Ambulatory Care Nursing Certification Questions and Answers 2022, Exams of Nursing

Download Ambulatory Care Nursing Certification Questions and Answers 2022 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Ambulatory Care Nursing Certification Questions and Answers How many medications does it typically take to be considered "polypharmacy?" A -Three B -Ten C -Twenty-four D -Five or more - ✅ D -Five or more The ANP knows that it is her responsibility to report certain things to the proper authorities. Which of the following is NOT required to be reported? A - gunshot wound B - suspected child abuse C - drug abuse D - stab wounds - ✅ C - drug abuse Drug abuse is not required by law to be reported. Gunshot wounds, stab wounds, and child abuse (actual or suspected) are required to be reported to the proper authorities. Prior to undergoing an abdominal sonogram, the patient should do what? A - refrain from food and water for 12 hours B - empty his or her bladder C - drink a liter of water D - empty his or her bowels - ✅ C - drink a liter of water Prior to an abdominal sonogram, the patient is asked to drink water. In addition fasting for 8 to 12 hours prior to the procedure is often required. Which of the following is NOT part of a nursing diagnosis? A - statement of the patient's actual health status B -signs of illness C - medical diagnosis (such as stroke or pulmonary blockage) D - symptoms of illness - ✅ C - medical diagnosis Nursing diagnoses should never contain medical diagnoses. Rather, the nursing diagnosis is a statement of the patient's actual health status, risks for condition developing, causative and related factors, and signs and symptoms. Primary care would be considered the cornerstone of ambulatory care with nurses practicing in which of the following areas of healthcare? A - Telehealth services B - Internal medicine C - Pediatrics D - All of the above - ✅ D - All of the above Which of the following would FDA stands for? A - Food and Drug Administration B - Food Depression Association C - Fixed Depression Administration D - None of the above - ✅ a - Food and Drug Administration This is an agency which regulates both the development and sale of drugs. Endoscopes are cleaned and _____. A - High level disinfected. B - Sterilized. C - Low level disinfected. D - Intermediate level disinfected. - ✅ A - High level disinfected. Endoscopes are critical items. Critical items are normally sterilized after being cleaned. Endoscopes cannot be sterilized and require high level disinfection. Which of the following is considered an independent nursing action? A - teaching a patient about the new diet she has been prescribed for management of her condition B - assisting the speech therapist by helping the patient practice speech exercises C - administering pain medication to the patient D - giving the patient a backrub - ✅ D - giving the patient a back rub Independent nursing actions are those which do not require a physician's order. Giving a backrub is one of these independent nursing actions. In the age of managed care, actions which arise from collaborative care plans are known as interdependent actions. Which of the following is a digitalis medicine? A -Lanoxin B - Bumex C - Zestril D - Adalat - ✅ A - Lanoxin (Digoxin) A digitalis medication is a cardiac glycoside that treats CHF and arrhythmias also for BP support. Bumex is a loop diuretic. Zestril is an ACE inhibitor. Adalat is a calcium blocking agent. Which of the following is not one of the steps in evidence-based practice? A - Constructing the clinical question B - Patient selection C - Appropriate selection of resources D - Appraise the validity of the evidence - ✅ B - Patient selection Patent selection is not one of the steps in evidence-based practice. The steps in evidence-based practice consist of 1 - Patient assessment 2 - Constructing the clinical question 3 - Appropriate selection of resources 4 - Appraise the validity of the evidence 5 - Apply the integrated patient preferences, evidence, and clinical expertise 6 - Performance evaluation with patience Nurse Grace knows that the most effective way to educate her patient and assist in her patient care plan is to do what? A - Insist the patient follow the plan exactly as instructed. B - Create a schedule for the patient of future office visits and scheduled treatments. C - Establish a team effort with the patient in the teaching and learning process. D - Ask the patient to involve family members in her care planning. - ✅ C - Establish a team effort with the patient in the teaching and learning process. Of the following, which would not be considered an objective symptom for tuberculosis? A - Headaches B - Night sweats C - Weight loss D - Fever - ✅ A - Headaches Some of the objective symptoms for tuberculosis would be: Night sweats, Weight loss, Fever, Cough which progresses, Hemoptysis (cough up blood) An order is being written for insulin, how should the dosage order be written? A - 10 ml subq B - 10 units subq C - 10 u subq D - None of the above - ✅ B - 10 units subq U for unit is on The Joint Commission's official " Do Not Use" list of abbreviations. Which of the following is NOT a "red flag" of low health literacy in a patient? A - The patient pours pills into his or her hand to identify them by sight. B - The patient is not Caucasian. C - The patient consistently asks you to read healthcare information because he or she has forgotten eyeglasses at home. D - The patient does not ask questions during the appointment. - ✅ B - The patient is not Caucasian. It is important to note that you cannot assess a person's health literacy just by looking. In fact, the majority of people with low health literacy, according to a recent study, are middle class Caucasians. POCT and which of the following terms are often used interchangeably? A - Diagnosing B - Referrals C - Consultations D - Onsite testing - ✅ D - Onsite testing ________ would be the feeling of distress, suffering, and/or discomfort that is considered a symptom of a condition? A - Temperature B - Pain C - Management D - Cultural - ✅ B - Pain Pain would be the feeling of distress, suffering, and/or discomfort that is considered a symptom of a condition. In 1968, McCafferty defined pain as "Pain is whatever the patient that is experiencing the pain says it is." Nurse Agnes has just finished assessing her pregnant patient who has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes in the second half of her pregnancy. What does the nurse need the patient to do to help dietary and insulin needs? A - increase her insulin doses B - increase calorie intake C - decrease her insulin doses D - decrease calorie intake - ✅ B - increase calorie intake When a pregnant woman increases her caloric intake in the latter half of her pregnancy, glucose will cross the placenta but the insulin will not. The fetus has a high demand for glucose and when that is paired with the patient's changing hormones, the result is an elevated blood glucose level. During which of the following situations is full barrier precautions likely to be required? A - Treating a patient with pneumonia. B - Treating a patient with chicken pox. C - Treating a patient who is suspected of having avian flu. D - Treating a patient with an open wound. - ✅ C - Treating a patient who is suspected of having avian flu. Treating a patient who is suspected of having avian flu CDC guidelines recommend full barrier precautions for all known and suspected cases of avian flu, due