5 to 3 liters D -1.0 to 1.5 liters C -2.5 to 3 liters The patient's interstitial fluid needs to exceed 2.5 to 3 liters before it becomes apparent. This edema is typically caused by expansion of the interstitial fluid volume. Nurse Nicole's patient has been diagnosed with severe poison ivy rash. Which of the following statements is not accurate advice Nurse Nicole might give to her patient? A -Resist scratching as it can cause the rash to spread. B -Take short, lukewarm baths or cool showers. C -Apply calamine lotion or hydrocortisone cream to itchy patches. D -Cover with cool compresses for several minutes at a time. A -Resist scratching as it can cause the rash to spread. As an ANP, you will have to counsel on dietary intake. The following are accurate statements regarding dietary intake except for: A -The EAR is the Estimated Average Requirement. B -Adequate Intake (AI) is the recommended average daily intake level based on observed or experimentally determined estimates of nutrient intakes by a group of healthy people. C -The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the average daily dietary nutrient intake level sufficient to meet nutrient requirements of nearly all healthy individuals. D -The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (TUIL) is the highest number of calories allowed for a certain weight. D -The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (TUIL) is the highest number of calories allowed for a certain weight. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level is the highest average daily nutrient intake level that is likely to pose no risk of adverse effects to almost all individuals of the general population. The 6 clinical practice standards for the ambulatory care nursing would include all but which of the following? A -Financial B -Nursing diagnosis C -Planning D -Evaluation A -Financial There are 6 clinical practice standards for the ambulatory care nursing: Assessment, Nursing diagnosis, Identification of expected outcomes/goals, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation The more common side effects of anticholinergics would include all but which of the following? A -Hyperpyrexia B -Dry lips C -Blurred vision D -Schizophrenia D -Schizophrenia With learning, the person typically changes which of the following because of knowledge that is new? A -Occupations B -Behavior C -Physical functional status D -Financial process strength. C -The patient should restrict his fluid intake. D -The patient should take steps to stay adequately hydrated. C -The patient should restrict his fluid intake. Good hydration may actually help prevent pressure ulcers. Wheelchair users should also shift position every 15 minutes or so, or use pressure-release wheelchairs, to help lower their risk of ulcers. Patients with sufficient upper-body strength can also do wheelchair pushups to relieve pressure. Nurse Jan is examining a patient in the clinic who has been recently diagnosed with emphysema. While in the office he becomes short of breath and restless. What is the best instruction Jan can provide with her assessment? A -to take deep breaths very slowly B -to hold his breath for 15 seconds or until he is calm C -to take rapid shallow breaths to increase air flow D -to perform pursed lip breathing. D -to perform pursed lip breathing. The process of pursed lip breathing is designed to prevent the collapse of the lung and lung tissues. This breathing also helps the patient control his own rate and depth of his breathing, which calms and soothes the patient during stressful moments. Which of the following is an example of indirect costs? A -Medical equipment. B -Gas. C -Salaries. D -Insurance. B -Gas. According to Bloom's Taxonomy in 1956, which of the following would be considered a learning domain? A -Concurrent B -Release C -Affective D -Assumption C -Affective According to Bloom, the 3 learning domains would be: Cognitive, Affective, Psychomotor The limitations when using technology for learning would include all but which of the following? A -There would be face-to-face training time B -Computer literacy of learner and instructor C -Content not appropriate for technology D -The cost is high A -There would be face-to-face training time You are providing pre-procedural care to a patient who will undergo TEE. Which of the following is NOT part of patient preparation for this procedure? A -The patient should fast for 6 hours prior to the procedure. B -The back of the patient's throat is sprayed with topical anesthetic. C -The patient should remove dentures. D -The patient is put under general anesthetic. B -The back of the patient's throat is sprayed with topical anesthetic. Common side effects of loop diuretics would include which of the following? A -Ototoxicity B -Confusion C -Dehydration D -All of the above D -All of the above According to the number 1 provision of The Ethics for Nurses (ANA), which should a nurse practice? A -To practice with compassion and respect B -Preserve integrity and safety C -Collaborate with others to meet health needs D -None of the above A -To practice with compassion and respect -number 5 provision of the ANA code of Ethics for Nurses defines that the nurse