AMT MLS Study Notes Questions and Answers, Exams of Medicine

Download AMT MLS Study Notes Questions and Answers and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity! AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers observes fungal elements in hair, skin, nails, and tissues by breaking down keratin. - correct answer purpose of KOH wet mount format To stain fungal walls by binding to cellulose and chitin, and can be observed under a fluorescent scope. - correct answer What is the purpose of Calcofluor white? Presumptively identify cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by creating a halo effect around yeast capsules. - correct answer What is the purpose of India ink? Stains for identifing fungi in tissue. - correct answer What are Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) and periodic acid-schiff (PAS) used for? To identify Histoplasma capsulatum in blood or bone marrow. - correct answer What is giemsa used for? particles are ionized, separated according to their mass- to-charge ratio, and measured by determining the time it takes for the ions to travel to a detector at the end of a time-of-flight tube. - correct answer What is matrix assisted laser AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers desorption/ionization time of flight (MALDI-TOF) mass spectrometry principle? brain heart infusion agar and incubate for 4-6 weeks at 25-30 degrees Celsius. - correct answer Growing requirement for fungi creamy or mucoid in appearance. - correct answer What are the characteristics of yeasts? spherical-to-oval yeast cells, range from 4-20 μm in diameter, and are surrounded by a mucopolysaccharide capsule; may produce a mucoid appearance. - correct answer What is a characteristic of cryptococcus spp? feet or starlike projections. - correct answer What is a characteristic of candida albicans? fuzzy or filamentous in appearance. - correct answer What are the characteristics of molds? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Nucleic acid sequence-based and transcription-mediated - correct answer What are the two types of target amplification? Cytologic or histologic examination using light microscopy to detect inclusions. - correct answer What is hybridization used for? Trichrome, GMS - correct answer What are the stains used in parasitology? Giardia intestinalis or Strongyloides stercoralis - correct answer What parasites can be found in duodenal contents? Parasite AG - Giardia, Cryptosporidium, Entamoeba histolytica - correct answer What parasites can be detected using serology with EIA? Cryptosporidium and Giardia - correct answer What parasites can be detected using DFA? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Free living amebae - Acanthamoeba spp, Naegleria fowleri, Trich - correct answer What can be cultured in parasitology? Stool oocytes visible with modified acid fast stain - correct answer What is the staining procedure for Cryptosporidium parvum and Cryptosporidium hominis? Detection and identification of cysts and trophozoites - correct answer What is the purpose of trichrome staining procedure? Small protozoa - correct answer What can be seen on the stained smear that may be missed by wet mount examinations? A modification of Gomori's original staining procedure for tissue - correct answer What is the Wheatley Trichrome technique? Enterobacteriaceae - correct answer Family of gram-negative bacilli that ferment glucose, reduce nitrates, and do not produce oxidase. AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Bacteria causing undulant fever and zoonotic infections; grows on routine media for 7-10 days in 5-10% CO2; appears as gram-negative coccobacilli. - correct answer Brucella Bordetella - correct answer Genus of gram-negative coccobacilli; grows on specific media for 3-7 days at 35C with supplemental CO2; colonies have a small, smooth, shiny appearance. organism spp causes whooping cough; HACEK family - correct answer Group of gram-negative bacilli commonly found in the upper respiratory tract. Haemophilus - correct answer Fastidious gram-negative coccobacilli; part of the HACEK family. Actinomycetemcomitans - correct answer Gram-negative bacilli found in the periodontal disease; colonies have a star shape with 6 points. AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Gram-negative curved bacilli - correct answer Bacteria that have a curved or spiral shape and stain pink in the Gram stain. Branching filamentous GPR, not acid fast - correct answer What is Actinomyces? Actinomyces israelii - correct answer What Actinomyces organism is a gram positive rod, catalase and indole negative, and has a white cerebriform (molar tooth) colony? Gram positive strict anaerobic bacterium - correct answer What is Clostridium difficile? Cycloserine cefoxitin egg yolk fructose agar - correct answer What is the selective medium used for culturing Clostridium difficile? Yellow with ground glass appearance; horse manure smell - correct answer What is the appearance of Clostridium difficile colonies on culture? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers A rapid membrane enzyme immunoassay for detecting Clostridium difficile antigen and toxins A and B - correct answer What is C diff toxin? antigen, and antibodies glutamate dehydrogenase, toxins A and B - correct answer What does the C. Diff Quik Chek Complete test detect? Purified antigen is attached to microplate wells, patient serum is added, followed by goat anti-human IgG globulin conjugated with horseradish peroxidase, read by spectrophotometer - correct answer How is the H. pylori IgG ELISA assay performed? Staphylococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa. - correct answer Which bacteria are commonly tested using the agar diffusion disk method? Bacteria is seeded onto agar, antibiotic discs are added. - correct answer How is the agar diffusion disk method performed? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers The antibiotic stops bacterial growth. - correct answer What does the formation of a zone of inhibition indicate? They correspond to MIC breakpoints. - correct answer What are the interpretations of Susceptible (S), Intermediate (I), and Resistant (R)? guaiac fecal occult blood test (gFOBT) - uses a chemical (guaiac) and fecal immunochemical test (iFOBT or FIT) uses antibodies (rabbit polyclonal). Change in density gives a qualitative result - correct answer What methods are used in fecal occult testing? To determine reference ranges for interpretation. - correct answer What is the purpose of comparing zones of inhibition with actual MIC values? based on immunocytochemical detection of CMV immediate early antigens in blood leukocytes - correct answer What is the purpose of antigenemia tests? enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) - correct answer How can cytomegalovirus be detected? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers To evaluate the presence of antibodies to more than one viral component. Used to confirm a positive ELISA result. - correct answer What is the purpose of western blot in HIV diagnosis? Qualitative immunoassay by lateral flow. - correct answer What is the rapid test used for HIV screening? To detect all subtypes of HIV and measure viral load. - correct answer What is nucleic acid testing used for in HIV diagnosis? Using indirect immunofluorescence with hep-2 cells and labeled antiglobulin. - correct answer How is ANA detected? To detect the presence of specific autoantibodies. - correct answer What is the purpose of EIA detection in ANA testing? To detect known ANA antigens using fluorescently labeled polystyrene beads. - correct answer What is MIA used for in ANA testing? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Glycoprotein produced by fetal liver; associated with testicular, ovarian, and hepatocellular carcinoma. - correct answer What is alpha fetoprotein? Substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood; examples include CA125 (ovarian cancer), PSA (prostate cancer), CEA (bowel cancer), MUC- 1 (carcinoma of breast), and HER-2 (breast cancer). - correct answer What are tumor markers? dark field microscopy (rare), nontreponemal serologic tests (VDRL and RPR), nonspecific screening tests for IgM and IgG antibodies, and serologic tests for treponemal antigens. - correct answer How is syphilis diagnosed? VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) and RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) tests. - correct answer What are the nontreponemal serologic tests for syphilis? detect IgM and IgG antibodies, as well as anti-cardiolipin antibodies (reagin). - correct answer What do nontreponemal serologic tests detect? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers cardiolipin, lecithin, cholesterol, and flocculation reactions. - correct answer What are the antigens used in syphilis testing? involve qualitative and quantitative microscopic flocculation, using serum and CSF (for neurosyphilis). Serum is heated to 56°C to inactivate complement. - correct answer How are nontreponemal VDRL tests performed? modification test of the VDRL test, involving aggregation with cardiolipin-coated charcoal particles. - correct answer What is the nontreponemal RPR test? treponemal antigens, fluorescent treponemal antibody adsorption (FTA-ABS), and microhemagglutination assay (MHA-TP). - correct answer What are the serologic tests for syphilis? agglutination of latex particles coated with goat IgG anti- human CRP when mixed with samples. - correct answer What is the CRP slide test? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers N-acytylgalactosamine; α - 3 N acetylgalactosaminyltransferase - correct answer What is the sugar that makes up A in the ABO group? galactose; α 3-d-galactosyltransferase - correct answer What is the B sugar of the ABO group ? A1 - 80%, A2 - 20% - correct answer What is the distribution of A1 and A2 blood types? Normal D expression that is weakened - correct answer What is Weak D? GYPA - MN, GYPB - S and s - correct answer What are the antigens in the MNS blood group system? 36 antigens, including Jsa, Jsb, Kpa, Kpb, K - correct answer What are the antigens in the Kell blood group system? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers ACKR1 - correct answer What is the gene associated with the Duffy blood group system? Fy a+b- (whites), fy ab+ (whites), fy a-b+ (whites), fy ab- (blacks) - correct answer What are the different phenotypes in the Duffy blood group system? jk a+b- (black), jk ab+ (white/Asian), jk a-b+ (white/Asian) - correct answer What are the different phenotypes in the Kidd blood group system? ABO, CW, anti M, Lewis, P - correct answer What are some naturally occurring antigens? Duffy and MNS groups - correct answer Which blood group antigens are destroyed by enzymes? Quantification of fetal bleed - correct answer What is the Kleihauer-Betke test used for? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers # fetal cells/2000 x 5000 ml + FMH (ml); FML/30 = # of RhIg to administer - correct answer How is the amount of RhIg to administer calculated? Fluid and electrolyte balance, acid-base balance, hormone production - correct answer What is the major role of the kidney? Filtration of substances due to high hydrostatic pressure - correct answer What is glomerular filtration? Volume of fluid filtered through glomerular capillary per minute - correct answer What is the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? Waste products from protein metabolism - correct answer What are NPN waste products? Clearance = urine level x urine volume / plasma level - correct answer What is the formula for creatine clearance? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Group A and B hemolytic strep, drugs, kidney infection, SLE. - correct answer What are the causes of acute glomerulonephritis? Long-term inflammation of the glomeruli with symptoms like mild hematuria, proteinuria, reduced renal function. - correct answer What is chronic glomerulonephritis? Glomerular injury causing massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia. - correct answer What is nephrotic syndrome? Oval fat bodies, increased α2 and beta globulins, decreased binding proteins, increased cholesterol and triglycerides. - correct answer What are the characteristics of nephrotic syndrome? Conditions that depress renal function without explanation by reduced GFR. - correct answer What are tubular diseases? Ischemic or toxic damage to the tubules, leading to impaired secretion or reabsorption and impaired AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers concentration. - correct answer What is tubular necrosis? Ischemia, bacterial/fungal/viral infections, drugs, transplant rejection. - correct answer What are the causes of tubular necrosis? Failure of the proximal tubule to reabsorb bicarbonate, leading to acidic blood. - correct answer What is renal tubular acidosis? Prostatic hypertrophy, carcinoma of prostate/bladder/lymph nodes, renal calculi. - correct answer What are the causes of urine tract obstruction? Calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, uric acid, cystine. - correct answer What are the types of renal calculi? Pain due to crystallization of calculi. - correct answer What are the symptoms of urine tract obstruction? GFR <60 ml/min, albuminuria for >3 consecutive months. - AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers correct answer What lab results indicate chronic kidney disease? Stage 1: kidney damage without decreased GFR (>90), Stage 2: damage with mild decrease in GFR (60-89), Stage 3: moderate decrease in GFR (30-59), Stage 4: severe decrease in GFR (15-29), Stage 5: renal failure (<15). - correct answer What are the stages of chronic kidney disease? Sudden loss of kidney function with pre-renal, post-renal, or intrarenal causes. - correct answer What is acute renal failure? Decreased renal perfusion, increased BUN-creatinine ratio, low fractional excretion of sodium. - correct answer What are the characteristics of pre-renal acute renal failure? Bilateral obstruction, increased BUN-creatinine ratio. - correct answer What are the characteristics of post-renal acute renal failure? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers They are reduced in all bands except α2. - correct answer What happens to albumin levels in nephrotic syndrome? Decreased albumin, increased α1, α2, and γ. - correct answer What changes occur in acute inflammation in electrophoresis? Cirrhosis with increased IgA. - correct answer What does beta-y bridging indicate in electrophoresis? Plasma cell neoplasm, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, or chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma. - correct answer What does an increase in M spike indicate in electrophoresis? Fibrinogen, hemoglobin, radiocontrast, or elevated tumor markers. - correct answer What can cause pseudo M spikes in electrophoresis? Strong albumin, α, and β bands; large proteins are filtered, while small proteins are reabsorbed. - AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers correct answer What are the characteristics of glomerular proteinuria in urine electrophoresis? Weak albumin, strong α and β bands; small proteins are filtered, while large proteins are absent due to tubular reabsorption. - correct answer What are the characteristics of tubular proteinuria in urine electrophoresis? It is synthesized in the liver and maintains fluid balance. - correct answer What is the function of albumin? Using bromcresol green (purple) or immunochemical methods. - correct answer How is albumin tested? Using the biuret reaction, which reacts alkaline copper sulfate with peptide bonds. - correct answer How is total protein measured? Copper and iron balancing enzymes. - correct answer What are CS enzymes? A multicopper oxidase and antioxidant produced in the liver. It is involved in the metabolic balance of copper and AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers iron through oxidase and antioxidant activity. It is also an acute-phase protein. - correct answer What is CP (Ceruloplasmin)? Wilson's disease (inhibition of synthesis), Menkes disease (decreased absorption), liver disease, malnutrition and absorption issues, and kidney disease. - correct answer What can cause low CP levels? Infection, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, leukemia, and Hodgkin's disease. - correct answer What can cause high CP levels? Alanine aminotransferase - specific to liver - correct answer What is ALT? increase - correct answer What happens to ALT levels in hepatocellular disorders? increase, but to a lesser extent - correct answer What happens to ALT levels in obstructive hepatic disorders? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers increase up to 4x the upper limit - correct answer What happens to AST levels in cirrhosis? Creatine kinase - found in skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, brain, intestines, kidneys, uterus, thyroid, liver, and prostate - correct answer What is CK? CK1 (BB - brain and intestine), CK2 (MB - cardiac), CK3 (MM - skeletal and cardiac) - correct answer What are the isoenzymes of CK? Lactate dehydrogenase - found in muscle (cardiac and skeletal), liver, kidney, RBCs, WBCs, lungs, lymph nodes, spleen, and brain - correct answer What is LD? LD1 (HHHH) to LD5 (MMMM) - correct answer What are the isoenzymes of LD? Acute myocardial infarction, hemolysis, renal infarction - correct answer What does an increase in LD1 indicate? Lung disorders - correct answer What does an increase in LD3 indicate? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Liver or skeletal muscle disorders - correct answer What does an increase in LD4 and LD5 indicate? Coronary artery disease with liver disease - correct answer What does an increase in LD6 indicate? Catalyzes the breakdown of starch and glycogen. - correct answer What is the role of amylase in the body? Uncomplicated amylase rises within 2-24 hours and returns to normal in 2-3 days. - correct answer What is the diagnostic significance of amylase in acute pancreatitis? Hydrolyzes ester linkages of fats to produce alcohol and fatty acids. - correct answer What is the role of lipase in the body? Pancreas, stomach, white blood cells, and adipose tissue. - correct answer Where is lipase found in the body? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers acute pancreatitis. - correct answer What does a high lipase indicate? Amylase cutoff is 3x, specificity is 95%, and sensitivity is 60-80%. Lipase cutoff is 3x, specificity and sensitivity are 90% each. - correct answer What are the cutoff values for amylase and lipase in confirming acute pancreatitis? CK, ALP, LD. - correct answer What are some examples of isoenzymes? Obstructive jaundice. - correct answer What is the significance of elevated ALP levels? Cirrhosis. - correct answer What is the significance of elevated y- glutamyltransferase levels? Hepatitis. - correct answer What is the significance of elevated AST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT) levels? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Convert tyrosine into catecholamines, regulate pain, emotions, digestion, etc. - correct answer Function of adrenal medulla hormones Regulate growth, reproductive functions, and water balance - correct answer Function of pituitary hormones Regulatory processes that maintain homeostasis - correct answer What are feedback mechanisms? Abnormal states of hormone deficiency or excess - correct answer What are hypo/hyper conditions? Tests to assess thyroid hormone levels and function - correct answer What are thyroid function tests? Controls energy usage in the body - correct answer What is the function of thyroxine (T4)? Thyroxine-binding globulin, transport protein that binds to T3 and T4; transports to tissues - correct answer What is TBG? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers More active form of thyroid hormone, elevated in hyperthyroidism - correct answer What is the significance of free T3? Stimulates release of thyroid hormones - correct answer What is the function of TSH? Regulate growth and development - correct answer What are growth hormones? Regulates ovarian and testicular function - correct answer What is the function of FSH? Induces ovulation and supports pregnancy - correct answer What is the function of LH? The main metabolite of serotonin. - correct answer What is 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5- HIAA)? To diagnose and monitor carcinoid tumors. - correct answer What is the purpose of 24 hour urine testing (5HIAA)? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers it is the primary metabolite of serotonin and used to determine serotonin levels - correct answer What is the relationship between serotonin and 5-HIAA? To see if there is problems with controlling blood pressure and balance fluids. - correct answer What is the purpose of an endocrine function test? precursors of essential compounds, a source of energy, and the stored form of energy. They also act as insulators against heat loss and organ damage, and allow for nerve conduction. - correct answer What are lipids? A source of energy when carbohydrate metabolism is unavailable, and a precursor of prostaglandins. - correct answer What is a fatty acid? A compound formed from the reaction between an alcohol and an acid. - correct answer What is an ester? production of sterols, such as bile acids, steroid hormones, and vitamin D. - AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers observes fungal elements in hair, skin, nails, and tissues by breaking down keratin. - correct answer purpose of KOH wet mount format To stain fungal walls