to the high degree of transmission of the disease. Full barrier precautions are also used in treating patients with known or suspected cases of SARS and pandemic influenza, as well as hemorrhagic diseases ___________ would be considered the nurse's competency that results from training. A - Education B - Language C - Culture D - Proficiency - ✅ D - Proficiency The ambulatory care nurse's role would have all except which of the following role dimensions? A - Workload B - Risk management C - Benefits D - Leadership - ✅ C - Benefits Some of the role dimensions for the ambulatory care nurse would include: Workload, Risk management, Leadership, Staffing, Competency concerns, Workplace regulatory compliance Which of the following is NOT a nonmedical expense? A - Linen. B - Uniform. C - Office supplies. D - Hypodermics. - ✅ D - Hypodermics. Of the following, which would not be a predisposing factor that might cause a patient to develop a tubercle bacillus infection? A - Cirrhosis B - Alcoholism C - Poor nutrition D - The health care workers that care for low-risk patients - ✅ D - The health care workers that care for low-risk patients The ______ is supposed to protect the patients' rights, help them to participate in their healthcare decisions, and provide adequate healthcare education. A - Teacher B - Advocate C - Administrator D - None of the above - ✅ B - Advocate When identifying barriers such as language which can obstruct the provision of optimal patient care, which standard of care with the Standards of Professional Clinical Practice for the Ambulatory Care Nurse would it be considered? A - Standard 6 B - Standard 1 C - Standard 4 D - Standard 3 - ✅ B - Standard 1 These would include such barriers as language, behavioral health issues, and culture. Nurse Terri is assessing a female patient with red, itchy spots on various parts of the body. She mentions she has no allergies but has recently switched soaps and is trying a new detergent. Terri suspects this is what type of irritation? A - irritant contact dermatitis B - cellulitis C - allergic purpura D - psoriasis - ✅ A - irritant contact dermatitis Irritant contact dermatitis is a type of rash that is caused by exposure to external irritants such as cosmetics, plants, or even fabrics, and is usually diagnosed when known allergies are not present. Patients can often experience this type of dermatitis when trying new cosmetics and laundry soaps and the problem will often be resolved once the use of this product is discontinued. How far out do most health care facilities' capital budgets plan? A - 5-10 years. B - Less than 1 year. C - 20 years. What type of budget should be done for a new practice? A - Zero based. B - Hyperlink Process. C - Historical based budget. D - Capital budget. - ✅ A - Zero based. Established practices used historical based budgets that are based off previous years. Zero based budgets are used with new practices and requires expenses to be tracked and managed carefully. You are performing an assessment with a patient. On auscultation of heart sounds, you hear a scratching, creaking sound. Which of the following conditions might this heart sound indicate? A - congestive heart failure B - benign heart murmur C - pericarditis D - pneumothorax - ✅ C - pericarditis. Patients with pericarditis will often have a scratching or creaking sound. This is known as a pericardial friction rub and results from inflammation of the pericardium. The 5 M's of categorizing information (according to the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis) would include all but which of the following? A - Materials B - Maneuvering C - Methods D - Machines - ✅ B = Maneuvering The 5 M's of categorizing information (according to the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis) would include: Machines, Management, Manpower, Materials, Methods Where is the submental lymph node located? A - in the hollow of the clavicle B - right below the chin C - junction between back of head and neck D - behind the ears - ✅ B - right below the chin The supraclavicular lymph node is in the hollow of the clavicle. The suboccipital lymph node is located in the junction between the back of the head and neck. The postauricular lymph node is behind the ears. The objective for nursing practice in each state would be considered all of the following except? A - Will define the practice of professional nursing. B - Provide the disciplinary action of licenses for certain causes. C - Will define the length of the shifts that the nurse may work. D - Would set the minimal educational qualifications and other requirements for licensure. - ✅ C - Will define the length of the shifts that the nurse may work. The 4 objectives for the nursing practice in each state: Will determine the legal titles and abbreviations nurses may use. Would set the minimal educational qualifications and other requirements for licensure. Provide the disciplinary action of licenses for certain causes. Will define the practice of professional nursing. In negotiations the development of trust would include which of the following? A - Do not prepare beforehand B - Do not share notes C - Develop plans D - None of the above - ✅ C - Develop plans The development of trust in negotiations would include: Maintain and share notes. Observe for behavior reflecting dishonesty. Research and prepare beforehand. Develop plans. Demonstrate respect Which of the following is NOT one of the key questions of the Ask Me 3 Model? A - What is my main problem? B - What is the mortality rate for my problem? C - What do I need to do? D - Why is it important for me to do this? - ✅ B - What is the mortality rate for my problem? The Ask Me 3 model provides three questions that patients should be able to answer at the end of a health care visit. The mortality rate of a given health problem may be a concern, but this model is more centered on ensuring patient understanding of the condition and the necessary next steps. Disinfectant solution needs to be marked with the name, _______. A - Date prepared and the date expired. B - Date prepared. C - Date expired. D - Solution density. - ✅ A - Date prepared and the date expired. Everything needs to be clearly labeled when sterilizing equipment. Solutions needs to be labeled with their names, the date they are made, and their expiration date. A nurse encourages a patient with diabetes to eat healthier and exercise using open ended questions and encouragement. What type of interview is she using? A - Community education. B - Motivational interview. C - Group education. D - Aligning with the patient. - ✅ B - Motivational interview. All of the answers are teaching strategies. A motivational interview is used to educate patients and guide them to change unhealthy behavior. Some primary indications for a patient to have a pacemaker implanted? A - Heart block B - Bradyarrhythmias C - Asystole D - All of the above - ✅ D - All of the above The following indications would be for the patient that is symptomatic or those refractory to pharmacological therapy. Some of the primary indications for a patient to have a pacemaker implanted would include: Asystole, Sick-sinus syndrome, Atrial tachyarrhythmias, Bradyarrhythmias, Heart block. The principles of MI (motivational interviewing) would include all of the following except? A - Avoid argumentation CC C - Express empathy D - Roll with resistance - ✅ B - Argue with the person The five principles of MI would include: Avoid argumentation, Express