should preserve integrity and safety. Side effects of thiazides (diuretics) would include all but which of the following? A -Hyperglycemia B -Hypercalcemia C -Pancreatitis D -Diarrhea D -Diarrhea The more common side effects of thiazides would include: Hyperglycemia, Hypercalcemia, Pancreatitis, Hypokalemia, Dehydration, hyperuricemia, Hyponatremia The ambulatory care nurse is assessing a patient that has been taking Tums on a regular basis for the past 6 months. If hypercalcemia is suspected, which of the following would be considered a potential symptom? A -Bradycardia B -Anorexia C -Hypertension D -Abdominal B -Anorexia Some more common symptoms of hypercalcemia would include: Anorexia, Headaches, Nausea, Vomiting, Confusion Which of the following is NOT likely to present a barrier to patient learning? A -Pain. B -Anxiety about paying for treatment. C -Lack of information about the diagnosis on the part of the patient. D -Negative past experiences with medical care. C -Lack of information about the diagnosis on the part of the patient. Which of the following is used to sterilize medical equipment that is sensitive to heat or moisture? A -Autoclave. B -Ethylene Oxide. C -Peracetic acid. D -Microwaves. B -Ethylene Oxide. Ethylene oxide gas is used to sterlize items that are sensitive to heat and moisture. A patient who is suffering from dehydration would be expected to have which of the following urine specific gravities? A -1.010 B -1.04 C -1.02 D -1.004 B -1.04 Urine specific gravity increases when the concentration of solutes in urine increases. This occurs with dehydration. A urine specific gravity of greater than 1.035 is considered a sign of frank dehydration. You are conducting an assessment with a patient who is 50 pounds over his recommended weight. In the course of the interview, you discuss what he eats in a day. He appears to regularly be consuming nearly twice the recommend number of calories. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for this patient? A -altered nutrition B -nutrition, more than body requires C -nutrition, more than body requires, altered D -risk for obesity B -nutrition, more than body requires Because the patient appears to eat an excess of calories regularly, this is not an altered pattern. You need to record the temperature and ____ of dry-heat oven with each use. A -Items cleaned. B -Chemical indicators. C -Time. D -Biological indicators. C -Time. A log should be filled in each time that a dry-heat oven is used. This should include the temperature and duration of use. Of the following, which ethnic/racial group has the lowest effectiveness rate when using interferon treatments for chronic hepatitis C treatment? A -White non-Hispanic B -African-American C -Hispanic D -None of the above B -African-American Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of motivational interviewing? A -Guiding stage. B -Following stage. C -Directing stage. D -Recommendation stage. D -Recommendation stage. A condition in which the fluid in the chest of a pneumonia patient becomes infected is known as what? A -bactermi B -empyema.C -sepsis D- pneumothorax B -empyema. This condition occurs when the fluid in the lungs becomes infected. A chest tube, or more rarely surgery, is required for treatment. A principle of professional boundaries would not include? A -It would be the responsibility of the patient to delineate and maintain boundaries between themselves and the nurses. B -The nurse should always work within the "zone of helpfulness," C -The nurse would be the person responsible for delineating and maintaining boundaries between themselves and patients. D -The nurse should avoid any dual relationships with patients. A -It would be the responsibility of the patient to delineate and maintain boundaries between themselves and the nurses. In regards to behavior, which of the following would CARE stand for? A -Commission, assessment, realism, and encourage B -Clarify, assess, realistic, and evaluation C -Clarify, articulate, request, and encourage D -Check, analyze, revolve, and encourage B -Clarify, assess, realistic, and evaluation Which of the following has the MOST influence on an individual's health status? A -Income. B -Gender B -Race. F - Health literacy. B -tilt table test C -blood oxygen test D -CAT scan B -tilt table test The tilt table test is considered the most reliable way to determine whether fainting spells are common or malignant. This noninvasive test measures the way the patient's blood pressure and heart rate respond to changes in position. How many hours of work is .1 FTE? A -2 B -1 C -4 D -3 C -4 Four hours make up .1 FTEs. A single FTE is 40 hours of work or a full time work week. Which of the following would be considered the fundamental belief that the moral rightness of an action would be determined solely by it's consequences? A -Deontology B -Utilitarianism C -Autonomy D -Virtue ethics B -Utilitarianism Utilitarianism is often used as the basis for deciding how healthcare dollars should be used. In the United States, which ethnic/racial group has the highest incidence of asthma? A -Hispanic B -White-non Hispanic C -African-American D -Chinese C -African-American When performing