by binding to cellulose and chitin, and can be observed under a fluorescent scope. - correct answer What is the purpose of Calcofluor white? Presumptively identify cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by creating a halo effect around yeast capsules. - correct answer What is the purpose of India ink? Stains for identifing fungi in tissue. - correct answer What are Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) and periodic acid-schiff (PAS) used for? To identify Histoplasma capsulatum in blood or bone marrow. - correct answer What is giemsa used for? particles are ionized, separated according to their mass- to-charge ratio, and measured by determining the time it takes for the ions to travel to a detector at the end of a time-of-flight tube. - correct answer What is matrix assisted laser AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers desorption/ionization time of flight (MALDI-TOF) mass spectrometry principle? brain heart infusion agar and incubate for 4-6 weeks at 25-30 degrees Celsius. - correct answer Growing requirement for fungi creamy or mucoid in appearance. - correct answer What are the characteristics of yeasts? spherical-to-oval yeast cells, range from 4-20 μm in diameter, and are surrounded by a mucopolysaccharide capsule; may produce a mucoid appearance. - correct answer What is a characteristic of cryptococcus spp? feet or starlike projections. - correct answer What is a characteristic of candida albicans? fuzzy or filamentous in appearance. - correct answer What are the characteristics of molds? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Nucleic acid sequence-based and transcription-mediated - correct answer What are the two types of target amplification? Cytologic or histologic examination using light microscopy to detect inclusions. - correct answer What is hybridization used for? Trichrome, GMS - correct answer What are the stains used in parasitology? Giardia intestinalis or Strongyloides stercoralis - correct answer What parasites can be found in duodenal contents? Parasite AG - Giardia, Cryptosporidium, Entamoeba histolytica - correct answer What parasites can be detected using serology with EIA? Cryptosporidium and Giardia - correct answer What parasites can be detected using DFA? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Free living amebae - Acanthamoeba spp, Naegleria fowleri, Trich - correct answer What can be cultured in parasitology? Stool oocytes visible with modified acid fast stain - correct answer What is the staining procedure for Cryptosporidium parvum and Cryptosporidium hominis? Detection and identification of cysts and trophozoites - correct answer What is the purpose of trichrome staining procedure? Small protozoa - correct answer What can be seen on the stained smear that may be missed by wet mount examinations? A modification of Gomori's original staining procedure for tissue - correct answer What is the Wheatley Trichrome technique? Enterobacteriaceae - correct answer Family of gram-negative bacilli that ferment glucose, reduce nitrates, and do not produce oxidase. AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Bacteria causing undulant fever and zoonotic infections; grows on routine media for 7-10 days in 5-10% CO2; appears as gram-negative coccobacilli. - correct answer Brucella Bordetella - correct answer Genus of gram-negative coccobacilli; grows on specific media for 3-7 days at 35C with supplemental CO2; colonies have a small, smooth, shiny appearance. organism spp causes whooping cough; HACEK family - correct answer Group of gram-negative bacilli commonly found in the upper respiratory tract. Haemophilus - correct answer Fastidious gram-negative coccobacilli; part of the HACEK family. Actinomycetemcomitans - correct answer Gram-negative bacilli found in the periodontal disease; colonies have a star shape with 6 points. AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Gram-negative curved bacilli - correct answer Bacteria that have a curved or spiral shape and stain pink in the Gram stain. Branching filamentous GPR, not acid fast - correct answer What is Actinomyces? Actinomyces israelii - correct answer What Actinomyces organism is a gram positive rod, catalase and indole negative, and has a white cerebriform (molar tooth) colony? Gram positive strict anaerobic bacterium - correct answer What is Clostridium difficile? Cycloserine cefoxitin egg yolk fructose agar - correct answer What is the selective medium used for culturing Clostridium difficile? Yellow with ground glass appearance; horse manure smell - correct answer What is the appearance of Clostridium difficile colonies on culture? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers A rapid membrane enzyme immunoassay for detecting Clostridium difficile antigen and toxins A and B - correct answer What is C diff toxin? antigen, and antibodies glutamate dehydrogenase, toxins A and B - correct answer What does the C. Diff Quik Chek Complete test detect? Purified antigen is attached to microplate wells, patient serum is added, followed by goat anti-human IgG globulin conjugated with horseradish peroxidase, read by spectrophotometer - correct answer How is the H. pylori IgG ELISA assay performed? Staphylococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa. - correct answer Which bacteria are commonly tested using the agar diffusion disk method? Bacteria is seeded onto agar, antibiotic discs are added. - correct answer How is the agar diffusion disk method performed? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers The antibiotic stops bacterial growth. - correct answer What does the formation of a zone of inhibition indicate? They correspond to MIC breakpoints. - correct answer What are the interpretations of Susceptible (S), Intermediate (I), and Resistant (R)? guaiac fecal occult blood test (gFOBT) - uses a chemical (guaiac) and fecal immunochemical test (iFOBT or FIT) uses antibodies (rabbit polyclonal). Change in density gives a qualitative result - correct answer What methods are used in fecal occult testing? To determine reference ranges for interpretation. - correct answer What is the purpose of comparing zones of inhibition with actual MIC values? based on immunocytochemical detection of CMV immediate early antigens in blood leukocytes - correct answer What is the purpose of antigenemia tests? enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) - correct answer How can cytomegalovirus be detected? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers To evaluate the presence of antibodies to more than one viral component. Used to confirm a positive ELISA result. - correct answer What is the purpose of western blot in HIV diagnosis? Qualitative immunoassay by lateral flow. - correct answer What is the rapid test used for HIV screening? To detect all subtypes of HIV and measure viral load. - correct answer What is nucleic acid testing used for in HIV diagnosis? Using indirect immunofluorescence with hep-2 cells and labeled antiglobulin. - correct answer How is ANA detected? To detect the presence of specific autoantibodies. - correct answer What is the purpose of EIA detection in ANA testing? To detect known ANA antigens using fluorescently labeled polystyrene beads. - correct answer What is MIA used for in ANA testing? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Glycoprotein produced by fetal liver; associated with testicular, ovarian, and hepatocellular carcinoma. - correct answer What is alpha fetoprotein? Substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood; examples include CA125 (ovarian cancer), PSA (prostate cancer), CEA (bowel cancer), MUC- 1 (carcinoma of breast), and HER-2 (breast cancer). - correct answer What are tumor markers? dark field microscopy (rare), nontreponemal serologic tests (VDRL and RPR), nonspecific screening tests for IgM and IgG antibodies, and serologic tests for treponemal antigens. - correct answer How is syphilis diagnosed? VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) and RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) tests. - correct answer What are the nontreponemal serologic tests for syphilis? detect IgM and IgG antibodies, as well as anti-cardiolipin antibodies (reagin). - correct answer What do nontreponemal serologic tests detect? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers cardiolipin, lecithin, cholesterol, and flocculation reactions. - correct answer What are the antigens used in syphilis testing? involve qualitative and quantitative microscopic flocculation, using serum and CSF (for neurosyphilis). Serum is heated to 56°C to inactivate complement. - correct answer How are nontreponemal VDRL tests performed? modification test of the VDRL test, involving aggregation with cardiolipin-coated charcoal particles. - correct answer What is the nontreponemal RPR test? treponemal antigens, fluorescent treponemal antibody adsorption (FTA-ABS), and microhemagglutination assay (MHA-TP). - correct answer What are the serologic tests for syphilis? agglutination of latex particles coated with goat IgG anti- human CRP when mixed with samples. - correct answer What is the CRP slide test? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers N-acytylgalactosamine; α - 3 N acetylgalactosaminyltransferase - correct answer What is the sugar that makes up A in the ABO group? galactose; α 3-d-galactosyltransferase - correct answer What is the B sugar of the ABO group ? A1 - 80%, A2 - 20% - correct answer What is the distribution of A1 and A2 blood types? Normal D expression that is weakened - correct answer What is Weak D? GYPA - MN, GYPB - S and s - correct answer What are the antigens in the MNS blood group system? 36 antigens, including Jsa, Jsb, Kpa, Kpb, K - correct answer What are the antigens in the Kell blood group system? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers ACKR1 - correct answer What is the gene associated with the Duffy blood group system? Fy a+b- (whites), fy ab+ (whites), fy a-b+ (whites), fy ab- (blacks) - correct answer What are the different phenotypes in the Duffy blood group system? jk a+b- (black), jk ab+ (white/Asian), jk a-b+ (white/Asian) - correct answer What are the different phenotypes in the Kidd blood group system? ABO, CW, anti M, Lewis, P - correct answer What are some naturally occurring antigens? Duffy and MNS groups - correct answer Which blood group antigens are destroyed by enzymes? Quantification of fetal bleed - correct answer What is the Kleihauer-Betke test used for? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers # fetal cells/2000 x 5000 ml + FMH (ml); FML/30 = # of RhIg to administer - correct answer How is the amount of RhIg to administer calculated? Fluid and electrolyte balance, acid-base balance, hormone production - correct answer What is the major role of the kidney? Filtration of substances due to high hydrostatic pressure - correct answer What is glomerular filtration? Volume of fluid filtered through glomerular capillary per minute - correct answer What is the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? Waste products from protein metabolism - correct answer What are NPN waste products? Clearance = urine level x urine volume / plasma level - correct answer What is the formula for creatine clearance? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Group A and B hemolytic strep, drugs, kidney infection, SLE. - correct answer What are the causes of acute glomerulonephritis? Long-term inflammation of the glomeruli with symptoms like mild hematuria, proteinuria, reduced renal function. - correct answer What is chronic glomerulonephritis? Glomerular injury causing massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia. - correct answer What is nephrotic syndrome? Oval fat bodies, increased α2 and beta globulins, decreased binding proteins, increased cholesterol and triglycerides. - correct answer What are the characteristics of nephrotic syndrome? Conditions that depress renal function without explanation by reduced GFR. - correct answer What are tubular diseases? Ischemic or toxic damage to the tubules, leading to impaired secretion or reabsorption and impaired AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers concentration. - correct answer What is tubular necrosis? Ischemia, bacterial/fungal/viral infections, drugs, transplant rejection. - correct answer What are the causes of tubular necrosis? Failure of the proximal tubule to reabsorb bicarbonate, leading to acidic blood. - correct answer What is renal tubular acidosis? Prostatic hypertrophy, carcinoma of prostate/bladder/lymph nodes, renal calculi. - correct answer What are the causes of urine tract obstruction? Calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, uric acid, cystine. - correct answer What are the types of renal calculi? Pain due to crystallization of calculi. - correct answer What are the symptoms of urine tract obstruction? GFR <60 ml/min, albuminuria for >3 consecutive months. - AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers correct answer What lab results indicate chronic kidney disease? Stage 1: kidney damage without decreased GFR (>90), Stage 2: damage with mild decrease in GFR (60-89), Stage 3: moderate decrease in GFR (30-59), Stage 4: severe decrease in GFR (15-29), Stage 5: renal failure (<15). - correct answer What are the stages of chronic kidney disease? Sudden loss of kidney function with pre-renal, post-renal, or intrarenal causes. - correct answer What is acute renal failure? Decreased renal perfusion, increased BUN-creatinine ratio, low fractional excretion of sodium. - correct answer What are the characteristics of pre-renal acute renal failure? Bilateral obstruction, increased BUN-creatinine ratio. - correct answer What are the characteristics of post-renal acute renal failure? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers They are reduced in all bands except α2. - correct answer What happens to albumin levels in nephrotic syndrome? Decreased albumin, increased α1, α2, and γ. - correct answer What changes occur in acute inflammation in electrophoresis? Cirrhosis with increased IgA. - correct answer What does beta-y bridging indicate in electrophoresis? Plasma cell neoplasm, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, or chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma. - correct answer What does an increase in M spike indicate in electrophoresis? Fibrinogen, hemoglobin, radiocontrast, or elevated tumor markers. - correct answer What can cause pseudo M spikes in electrophoresis? Strong albumin, α, and β bands; large proteins are filtered, while small proteins are reabsorbed. - AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers correct answer What are the characteristics of glomerular proteinuria in urine electrophoresis? Weak albumin, strong α and β bands; small proteins are filtered, while large proteins are absent due to tubular reabsorption. - correct answer What are the characteristics of tubular proteinuria in urine electrophoresis? It is synthesized in the liver and maintains fluid balance. - correct answer What is the function of albumin? Using bromcresol green (purple) or immunochemical methods. - correct answer How is albumin tested? Using the biuret reaction, which reacts alkaline copper sulfate with peptide bonds. - correct answer How is total protein measured? Copper and iron balancing enzymes. - correct answer What are CS enzymes? A multicopper oxidase and antioxidant produced in the liver. It is involved in the metabolic balance of copper and AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers iron through oxidase and antioxidant activity. It is also an acute-phase protein. - correct answer What is CP (Ceruloplasmin)? Wilson's disease (inhibition of synthesis), Menkes disease (decreased absorption), liver disease, malnutrition and absorption issues, and kidney disease. - correct answer What can cause low CP levels? Infection, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, leukemia, and Hodgkin's disease. - correct answer What can cause high CP levels? Alanine aminotransferase - specific to liver - correct answer What is ALT? increase - correct answer What happens to ALT levels in hepatocellular disorders? increase, but to a lesser extent - correct answer What happens to ALT levels in obstructive hepatic disorders? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers increase up to 4x the upper limit - correct answer What happens to AST levels in cirrhosis? Creatine kinase - found in skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, brain, intestines, kidneys, uterus, thyroid, liver, and prostate - correct answer What is CK? CK1 (BB - brain and intestine), CK2 (MB - cardiac), CK3 (MM - skeletal and cardiac) - correct answer What are the isoenzymes of CK? Lactate dehydrogenase - found in muscle (cardiac and skeletal), liver, kidney, RBCs, WBCs, lungs, lymph nodes, spleen, and brain - correct answer What is LD? LD1 (HHHH) to LD5 (MMMM) - correct answer What are the isoenzymes of LD? Acute myocardial infarction, hemolysis, renal infarction - correct answer What does an increase in LD1 indicate? Lung disorders - correct answer What does an increase in LD3 indicate? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Liver or skeletal muscle disorders - correct answer What does an increase in LD4 and LD5 indicate? Coronary artery disease with liver disease - correct answer What does an increase in LD6 indicate? Catalyzes the breakdown of starch and glycogen. - correct answer What is the role of amylase in the body? Uncomplicated amylase rises within 2-24 hours and returns to normal in 2-3 days. - correct answer What is the diagnostic significance of amylase in acute pancreatitis? Hydrolyzes ester linkages of fats to produce alcohol and fatty acids. - correct answer What is the role of lipase in the body? Pancreas, stomach, white blood cells, and adipose tissue. - correct answer Where is lipase found in the body? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers acute pancreatitis. - correct answer What does a high lipase indicate? Amylase cutoff is 3x, specificity is 95%, and sensitivity is 60-80%. Lipase cutoff is 3x, specificity and sensitivity are 90% each. - correct answer What are the cutoff values for amylase and lipase in confirming acute pancreatitis? CK, ALP, LD. - correct answer What are some examples of isoenzymes? Obstructive jaundice. - correct answer What is the significance of elevated ALP levels? Cirrhosis. - correct answer What is the significance of elevated y- glutamyltransferase levels? Hepatitis. - correct answer What is the significance of elevated AST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT) levels? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Convert tyrosine into catecholamines, regulate pain, emotions, digestion, etc. - correct answer Function of adrenal medulla hormones Regulate growth, reproductive functions, and water balance - correct answer Function of pituitary hormones Regulatory processes that maintain homeostasis - correct answer What are feedback mechanisms? Abnormal states of hormone deficiency or excess - correct answer What are hypo/hyper conditions? Tests to assess thyroid hormone levels and function - correct answer What are thyroid function tests? Controls energy usage in the body - correct answer What is the function of thyroxine (T4)? Thyroxine-binding globulin, transport protein that binds to T3 and T4; transports to tissues - correct answer What is TBG? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers More active form of thyroid hormone, elevated in hyperthyroidism - correct answer What is the significance of free T3? Stimulates release of thyroid hormones - correct answer What is the function of TSH? Regulate growth and development - correct answer What are growth hormones? Regulates ovarian and testicular function - correct answer What is the function of FSH? Induces ovulation and supports pregnancy - correct answer What is the function of LH? The main metabolite of serotonin. - correct answer What is 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5- HIAA)? To diagnose and monitor carcinoid tumors. - correct answer What is the purpose of 24 hour urine testing (5HIAA)? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers it is the primary metabolite of serotonin and used to determine serotonin levels - correct answer What is the relationship between serotonin and 5-HIAA? To see if there is problems with controlling blood pressure and balance fluids. - correct answer What is the purpose of an endocrine function test? precursors of essential compounds, a source of energy, and the stored form of energy. They also act as insulators against heat loss and organ damage, and allow for nerve conduction. - correct answer What are lipids? A source of energy when carbohydrate metabolism is unavailable, and a precursor of prostaglandins. - correct answer What is a fatty acid? A compound formed from the reaction between an alcohol and an acid. - correct answer What is an ester? production of sterols, such as bile acids, steroid hormones, and vitamin D. - AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers It occurs when there is insufficient elimination of CO2 by the lungs, leading to an increase in bicarbonate levels. - correct answer What is respiratory acidosis? It occurs when there is excessive elimination of CO2 by the lungs, leading to a decrease in bicarbonate levels. - correct answer What is respiratory alkalosis? It occurs due to excessive intake, production, or inadequate elimination of acid or base, and is compensated by changes in bicarbonate levels and CO2 levels. - correct answer What is metabolic acidosis/alkalosis? Measured ABG refers to the direct measurement of arterial blood gases, while calculated ABG refers to the estimation of blood gas values using the Henderson- Hasselbalch equation. - correct answer What are measured and calculated ABG? Peak levels refer to the highest concentration of a drug in the blood, while trough levels refer to the lowest concentration of a drug in the blood. - correct answer What are peak and trough therapeutic drug levels? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers It is a protein that acts as a 'glue' attaching the fetal sac to the uterine lining. - correct answer What is fibronectin? It is a major protein found in fetal serum and fetal liver, similar to albumin. - correct answer What is alpha fetoprotein (AFP)? accesses fetal lung development, with a range of 2.0-2.5. - correct answer What is the l/l ratio? Measuring fetal anemia. - correct answer What is the absorbance of bilirubin used for? Regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates. - correct answer What is the role of insulin in carb metabolism? starts with salivary amylase starts the breakdown, in the stomach monosaccharides are absorbed into the bloodstream, the blood sugar levels increase, stimulating the pancreas to secrete insulin. - correct answer How are carbs digested? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Measurement of light intensity at specific wavelengths. - correct answer What is spectrophotometry? Measurement of scattered light at specific wavelengths. - correct answer What is nephelometry? Measurement of light emitted by atoms or molecules in solution. - correct answer What is fluorometry? Measurement of light at specific wavelengths when an element returns from an excited to unexcited state. - correct answer What is atomic absorption spectrophotometry? Atomic absorption spectrophotometry. - correct answer what method measures minerals? pH, pCO2, pO2, and oxygen saturation. - correct answer What does blood gas measure? To separate ionized molecules in a buffer. - correct answer What is the purpose of electrophoresis? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Chromatography using charged stationary and opposite charged mobile phase to separate ionized solutes. - correct answer What is ion exchange chromatography? Separating hemoglobin variants or quantifying glycated hemoglobin. - correct answer What can ion exchange chromatography be used for? Measurement of solute concentration based on osmotic pressure. - correct answer What is osmometry? Platelet activation by vWF, collagen, epinephrine, ADP, thrombin, thromboxane A2. - correct answer What is primary hemostasis? Adhesion, secretion, aggregation. - correct answer What are the phases of primary hemostasis? Platelets adhere to collagen via receptor GPvi. - correct answer What happens during the adhesion phase of primary hemostasis? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Stress and ristocetin. - correct answer What activates the GPIB-IX-V complex during primary hemostasis? Granules, dense bodies, and txa2. - correct answer What is released during the secretion phase of primary hemostasis? Adherence of platelets mediated by gpiib/iiia receptor, binding fibrinogen with ionized calcium. - correct answer What is the role of aggregation in primary hemostasis? Activation of plasma proteins from the liver. - correct answer What is secondary hemostasis? It stabilizes the unstable factor infective FVIII. - correct answer Why is vWF important in secondary hemostasis? Extrinsic and intrinsic. - correct answer What are the two pathways of coagulation? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers TF:TV:VIIa complex. - correct answer What initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation? TF:VIIa + calcium + PF3 complex. - correct answer What is the extrinsic tenase complex? Negatively charged phospholipids. - correct answer What initiates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation? FIXa+FVIIIa + calcium + PF3 complex. - correct answer What is the intrinsic tenase complex? Activation of Fx. - correct answer What causes the activation common pathway of coagulation? FXa + FVa + PF3 + calcium complex. - correct answer What is the prothrombinase complex? Prothrombin to thrombin. - correct answer What does the prothrombinase complex convert? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers correct answer How is NRBC corrected in a white blood cell count? supravital stain - correct answer What stain is used to stain the RNA of retics? # retics x 100/1000 rbc - correct answer What is the formula for calculating retic %? 0.5-1.5% - correct answer What is the normal range for retic %? retic % x patient hematocrit/45 - correct answer What is the corrected retic formula? % retic x rbc count - correct answer What is absolute retic count? Fluorescent dyes or nucleic acid stains - correct answer How are rbcs treated in automated hgb measurement? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Light scatter or fluorescence - correct answer How are rbcs read in automated hgb measurement? Cyanmethemoglobin with Drabkin solution - correct answer What is the manual method for hgb measurement? Electrophoretic methods and high pressure liquid chromatography - correct answer What are the other methods for measuring hgbs? >97% hba, <3% hba2 - correct answer What is the normal migration pattern for adult hba? Cation exchange under high pressure - correct answer What is the method used in high pressure liquid chromatography? To subclassify leukemia - correct answer What is the purpose of flow cytometry in diagnosing hematological malignancies? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers CD 34, 19, TDT, HLA DR - correct answer What are the markers expressed by early b cells in flow cytometry? CD10, 19, HLA-DR, TdT, and sometimes CD34 - correct answer What are the markers expressed by intermediate pre b cells in flow cytometry? Contain a known amount of analyte being tested - correct answer What characteristics/functions do calibrators have? Calibration verification - correct answer assaying of materials of known concentration in the same manner as patient samples Measure quantities of various proteins in plasma, urine, csf, separate enzymes into their component isoenzyme, id antibodies - correct answer What are devices based on electrophoretic principles used for in the clinical lab? 2 - log %T - correct answer Equation for absorbance (%T)? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Higher HDL-C and lower total cholesterol and triglyceride levels - correct answer .What is the serum lipoprotein concentration pattern in premenopausal women compared to men? yes - correct answer Can hyponatremia with normal osmolality be seen in patients with hyperlipidemia? Because it is bound to neuronal proteins. - correct answer Why is chronic exposure to mercury cumulative? Screening for the presence of ethanol, methanol, isopropanol, acetone, and ethylene glycol. - correct answer What is the calculation of osmol gap used for? Fetal lung maturity. - correct answer What does FSI measure? GC-MS. - correct answer What method is used for confirming a positive opiate drug? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers urine - correct answer What is the specimen of choice for arsenic exposure less than a week ago? Oxygen (O2). - correct answer What do blood capillaries carry to tissues? A group of anemias with mild to severe microcytosis and hypochromia, disorders in the synthesis of globin, parts of the HbG molecule, and are a group of inherited disorders of HbG synthesis. - correct answer What are thalassemia? Decreased iron intake, increased iron loss, error in iron metabolism, and/or increased iron requirements. - correct answer What is iron deficiency anemia? Promyelocyte. - correct answer What is the stage of neutrophil that has nuclease with fine chromatin nucleoli and agranular myeloblast? Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) stain. - correct answer What stain is used to distinguish acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) from malignant lymphoma? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Chorea and undulant fever. - correct answer Which two infections do not increase erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)? Microcytic anemia. - correct answer What does a shift to the left in the erythrocyte series indicate? Measuring the strength of an inhibitor. - correct answer What is the Bethesda titer assay used for? liver - correct answer Where is prothrombin synthesized? Plasmin and plasminogen. - correct answer What are the two components involved in testing fibrinolysis? Qualitative and quantitative results for d fragment. - correct answer What does a d-dimer test report? Antibodies to Treponema pallidum. - correct answer What does the MHA-TP or TPHA test detect? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers Visible light. - correct answer What is the most common type of light emitted? Carbol-fuchsin. - correct answer What is the primary stain used in the acid- fast method? Hydrochloric acid and ethanol. - correct answer What are the decolorizers used in the acid-fast method? Giemsa stain. - correct answer What stain is used to detect parasites such as malaria? No nucleus or membrane-bound organelles, smaller ribosomes than eukaryotic cells. - correct answer What are the characteristics of prokaryotic cells? Due to a thick peptidoglycan layer with numerous teichoic acid cross-linkages. - correct answer Why do Gp cells resist decolorization? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers 3% - correct answer What percentage of co2 does a candle jar make? Fusobacterium nucleatum - correct answer Anaerobic, gram-negative bacilli with tapered ends, breadcrumb-like appearance, positive for indole, negative for nitrate, susceptible to kanamycin and colistin, and resistant to vancomycin. cefoxitin - correct answer Antibiotic used as surrogate marker of resistance to oxacillin with staph aureus ampicillin and streptomycin - correct answer Enterococcus resistant to aminoglycoside gentamicin, antibiotics to used instead Uses reverse transcriptase to produce cDNA from transcript - correct answer What is reverse transcription PCR? clindamycin - correct answer the D zone test identifies staph spp resistance to what antibiotic? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers antibodies - correct answer What are the chemicals from B cells that bind to virus antigens called? Influenza viruses, adenovirus, and RSV - correct answer What does the direct immunofluorescent assay detect? Platyhelminthes - correct answer What is the phylum of flatworms called? Fungal infection of nails - correct answer What is onychomycosis? Fungi with dark or pigmented hyphae - correct answer What are dematiaceous fungi? Tyrosine - correct answer What crystals accompanied by positive urine bili can be seen? acidic - correct answer Amorph urates are found in acidic or alkaline urine? AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers solutions with a known concentration expressed in moles of solute per liter of solution. - correct answer What is the definition of molar solutions? Molar concentration (M) is calculated by dividing the moles of solute (n) by the volume of solution (v) in liters. M= n/v - correct answer How do you calculate molar concentration? w/w (mass of solute/mass of solution x 100), w/v (mass of solute/volume of solution x 100), and v/v (volume of solute/volume of solution x 100). - correct answer What are the different types of percentage solutions? The equivalent weight is calculated by dividing the molecular weight of a substance by its valency - correct answer .How do you calculate the equivalent weight? m1v1 = m2v2 m1 is the initial molarity, v1 is the initial volume in liters, m2 is the final molarity, and v2 is the final volume in AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers liters. - correct answer What is the formula for dilutions? N = Eq/V N= normality Eq = number of gram equivalents of solute V = volume of solvent in liters - correct answer What is the formula for normal solutions? σ = √(∑(x−¯x) ( x − x ¯ ) 2 /n) - correct answer standard deviation formula standard deviation/mean * 100 - correct answer Coefficient of Variation (CV) formula the ratio of the standard deviation to the mean and shows the extent of variability in relation to the mean of the population. The higher the CV, the greater the dispersion. - correct answer What is CV? B. fragilis - correct answer most common anaerobic pathogen CDe - correct answer R1 AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers cDE - correct answer R2 CDE - correct answer Rz cDe - correct answer R0 Ce - correct answer r' cE - correct answer r" CE - correct answer ry Ce - correct answer r prostatic cancer - correct answer a high acid phosphatase indicates AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers post-hepatic jaundice - correct answer cholestatic jaundice is also known as biotin - correct answer folate can appear falsely high due to cytotoxic t-cells - correct answer cell that kills viruses macrophages - correct answer main cell of the reticuloendothelial system 1 minute - correct answer how long does it take blood to circulate in the body? 12-18% - correct answer RBC's contain how much hemoglobin per 100 ml Hematocrit - correct answer average mass of hemoglobin per rbc AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation - correct answer what is the correct order of hemostasis? defibrinated - correct answer when blood is mixed with glass beads in coag it is considered plasma cell - correct answer what wbc secretes antibodies measures the amount of CO2 from breath, indicates organisms that split urea - correct answer urea test catalase - correct answer staph vs strep test pseudomonas - correct answer GNB, aerobic, oxidase pos, motile salmonella - correct answer Widal test is used to ID AMT MLS Study Notes Questions And Answers fastidious - correct answer bacteria that only grows in specific nutrients agar, DiH2O, electrolytes - correct answer basic ingredients of agar cytoplasm of immature cells - correct answer pap stain stains enteroviruses - correct answer polio, echo, and coxsackieviruses are example of microaerophiles - correct answer organisms that require O2 lower than atmosphere are E coli - correct answer positive control for indol Sporothrix schenckii - correct answer What causes gardeners disease?