empathy, Roll with resistance, To develop discrepancy, Support self-efficacy Which of the following steps is LEAST likely to alleviate the hazards associated with changing between day and night shifts? A - Giving employees plenty of advance notice of schedules. B - Putting nurses on either permanent day or permanent night shifts. C - Keeping schedules as regular as possible. D - Encouraging employees to avoid caffeine, alcohol, and other substances that might interfere with sleep. - ✅ B - Putting nurses on either permanent day or permanent night shifts. Shiftwork carries numerous risks, including sleep deprivation and resulting health issues such as immune system depression and digestive problems. Changing shifts often carries problems, but keeping employees on permanent night shifts also carries risks including loss of family time, health problems resulting from difficulties sleeping during the day, sleep deprivation, and emotional problems. Tips for the ambulatory care nurse in association with communication would not include? A- Use open ended questions B - Don't gather feedback from staff members C - Conduct communication at the proper time and place D - Use fewer words - ✅ B - Don't gather feedback from staff members Communication tips would include: Use open ended questions. Gather feedback from staff members. Conduct communication at the proper time and place. Use fewer words. Watch language used, avoid using technical terms and acronym which might not be understood by all. Respect the viewpoints and opinions of other's. Use body language to show interest. Use communication to build "USA" - understanding, support, and acceptance At what point in the autoclaving process are wrapped items considered sterile? A - As soon as they reach the recommended temperature. B - Immediately on removal from the autoclave, even if wrapping is still wet. Screening for cancer in the geriatric population includes all of the following recommendations except: A - prostate cancer B - cervical cancer C - skin cancer D - colon cancer - ✅ B - cervical cancer Cervical cancer is not likely in the elderly female. The geriatric population should be screened for heart disease, hearing, vision, and dental problems, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, menopause, osteoporosis, hypothyroidism, and dementia. Cancer screenings include breast, colon, prostate, and skin. A patient is speaking with a telephone nurse and explains that she has had increased acid reflux from a recently diagnosed ulcer. The nurse's first question is to ask if the patient has had what kind of food lately? A - Dairy products. B - Acidic fruits such as oranges or lemons. C - Beans or lentils. D - Alcoholic or caffeinated beverages. - ✅ D - Alcoholic or caffeinated beverages. The nurse should explain to the patient beverages with alcohol or caffeine can stimulate gastric acid production and irritate gastric lining. The nurse should advise the patient to avoid these type of foods and for the patient to see their physician if symptoms persist. _________ would be considered the federal law which helps to protect the privacy of student educational records? A - FMLA B - ADA C - FERPA D - HIPAA - ✅ C - FERPA FERPA stands for Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act. This is a federal law which helps to protect the privacy of student educational records. When defibrillating a patient, the second shock is typically at which dose? A - 100 B - 360 C - 200 to 300 D - 300 - ✅ C - 200 to 300 When defibrillating a patient, the shock levels are typically:First-200 joules, Second-200 to 300 joules, All of the rest-360 joules In the clinic, which step of the nursing process does Nurse Betty use to determine if the patient understands the health information he was just presented? A - implementation B - evaluation C - assessment D - goal planning - ✅ B - evaluation The evaluation step of the nursing process includes the nurse observing the patient and asking questions to get a better idea of the person as a whole and to ensure he is learning the health information needed. This also gives the patient a chance to ask questions and clear up any misunderstandings. A hospitalized patient is diagnosed with pressure ulcers. What is one type of independent nursing intervention that can be used to help the patient? A - Apply a drying agent to reduce moisture at the site. B - Change the patient's positions to minimize pressure on the ulcers. C - Order surgical removal of the necrotic tissue. D - Soak the areas in Epsom salt. - ✅ B - Change the patient's positions to minimize pressure on the ulcers. Changing a patient's position reduces stress and pressure to the ulcer site and promotes healing. Applying a drying agent would not be effective since wounds need moisture to heal, and soaking would not relieve pressure and could spread infection. Surgical removal of the tissue would need to be prescribed and performed by a physician. The nurse is educating an adult patient regarding medications for asthma. Which order would be the most appropriate for administration? A - Albuterol, Flovent, Tobramycin B - Flovent, Intal, Tobramycin C - Tobramycin, Intal, Albuterol D - Intal, Tobramycin, Albuterol - ✅ A - Albuterol, Flovent, Tobramycin Telephone triage may be a responsibility of the ambulatory care nurse. What are the appropriate components of telephone triage? A - The nurse should give generic information and leave the responsibility to the patient or caller B - The nurse should immediately call 911 C - The nurse should state that he or she is unable to discuss medical information and refer the patient to the primary care physician D - The nurse must clearly identify him- or herself, take a quick and accurate history, and quickly be able to make a decision - ✅ D - The nurse must clearly identify him- or herself, take a quick and accurate history, and quickly be able to make a decision What are the best question types to ask when gaining information from a patient? A - specific, open-ended questions regarding current symptoms and medical history B - general questions with yes or no answers C - questions related to childhood diseases D - demographics questions - ✅ A - specific, open-ended questions regarding current symptoms and medical history In what order would the nurse prioritize the care of the following patients presenting to the clinic at the same time: a parent carrying a smiling infant with a fever, a pale and sweaty male with flank pain for two days, a carpenter with a nail in his thumb, and a three-year-old with vomiting. A - flank pain, three-year-old with vomiting, infant with a fever, and man with the nail B - three-year-old with vomiting, flank pain, man with the nail, and infant with fever C - flank pain, infant with fever, three-year-old with vomiting, and man with the nail D - three-year-old with vomiting, infant with fever, flank pain, and man with the nail - ✅ A - flank pain, three-year-old with vomiting, infant with a fever, and man with the nail Mom has described her child's symptoms as fever for three days and vomiting for the last 24 hours. She states the child has been very sleepy for the last two to three hours. What subtle symptom alerts the nurse that this child needs to be seen as soon as possible? A - three days of fever B - three days of fever, one day of vomiting C - very sleepy for two to three hours with a fever for three days D - one day of vomiting - ✅ B - three days of fever, one day of vomiting A 70-year-old female