a test, its reliability can be affected by all but which of the following? A -The type of test items B -Group variability C -The number of test items D -The difficulty of the test items A -The type of test items Your patient brings you some information about her condition that she has printed off of the Internet. Which of the following should give you concerns about its validity? A -It is from WebMD. B -It is from the website of a university with a well known medical school. C -No references are listed. D -The article focuses on the negative outcomes of your patient's condition. C -No references are listed. The "Generation X" was born between 1960 and 1980. Which of the following would not be considered a key value for them? A -Optimism B -Flexibility C -Self-reliance D -Diversity A -Optimism The key values for the "Generation X" would include: Diversity Self-reliance Practicality Work/life balance Flexibility Skepticism In an ambulatory care environment, keeping data in a central location so that it can be maintained in the library and retrieved by other healthcare professionals for use in deciding care is referred to as which of the following? A -History based tracking B -Evidence based medicine C -Evidence tracking system D -Symptom tracking system B -Evidence based medicine This allows other doctors to be more informed about the things that are going on in the area and adapt to them. Patient Joseph comes into the ER admitting he may have overdosed on something. Nurse Cheryl observes how the patient is very tense and irritable and suspects he may have overdosed on which of the following? A -over the counter pain relievers B -clinical sedatives C -amphetamines D -barbiturates C-Amphetamines are stimulants that affect the central nervous system and are prone to addiction or abuse due to the feeling of wakefulness or euphoria it produces. If an overdose occurs, tension and irritability are increased and can lead to poor body function and even death. How long are items considered sterile if they were unwrapped when autoclaved? A -One week, as long as they are kept in a sterile container. B -One week. D -Adalat Lanoxin is a digitalis medicine commonly used in patients with heart conditions. Bumex is a loop diuretic. Zestril is an ACE inhibitor. The culture that would be at a lower risk to develop diabetes mellitus would be considered? A -Non-Hispanic white B -Hispanic American C -Native American D -African American A -Non-Hispanic white Native Americans, African Americans, and Hispanic Americans are more prone to develop diabetes mellitus. The method of adding a video camera to a fluoroscope in order to have a photographic record of the diagnostic procedure is known as what? A -radiography B -cineradiography C -ultrasonography D -videography B -cineradiography In cineradiography, a video camera is attached to the fluoroscope. In this way, there is photographic/video documentation of the movement the fluoroscopy is designed to examine, allowing for better diagnosis. In the United States, which organization regulates the development and sale of medications? A -DOJ B -OSHA C -USDHHS D -AMA C -USDHHS stands for United States Department of Health and Human Services. This is the organization which regulates the development and sale of medications. They help assure safety and efficacy. Which of the following is effective at treating pernicious anemia? A -Nembutal B -Hydroxocobalamin IM C -Azulfidine D -Esidrix B -Hydroxocobalamin IM Nembutal is used for status epilepticus; and Azulfidine, rheumatoid arthritis. Esidrix treats diabetes insipidus. Report a problem with this question The ANP knows that certain persons may require additional immunizations. The following are all in this category except for: A -food handlers B -animal workers C -factory workers D -travelers C -factory workers What determines how nurse practitioners bill for reimbursement? A -Federal law. B -Insurance coding. C -Clinic studies. D -State law. D -State law. The role of nurse practitioners is regulated by the state. Nurse practitioners may bill for services rendered under a doctor or by themselves. It depends on state law. The sharing of information and best practices with the goal of improving care is known as what? A -Quality assurance. B -Health literacy. C -Evidence based nursing. D -Benchmarking. D -Benchmarking. Benchmarking is the process of sharing information and best practices to improve care. This is different from simply sharing information in that the stated goal of benchmarking is to improve standards of care, rather than just sharing information that is "good to have." Which of the domains of learning would be the ways of knowing? A -Cognitive domain B -Independent domain C -Current domain D -Affective domain A -Cognitive domain The cognitive domain would be the ways of knowing. The affective domain would be the ways of feeling. You are conducting an assessment with a patient who reports difficulty urinating, though her bladder always feels full. There is a burning sensation when she does urinate. She says that she tries to avoid going to the bathroom because it is so uncomfortable. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient? A -urinary elimination: altered, r/t pain on urination B -urinary tract infection C -decreased urination D -bathroom habits, altered In association with ambulatory care nursing, the sources of law would include all but which of the following? A -Regulations B- Statues of code C -Civil law D -City codes D -City codes All of the following are true regarding developmental theory except: A -The pace of development varies among individuals. B -Stress does not impact development. C -All development is patterned, orderly, and predictable with both a purpose and a direction. D -Development is continuous throughout life, although the degree of change in many areas decreases after adolescence. B -Stress does not impact development. Which of the following pharmacological treatments is more efficient for an African American with hypertension that has been taking Lisinopril? A -Beta blockers B -Thiazide diuretic C -Fast acting vacillator D -Prinivil B -Thiazide diuretic Thiazide diuretic is more efficient for an African American with hypertension that has been taking Lisinopril. This type of medication blocks the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidney's tubules. Areas of risks which might cause legal problems for ambulatory care nurse could include? A -Standards of nursing practice B -Documentation accuracy C -Collection of data D -All of the above D -All of the above Which of the following is an abnormal heart sound state in which a mitral or tricuspid creates a murmur during diastole? A -valve regurgitation B -valvular stenosis C -ventricular or atrial failure D -electrical conduction defects B -valvular stenosis Aortic or pulmonic stenosis create systolic murmurs. Murmurs due to valvular stenosis are similar to the sounds of murmurs due to valve regurgitation but the reasons for the murmurs are different. Some more common side effects of folic acid would include all of the following except? A -Hypocalcemia B -Behavior changes C -Seizures D -Excitability A -Hypocalcemia To help produce learning, the following is typically transmitted? A -Behavior B -Evaluations C -Experiences D -Flexibility C -Experiences If the elderly patient is admitted with the main complaint of swelling in their lower extremities, the differential diagnosis which could potentially be considered would include which of the following? A -Hepatic venous obstruction B -Local venous obstruction C -Idiopathic edema D -All of the above D -All of the above You are listening to a patient's breath sounds. They are high-pitched and whistling. Which of the following is the best way to describe these breath sounds? A -wheezing B -sibilant C -Sonorous. D -stridor B -sibilant Behavioral theory (behaviorism) focuses on which of the following? A -Measurable behavior B -Provisional behavior C -Concurrent behavior D -Extreme behavior A -Measurable behavior With behaviorism, behavioral theory focuses on: Measurable behavior, Observable behavior, Overt behavior When a patient is taking feverfew and needs to stop taking it, it should be tapered off. If not tapered, it can cause which of the following symptoms of feverfew syndrome? A -Joint pain The side effects of acetaminophen would include all but which of the following? A -Severe headache B -Angioedema C -Hives D -Liver damage A -Severe headache Some of the more common side effects of acetaminophen would include: Angioedema, Hives, Anemia if it is used long-term, Liver damage, Dyspnea if prolonged high doses are used, Itching You are conducting an assessment with a patient who expresses concern about a mole on her forearm. The mole has gotten a bit larger over the last year. The edges are irregular and the mole varies from light to dark brown. Which of the following procedures is likely to be recommended for this patient? A -excisional biopsy B -punch biopsy C -scrape biopsy D -shave biopsy A -excisional biopsy. Because an excisional biopsy removes the full lesion, it is preferred for cases of suspected malignancy. Glucatrol is to glipizide as Prandin is to what? A - repaglinide B -troglitazone C -acarbose D -metformin A - repaglinide Glucatrol is the brand name for Glipizide. Prandin is the brand name for repaglinide. What is generally the largest payer? A -Consumers B -Employers. C -Government organizations. D -Private insurance. C -Government organizations. The incubation period for hepatitis A would be considered? A -3-5 weeks B -10-12 weeks C -6-7 days D -16-24 weeks A -3-5 weeks The incubation time for this disease is 3-5 weeks. The individuals are considered infectious usually 2 weeks before the onset of the jaundice. What is calculated by using the number of visits covered by a carrier and the total number of office visits? A -Reimbursement rate. B -Net income. C -Historical based budget. D -Payer mix. D -Payer mix. The payer mix is used to determine the reimbursement rate. It is found comparing number of visits covered by a carrier with the total number of office visits. This shows the percentage that each carrier pays into the budget. Guidelines for what a reasonably prudent nurse would do under a similar circumstance would be considered which of the following? A -Codes B -Standard of care C -Policies D -Self-care B -Standard of care.