presents to the ambulatory care clinic complaining of fatigue. You begin your triage assessment, and she has a heart rate of 50, a respiratory rate of 24, and a blood pressure of 70/40. She denies chest pain, but you notice she rubs her elbows and states her arthritis is acting up. What would be your first priority when caring for this patient? A - Offer her Motrin for pain B - Offer her Tylenol for pain and send her to the waiting room C - Continue her triage and history and finish the paperwork D - Place her in a room, do an electrocardiogram (EKG), and notify the physician to see her before the other patients in the clinic because of the possibility of a heart problem - ✅ D - Place her in a room, do an electrocardiogram (EKG), and notify the physician to see her before the other patients in the clinic because of the possibility of a heart problem What nonverbal clues would indicate that a patient of any age is having difficulty breathing? A - sweating in a warm room with exertion B - slight wheezing when lifting heavy objects C - laughing and joking during a triage assessment D - change in color, retractions, and noisy breathing - ✅ D - change in color, retractions, and noisy breathing What would be the most appropriate order of importance for information an adult client shares when coming to a clinic visit? A - Current medications, allergies, past medical history, and past surgical history B - past medical history, past surgical history, medications, allergies, and insurance information C - current demographics, current insurance, complaint, medical history, and surgical history B -Motivational interview. C -Group education. D -Aligning with the patient. - ✅ B -Motivational interview. Some primary indications for a patient to have a pacemaker implanted? A -Heart block B -Bradyarrhythmias C -Asystole D -All of the above - ✅ D -All of the above The following indications would be for the patient that is symptomatic or those refractory to pharmacological therapy. Some of the primary indications for a patient to have a pacemaker implanted would include: Asystole, Sick-sinus syndrome, Atrial tachyarrhythmias, Bradyarrhythmias, Heart block At what point in the autoclaving process are wrapped items considered sterile? A -As soon as they reach the recommended temperature. B -Immediately on removal from the autoclave, even if wrapping is still wet. C -As soon as the wrapping is dry. D -As soon as they reach room temperature after removal from the autoclave and all wrappings are dry. - ✅ D -As soon as they reach room temperature after removal from the autoclave and all wrappings are dry. -It may take several hours for items to be fully dry and cool to room temperature after removing them from the autoclave. Wet packs must at all times be considered non- sterile, even if they have cooled to room temperature. What are the 5 steps of the nursing process? - ✅ Assessment Diagnosis Planning Implementation Evaluation The preparation of a patient for "anticipated developmental or situational crisis" is known as _____. A -Anticipatory guidance. B -Preventative care. C -Anticipatory care. D -Preemptive care. - ✅ A -Anticipatory guidance. Anticipatory guidance is a nursing intervention in which nurses attempt to prepare patients and/or caregivers for potential developments or situations in treatment. This can involve educating them about potential side effects and negative outcomes. A brief account by the patient of any signs or symptoms he or she is experiencing is known as what? A -functional assessment B -focused assessment C -review of systems D -systemic review - ✅ C -review of systems In the review of systems, the patient tells the nurse in his or her own words what signs or symptoms he or she has experienced in various body systems. It is important that these be in a patient's own words to perform the most complete and accurate assessment. Of the following, which is the greatest risk factor for childhood obesity? A -Lack of cognitive stimulation. B - Poverty. C -Parental divorce. D -Parental Education. - ✅ A -Lack of cognitive stimulation. A person's knowledge is sometimes measured by which of the following verbs? A -Recall B -List C -Remember D -All of the above - ✅ D -All of the above Which of the following is NOT a "red flag" of low health literacy in a patient? A -The patient pours pills into his or her hand to identify them by sight. B -The patient is not Caucasian. C - The patient consistently asks you to read healthcare information because he or she has forgotten eyeglasses at home. D -The patient does not ask questions during the appointment. - ✅ B -The patient is not Caucasian. The ambulatory care nurse's role would have all except which of the following role dimensions? A -Workload B -Risk management C -Benefits D -Leadership - ✅ C -Benefits Some of the role dimensions for the ambulatory care nurse would include: Workload, Risk management, Leadership, Staffing, Competency concerns, Workplace, regulatory compliance When identifying barriers such as language which can obstruct the provision of optimal patient care, which standard of care with the Standards of Professional Clinical Practice for the Ambulatory Care Nurse would it be considered? A -Standard 6 B -Standard 1 C -Standard 4 D -Standard 3 - ✅ B -Standard 1 Standard 1 in the Standards of Professional Clinical Practice for ambulatory care nursing would include the identification of barriers to promote optimal care. These would include such barriers as language, behavioral health issues, and culture. How far out do most health care facilities' capital budgets plan? A -5-10 years. B -Less than 1 year. C -20 years. D -1-3 years. - ✅ D -1-3 years. Because they deal with long-life items, most capital budgets plan for 1-3 years out from the present. It is important for nurses who work on budgets to be aware of their facility's capital budget plans for the next years so that they can appropriately request budget resources for their own units. would be when a leader aligns themselves with others to help obtain information, ideas, advice, power, and influence? A -Consensus-building B -Negotiation C -Networking D -Development - ✅ C -Networking Networking would be when a leader aligns themselves with others to help obtain information, ideas, advice, power, and influence. The most effective negotiation process would have a win-win outcome. What is the MOST effective form of research a nurse can do before establishing a diabetes prevention course for patients? A -Making a list of the local endocrinologists that are currently treating diabetic patients. B -Estimating what age groups would attend the course. C -Documenting what causes diabetes and why. D -Finding diabetic-friendly recipes to share with the class. - ✅ C -Documenting what causes diabetes and why. When a nurse is planning an event to raise awareness of preventing a disease, the first types of research that should be done is what causes the disease and why. Once this information is documented, the nurse can build her lesson around methods of prevention, warnings signs, etc. Which of the following abnormal heart sounds is a result of the blood flowing past the normally closed valve? A - valve regurgitation B -valvular stenosis C -ventricular or atrial failure D -electrical conduction defects - ✅ A - valve regurgitation The sound of valvular regurgitation is known as a murmur. Murmurs can have a blowing or swishing sound and are categorized in a degree of I to VI. Grade I murmurs are very soft, while grade VI murmurs are extremely loud and can be heard with the stethoscope one inch away from the chest wall. Each person has how many intelligences (according to Howard Garner's multiple intelligence theory)? What is the overarching vision of Healthy People 2020? A -To provide universal health care. B- To promote a society in which all people live long, healthy lives. C -To eliminate poverty worldwide. D -To reduce healthcare costs. - ✅ B- To promote a society in which all people live long, healthy lives. Which of the following is a qualitative method used in nursing research? A -Charting changes in blood pressure over time. B -Survey questions that ask patients to rate their satisfaction on a scale of 0 to 10. C -Analyzing patient narratives to discover what education they received about their diagnoses. D -Data charting the number of nursing hours per patient day over the last two years. - ✅ C -Analyzing patient narratives to discover what education they received about their diagnoses. Qualitative research looks at the patient's response to his actual or potential medical issues. This method looks at the "why" and "how" of decision-making. NIC would stand for which of the following? A -Neurology Institute Classes B -Nerve Institute Commission C -Nursing Interventions Classifications D -Neuropathy Insurance Classes - ✅ C -Nursing Interventions Classifications A defibrillator would be used for which of the following cardiac rhythms? A -Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B -Atrial tachycardia C -Second degree block D -Sinus bradycardia - ✅ A -Pulseless ventricular tachycardia A defibrillator would be used for: Pulseless ventricular tachycardia & Ventricular fibrillation Objectives of ambulatory care nursing would include all but which of the following? A - To help minimize suffering B - To decrease the cost of the patient's healthcare C -To prevent injury D -To protect the patient's health - ✅ B - To decrease the cost of the patient's healthcare Some objectives of ambulatory care nursing would include: To help minimize suffering, prevent injury, protect the patient's health, promote the patient's health, maximize health literacy/education, prevent illness, apply nursing interventions to human responses in health, illness, disease, disability, and end-of-life circumstances, actively advocate for optimal coordinated healthcare of families, individuals, communities, and populations that are aimed at the improvement of the whole person's well-being. How often should biological indicators be tested? A -Daily B -Hourly C -Weekly D -After each use of a machine. - ✅ C -Weekly A patient is being prescribed Glucophage but this brand is not available. Which of the following drugs may be substituted? A -Repaglinide B -Troglitazone C -Acarbose D -Metformin - ✅ D -Metformin A kilogram would be _______ mg? A -100,000 B -100 C -1,000,000 D -5,000,000 - ✅ C -1,000,000 It takes 1000 grams to equal 1 kilogram. It takes 1000 mg to equal 1 gram. It would take 1,000,000 mg to equal 1 kilogram. The central nervous system is composed of what? A -brain and spinal cord B -brain and sympathetic nervous system C -brain, spine, and nerve cells D -brain, heart, and lungs - ✅ A -brain and spinal cord The central nervous system (CNS) is the main control center for the body. It is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. Why is it recommended that pregnant women be screened for domestic violence? A -The bodily strains of pregnancy may create injuries similar to domestic violence. B -Pregnant women are at the greatest risk for both new and continuing domestic violence. C -Concern for the welfare of the unborn child. D -Such screenings are covered by insurance when part of prenatal care. - ✅ B - Pregnant women are at the greatest risk for both new and continuing domestic violence. Because they represent a group with the high risk of domestic violence, all pregnant women should be screened for domestic violence even if they have not reported violence before. Violence may begin during pregnancy, or a woman may be more willing to report violence out of concern for her child than she might have been previously. When judging the quality of care, which method evaluates performance after the patient is released? A -Quality improvement. B -A retrospective nursing audit. C -Qualitative research. D -A concurrent nursing audit . - ✅ B -A retrospective nursing audit. Nursing audits are done to improve the quality of care. There are two types of audits, concurrent and retrospective. A retrospective nursing audit is done after a patient is released. What is indirect cost subtracted from the contribution margin? A -Gross income. B -Volume projection. C -Net income. D -Capital budget. - ✅ C -Net income. The net income is the contribution margin minus the indirect costs. This indicates how much money is left after all expenses are paid. The ambulatory care nurse should know that critical thinking would require all BUT which of the following skills? A -Synthesis B -Inferences C -Explanation D -Interpretation - ✅ A -Synthesis The skills used for critical thinking would be: Inferences, Explanation, Interpretation, Analysis If the ambulatory care nurse is looking at a chest x-ray, the posterior ribs will appear as? A -Circular angle B -At a sharper downward angle C -At a curved downward angle D -At a curved upward angle - ✅ B -At a SHARPER downward angle The stages of Kohlberg's Stages of Moral Reasoning would include?A -Preconventional B -Ultraconventional C -Concurrent D -Provisional - ✅ A -Preconventional The 3 stages of Kohlberg's Stages of Moral Reasoning as a function of cognitive development: Preconventional, Conventional, Postconventional Which of the following would be considered the branch of pharmacology that includes the use of the medications to treat, prevent or diagnose? A -Pharmacogenetics B -Pharmacotherapeutics C -Pharmacokinetics D -None of the above - ✅ B -Pharmacotherapeutics The branch of pharmacology that includes the use of medications to treat, prevent or diagnose would be considered pharmacotherapeutics. Pharmacology would be considered the study of medications, which also includes the medications interactions with living systems. D -Measures that cure disease include adequate diagnosis, appropriate treatment regimen, and necessary follow-up and homecare. - ✅ D -Measures that cure disease include adequate diagnosis, appropriate treatment regimen, and necessary follow-up and homecare. While curative measures are important, they are not part of the control measures. Which of the following patients is an appropriate candidate for TEE? A -a female patient with dysphagia B -a male patient who is obese C -a male patient who has a history of gastroesophageal disease D -a patient who is allergic to topic anesthetic - ✅ B -a male patient who is obese TEE is often used with patients who are obese because obesity can make it difficult to get a clear picture of the heart with regular echocardiography. Patients with a history of gastroesophageal disease, who have dysphagia, and who are allergic to topic anesthetics are not considered candidates for TEE. Which of the following methods is MOST effective for measuring the effectiveness of a community program to reduce childhood obesity?A -Compare national rates of childhood obesity from before and after program implementation. B -Compare citywide rates of childhood obesity from before and after program implementation. C -Follow up with program participants after 6 months to see if they have experienced weight loss. D -Conduct a new survey to see how many children in the community are overweight. - ✅ C -Follow up with program participants after 6 months to see if they have experienced weight loss. This strategy is most likely to indicate the effectiveness of the program because if measures effects on those who actually participated in the program. Comparing national or citywide rates does not reveal whether a specific intervention had any effect on childhood obesity. Which of the following is an example of objective data? A -Patient reports feeling chills. B -Patient has a fever. C -Patient has a temperature of 102° F. D -Patient has as elevated temperature. - ✅ C -Patient has a temperature of 102° F. Objective data must be measurable and verifiable. Simply saying the patient has a fever or an elevated temperature does not tell the health care team very much. Providing a direct measurement of the patient's temperature is far more useful in crafting a care plan and diagnosis. How many liters does interstitial fluid need to exceed before it becomes apparent? A -2.5 to 3.5 liters B -4.0 to 5.5 liters C -2.5 to 3 liters D -1.0 to 1.5 liters - ✅ C -2.5 to 3 liters The patient's interstitial fluid needs to exceed 2.5 to 3 liters before it becomes apparent. This edema is typically caused by expansion of the interstitial fluid volume. Nurse Nicole's patient has been diagnosed with severe poison ivy rash. Which of the following statements is not accurate advice Nurse Nicole might give to her patient? A -Resist scratching as it can cause the rash to spread. B -Take short, lukewarm baths or cool showers. C -Apply calamine lotion or hydrocortisone cream to itchy patches. D -Cover with cool compresses for several minutes at a time. - ✅ A -Resist scratching as it can cause the rash to spread. As an ANP, you will have to counsel on dietary intake. The following are accurate statements regarding dietary intake except for: A -The EAR is the Estimated Average Requirement. B -Adequate Intake (AI) is the recommended average daily intake level based on observed or experimentally determined estimates of nutrient intakes by a group of healthy people. C -The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is the average daily dietary nutrient intake level sufficient to meet nutrient requirements of nearly all healthy individuals. D -The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (TUIL) is the highest number of calories allowed for a certain weight. - ✅ D -The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (TUIL) is the highest number of calories allowed for a certain weight. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level is the highest average daily nutrient intake level that is likely to pose no risk of adverse effects to almost all individuals of the general population. The 6 clinical practice standards for the ambulatory care nursing would include all but which of the following? A -Financial B -Nursing diagnosis C -Planning D -Evaluation - ✅ A -Financial There are 6 clinical practice standards for the ambulatory care nursing: Assessment, Nursing diagnosis, Identification of expected outcomes/goals, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation The more common side effects of anticholinergics would include all but which of the following? A -Hyperpyrexia B -Dry lips C -Blurred vision D -Schizophrenia - ✅ D -Schizophrenia With learning, the person typically changes which of the following because of knowledge that is new? A -Occupations B -Behavior C -Physical functional status D -Financial process - ✅ B -Behavior Learning helps the person to change the following as a result of exposure to knowledge that is new: Behavior, Emotional, functioning, Mental The ANP recognizes the danger signals for skin disease. Which of the following skin diseases is characterized (among other things) by a petechial rash appearing on the wrist and ankles and spreading rapidly toward the trunk and the face on the second to third day of the disease? A -Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever B -Shingles C -Meningococcemia D -Actinic Keratosis - ✅ A -Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever This disease has an acute onset of high fever and myalgia (muscle pain), severe headache, fatigue, nausea and vomiting and rash. By the second to third day, a petechial rash appears starting on the wrist and ankles and spreads rapidly toward the trunk and the face. Which of the following does principalism use? A -Nonmalefience B -Fidelity C -Veracity D -All of the above - ✅ D -All of the above Principalism uses: Nonmalefience, Fidelity, Veracity, Beneficence, Autonomy, Justice Which of the following is true regarding current factors that support the greater emphasis on health promotion and disease prevention? A - Only 20% of illness and disease is related to lifestyle and unhealthy decisions. B -Healthy People 2020 was developed as a outline of prevention agenda by the American Nurses Association. C -Tobacco use, substance use, and obesity are considered some of the leading health indicators. D -Preventive services include treating active diseases that could spread out into the community. - ✅ C -Tobacco use, substance use, and obesity are considered some of the leading health indicators. Which of the following factors would not influence the area that the nurse would choose to take the patient's temperature? A -Age B -Convenience C -Education D -Safety - ✅ C -Education A drug that has the ability to only attack those systems which are found in foreign cells would be considered? Some more common symptoms of hypercalcemia would include: Anorexia, Headaches, Nausea, Vomiting, Confusion The ANP knows that the influenza vaccination is recommended annually for certain high risk groups. Which of the following would have the GREATEST need for this vaccine? A -dialysis patients B -healthcare employees C -adults with chronic disease D -residents of long-term care facilities - ✅ D -residents of long-term care facilities The outbreak of influenza may affect 60% of those in long-term care and the mortality rates related to this are high. The medical term for expectoration of blood or blood-stained sputum is what? A -hemopexis B -hemoptysis C -tuberculosis D -hemorrhage - ✅ B -hemoptysis Hemoptysis is the expectoration of blood from the trachea. A hemorrhage is an internal or external bleed and hemopexis is a blood coagulation. What is a method to ensure evidence based nursing practices? A -Diagnostic codes. B -Ambulatory care. C -Mentorship. D -Clinical pathways. - ✅ C -Mentorship. Mentorship is a method that ensures evidence based nursing is passed on. Research and clinical support also ensure that evidence based nursing continues. A patient with an Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) of 60 fL is likely suffering from which of the following? A -Hemolytic anemia B -Iron deficiency anemia C -Pernicious anemia D -Macrocytic anemia - ✅ B -Iron deficiency anemia An MCV of 60 is considered quite low, and is a sign of iron deficiency anemia. All the other choices listed here are associated with higher than normal MCV. You are conducting an assessment with a patient. The patient tells you during the assessment that he is sure that the gastrointestinal discomfort he is experiencing is the result of the nurses in his long-term care facility poisoning his food. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient? A -delusional B -impaired mentation C -altered nutrition D -disturbed thought processes - ✅ D -disturbed thought processes Which of the following medicines should be used sparingly in the elderly because as people get older, their kidneys are less able to excrete it? A -antihypertensives B -Digoxin C -analgesics D -antidiabetic drugs - ✅ B -Digoxin Analgesics - Cause confusion or dizziness. Antidiabetic drugs - lower blood sugar levels for extended period of time. Antihypertensives - slow the heart rate and worsen depression. Digoxin - less able to excrete as people get older. Which of the following is NOT likely to present a barrier to patient learning? A -Pain. B -Anxiety about paying for treatment. C -Lack of information about the diagnosis on the part of the patient. D -Negative past experiences with medical care. - ✅ C -Lack of information about the diagnosis on the part of the patient. Which of the following is used to sterilize medical equipment that is sensitive to heat or moisture? A -Autoclave. B -Ethylene Oxide. C -Peracetic acid. D -Microwaves. - ✅ B -Ethylene Oxide. Ethylene oxide gas is used to sterlize items that are sensitive to heat and moisture. A patient who is suffering from dehydration would be expected to have which of the following urine specific gravities? A -1.010 B -1.04 C -1.02 D -1.004 - ✅ B -1.04 Urine specific gravity increases when the concentration of solutes in urine increases. This occurs with dehydration. A urine specific gravity of greater than 1.035 is considered a sign of frank dehydration. You are conducting an assessment with a patient who is 50 pounds over his recommended weight. In the course of the interview, you discuss what he eats in a day. He appears to regularly be consuming nearly twice the recommend number of calories. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for this patient? A -altered nutrition B -nutrition, more than body requires C -nutrition, more than body requires, altered D -risk for obesity - ✅ B -nutrition, more than body requires Because the patient appears to eat an excess of calories regularly, this is not an altered pattern. You need to record the temperature and ____ of dry-heat oven with each use. A -Items cleaned. B -Chemical indicators. C -Time. D -Biological indicators. - ✅ C -Time. A log should be filled in each time that a dry-heat oven is used. This should include the temperature and duration of use. Of the following, which ethnic/racial group has the lowest effectiveness rate when using interferon treatments for chronic hepatitis C treatment? A -White non-Hispanic B -African-American C -Hispanic D -None of the above - ✅ B -African-American Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of motivational interviewing? A -Guiding stage. B -Following stage. C -Directing stage. D -Recommendation stage. - ✅ D -Recommendation stage. A condition in which the fluid in the chest of a pneumonia patient becomes infected is known as what? A -bactermi B -empyema.C -sepsis D- pneumothorax - ✅ B -empyema. This condition occurs when the fluid in the lungs becomes infected. A chest tube, or more rarely surgery, is required for treatment. A principle of professional boundaries would not include? A -It would be the responsibility of the patient to delineate and maintain boundaries between themselves and the nurses. B -The nurse should always work within the "zone of helpfulness," C -The nurse would be the person responsible for delineating and maintaining boundaries between themselves and patients. D -The nurse should avoid any dual relationships with patients. - ✅ A -It would be the responsibility of the patient to delineate and maintain boundaries between themselves and the nurses. In regards to behavior, which of the following would CARE stand for? A -Commission, assessment, realism, and encourage B -Clarify, assess, realistic, and evaluation C -Clarify, articulate, request, and encourage D -Check, analyze, revolve, and encourage - ✅ B -Clarify, assess, realistic, and evaluation Which of the following has the MOST influence on an individual's health status? C -The number of test items D -The difficulty of the test items - ✅ A -The type of test items Your patient brings you some information about her condition that she has printed off of the Internet. Which of the following should give you concerns about its validity? A -It is from WebMD. B -It is from the website of a university with a well known medical school. C -No references are listed. D -The article focuses on the negative outcomes of your patient's condition. - ✅ C -No references are listed. The "Generation X" was born between 1960 and 1980. Which of the following would not be considered a key value for them? A -Optimism B -Flexibility C -Self-reliance D -Diversity - ✅ A -Optimism The key values for the "Generation X" would include: Diversity Self-reliance Practicality Work/life balance Flexibility Skepticism In an ambulatory care environment, keeping data in a central location so that it can be maintained in the library and retrieved by other healthcare professionals for use in deciding care is referred to as which of the following? A -History based tracking B -Evidence based medicine C -Evidence tracking system D -Symptom tracking system - ✅ B -Evidence based medicine This allows other doctors to be more informed about the things that are going on in the area and adapt to them. Patient Joseph comes into the ER admitting he may have overdosed on something. Nurse Cheryl observes how the patient is very tense and irritable and suspects he may have overdosed on which of the following? A -over the counter pain relievers B -clinical sedatives C -amphetamines D -barbiturates - ✅ C-Amphetamines are stimulants that affect the central nervous system and are prone to addiction or abuse due to the feeling of wakefulness or euphoria it produces. If an overdose occurs, tension and irritability are increased and can lead to poor body function and even death. How long are items considered sterile if they were unwrapped when autoclaved? A -One week, as long as they are kept in a sterile container. B -One week. C -As long as they remain dry and covered. C -Six months. - ✅ A -One week, as long as they are kept in a sterile container. Unwrapped items are only sterile for one week after autoclaving. They should be kept in a dry, sterile container until use. After one week, they should be resterilized. If the patient is taking warfarin, they should not take the following dietary supplement? A -Garlic B -Lycopene C -Calcium D -Tumeric - ✅ A -Garlic Although garlic is felt to help reduce blood cholesterol and blood pressure, it is also considered an anticoagulant. When taken in addition to warfarin it has the potential to cause abnormal bleeding. You are conducting an assessment with a patient who has several burns in various stages of healing on her forearms. When asked, she mentions that she often burns herself when cooking because she does not feel hot temperatures well. Which lobe of her brain likely has a dysfunction? A -frontal B -temporal C -parietal C -occipital - ✅ C -parietal Dysfunction or injury to this lobe can impair patients' ability to feel hot temperatures. It is also important to assess patients with multiple burns for risk for self-injury, especially if the burns are not consistent with the explanation the patient gives for them. A patient complains that her stools have been liquid or semi-liquid in form for several days. She also reports a drop in appetite. The ACNP can safely diagnosis her symptoms as indicating what? A -regular constipation B -common diarrhea C -fecal impaction D -stomach virus - ✅ C -fecal impaction How long after a needlestick injury should you be retested for Hepatitis C? A -One week. B -One month. C -Six weeks. D -One year. - ✅ C -Six weeks. ________ would be considered a liquid form of a herb which is brewed from root, seeds or bark? A -Decoction B -Tincture C -Extract D -Tea - ✅ A -Decoction Of the following medications, which is a calcium blocking agent? A -Lanoxin B -Bumex C -Zestril D -Adalat - ✅ D -Adalat Lanoxin is a digitalis medicine commonly used in patients with heart conditions. Bumex is a loop diuretic. Zestril is an ACE inhibitor. The culture that would be at a lower risk to develop diabetes mellitus would be considered? A -Non-Hispanic white B -Hispanic American C -Native American D -African American - ✅ A -Non-Hispanic white Native Americans, African Americans, and Hispanic Americans are more prone to develop diabetes mellitus. The method of adding a video camera to a fluoroscope in order to have a photographic record of the diagnostic procedure is known as what? A -radiography B -cineradiography C -ultrasonography D -videography - ✅ B -cineradiography In cineradiography, a video camera is attached to the fluoroscope. In this way, there is photographic/video documentation of the movement the fluoroscopy is designed to examine, allowing for better diagnosis. In the United States, which organization regulates the development and sale of medications? A -DOJ B -OSHA C -USDHHS D -AMA - ✅ C -USDHHS stands for United States Department of Health and Human Services. This is the organization which regulates the development and sale of medications. They help assure safety and efficacy. Which of the following is effective at treating pernicious anemia? A -Nembutal B -Hydroxocobalamin IM C -Azulfidine D -Esidrix - ✅ B -Hydroxocobalamin IM The factors which health literacy can be dependent on would include all of the following except? A -Culture B -Demands of the situation C -Financial status D -Communication skills of lay persons/professional - ✅ C -Financial status In association with ambulatory care nursing, the sources of law would include all but which of the following? A -Regulations B- Statues of code C -Civil law D -City codes - ✅ D -City codes All of the following are true regarding developmental theory except: A -The pace of development varies among individuals. B -Stress does not impact development. C -All development is patterned, orderly, and predictable with both a purpose and a direction. D -Development is continuous throughout life, although the degree of change in many areas decreases after adolescence. - ✅ B -Stress does not impact development. Which of the following pharmacological treatments is more efficient for an African American with hypertension that has been taking Lisinopril? A -Beta blockers B -Thiazide diuretic C -Fast acting vacillator D -Prinivil - ✅ B -Thiazide diuretic Thiazide diuretic is more efficient for an African American with hypertension that has been taking Lisinopril. This type of medication blocks the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidney's tubules. Areas of risks which might cause legal problems for ambulatory care nurse could include? A -Standards of nursing practice B -Documentation accuracy C -Collection of data D -All of the above - ✅ D -All of the above Which of the following is an abnormal heart sound state in which a mitral or tricuspid creates a murmur during diastole? A -valve regurgitation B -valvular stenosis C -ventricular or atrial failure D -electrical conduction defects - ✅ B -valvular stenosis Aortic or pulmonic stenosis create systolic murmurs. Murmurs due to valvular stenosis are similar to the sounds of murmurs due to valve regurgitation but the reasons for the murmurs are different. Some more common side effects of folic acid would include all of the following except? A -Hypocalcemia B -Behavior changes C -Seizures D -Excitability - ✅ A -Hypocalcemia To help produce learning, the following is typically transmitted? A -Behavior B -Evaluations C -Experiences D -Flexibility - ✅ C -Experiences If the elderly patient is admitted with the main complaint of swelling in their lower extremities, the differential diagnosis which could potentially be considered would include which of the following? A -Hepatic venous obstruction B -Local venous obstruction C -Idiopathic edema D -All of the above - ✅ D -All of the above You are listening to a patient's breath sounds. They are high-pitched and whistling. Which of the following is the best way to describe these breath sounds? A -wheezing B -sibilant C -Sonorous. D -stridor - ✅ B -sibilant Behavioral theory (behaviorism) focuses on which of the following? A -Measurable behavior B -Provisional behavior C -Concurrent behavior D -Extreme behavior - ✅ A -Measurable behavior With behaviorism, behavioral theory focuses on: Measurable behavior, Observable behavior, Overt behavior When a patient is taking feverfew and needs to stop taking it, it should be tapered off. If not tapered, it can cause which of the following symptoms of feverfew syndrome? A -Joint pain B -Stiffness C -Muscle pain D -All of the above - ✅ D -All of the above Which of the following nursing theorists is known to consider the general systems theory as the philosophic orientation to her model? A -Rosemarie Parse B -Betty Neuman C -Sister Callista Roy D -Martha Rogers - ✅ B -Betty Neuman Betty Neuman's Health Care Systems Model is based on the general systems theory. Others based on this include Dorothy Johnson's Behavioral Systems Model and Imogene King's Systems Interaction Model. Parse's and Rogers' models are based on a humanistic developmental framework. Roy's model is based on stress and adaptation as the framework. Nurse Debbie is assessing a patient's abdomen. Which finding would the nurse document as abnormal? A -recurring bowel sounds B -muscle cramps C -dull muscles over the liver D -shifting dullness over different parts of the abdomen - ✅ D -shifting dullness over different parts of the abdomen Shifting dullness over the abdomen could indicate ascites, or fluid in the peritoneal cavity. All other symptoms are normal factors of the abdomen. In the workplace, conflict will occasionally occur. Which of the following would not be considered correct regarding conflict management? A -There are only three modes of response to conflict. B -There are two dimensions of behavior: cooperativeness and assertiveness. C -The 5 modes of conflict response would include accommodating, avoiding, competing, collaborating, and compromising. D -Each person should be capable of the 5 different modes of response to conflict. - ✅ A -There are only three modes of response to conflict. A nurse is speaking with a patient who has been tested for a Vitamin D deficiency. Along with vitamin supplement pills, the nurse explains how the patient can get more Vitamin D from his diet, including which of the following foods? A -Oranges and bananas. B -Fish and eggs. C -Carrots and lettuce. D -Red meats and beans. - ✅ B -Fish and eggs. Vitamin D deficiencies are common among people who do not get enough in their diet or from the sun. When a patient has been diagnosed with this deficiency, they are encouraged to eat more food rich in Vitamin D, such as most fish, eggs, and leafy green vegetables. Of the following drugs, which can be used for Influenza Type A? A -Amantadine B -Foscarnet