Microscopic Tests and Blood Analysis in Clinical Laboratory, Exams of Nursing

Download Microscopic Tests and Blood Analysis in Clinical Laboratory and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! AMT MLT Practice test/Study Guide Quality control - A process that monitors the accuracy and reproducibility of results through the use of control specimens. Shift - What demonstrates an abrupt change from the established average value of the control for 3 days in a row? Proficiency testing - A means by which quality control between laboratories is maintained. Provider-performed microscopy (PPM) - What are specific microscopic tests (wet mounts, potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparations, fern test) performed by a physician for his or her own patients? Category A - What category of bioterrorism agents has the following characteristics? Pathogens that are rarely seen in the United States, these agents have the highest priority; organisms in this category pose a risk to national security because they can be easily disseminated or transmitted from person to person, result in high mortality rates and have the potential for major public health impact. Category B - What category of bioterrorism agents has the following characteristics? These agents have the second highest priority and include pathogens that are moderately easy to disseminate, results in moderate morbidity rates and low mortality rates, and require specific enhancements of the CDC's diagnostic capacity and enhanced disease surveillance. Category A. - Agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and arenaviruses are classified as Electric equipment. - Class C fire extinguishers are used for Infectious waste - OSHA has defined __________ as blood and blood products, contaminated sharps, pathology waste products, and microbiological waste. 2013 - All employees who work with hazardous chemicals will be required to be trained about the new labels and the elements of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) by December 1 of ___________. Safety Data Sheets - Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) are now called: Pictograms - The GHS brings with it a new chemical labeling standard using ____________. Spectrophotometry. - The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that substances of clinical interest selectively absorb or emit electromagnetic energy at different wavelengths is Material safety data sheet (MSDS). - Reference materials about the individual chemical are provided by all chemical manufacturers and suppliers by means of 20 mL - How many milliliters (mL) of 0.25M NaOH are needed to make 100 mL of a 0.05 M solution of NaOH? HBsAg +, total anti-HBc +, IgM anti-HBc +, anti-HBs - - A patient with an acute HBV infection would be expected to have which set of serological test results? Biliverdin - The immediate precursor of bilirubin is Intrahepatic cholestasis - You have a a patient's sample that has a slightly elevated ALT, LD and bilirubin with a very elevated GGT and an elevated alkaline phosphatase. What might be the patient's diagnosis? Type 1. - Insulin-dependent diabetes is usually diagnosed in children and young adults and was previously called "juvenile diabetes" is Insulin - A hormone secreted by the pancreas after a meal, responds to high glucose levels, promoting glucose entry into cells is______________________. . Albumin and globulin - Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00 Flag question Question text Plasma proteins are the most frequently analyzed of all proteins. What are the two major measured plasma proteins? Total LDH - The highest levels of this enzyme are seen in pernicious anemia and hemolytic disorders. Amylase - What enzyme catalyzes the breakdown of starch and glycogen, and begins to increase in concentration in the blood 2 to 12 hours after onset of an attack and peaks at 24 hours? Atherosclerosis - Which of the following is a condition of deposition of plaques in the blood vessels that has been proven to lead to coronary artery disease? Myoglobin, troponins, and CK-MB - The best marker combination of assays for the diagnosis of an acute MI follows: Prostate - Which tissue is considered the richest source of acid phosphatase? TnI - The patient presented at the clinic after returning from a fishing trip. Chief complaint is left-sided anterior chest pain that started 3 days ago. Patient states no injury. Which cardiac test would give the physician the best picture of diagnosis? Gluconeogenesis - What is stimulated by the hormones glucagon, cortisol, and throxine? Steroid hormones - What hormone is hydrophobic and insoluble in water? thymus gland - The endocrine gland once thought to have no role in the physiology of adults, but now known for its crucial role in T-cell maturation is the High density lipoprotein - This class of lipoprotein is produced by the liver and transports excess cholesterol from the tissues to the liver. Exogenous pathway - Lipid metabolism involves four distinct pathways. Which pathway takes newly synthesized chylomicrons and then goes to the liver to convert some cholesterol to bile acids? Calcium - What electrolyte is essential for myocardial contraction? A decreased level of this analyte impairs cardiac function and produces irregular muscle spasms (tetany). Increase in blood pH. - A decrease in ionized calcium often is caused by pharmacokinetics. - The mathematics modeling of drug concentration in circulation which helps assist in establishing a dosage regimen is CA 15-3 - The main purpose of this assay is to monitor breast cancer patients after mastectomy. It is positive in patients with other conditions, including liver disease, some inflammatory conditions, and other carcinomas. Troponin. - A complex of three proteins that bind to the thin filaments of striated cardiac or skeletal muscle and regulate muscle contraction is CA 125 - What is elevated in carcinomas and benign disease of various organs, including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and endometriosis, but it is most useful in ovarian and endometrial carcinomas? Rouleaux formation - What represents an abnormal distribution pattern of RBCs, which stick together or become aligned in aggregates that look like stacks of coins? This arrangement is a typical artifact in the thick area of blood films. Thalassemias. - A group of anemias that demonstrate mild to severe microcytosis and hypochromia are disorders in the synthesis of globin, a component of the hemoglobin molecule and are a group of inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis are Asynchronous maturation. - Megaloblastic erythrocytes have an abnormal developmental sequence. As they develop, cells of the megablastic sequence have a more open or immature chromatin pattern in the nucleus, referred to as Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation - In simplified terms, iron-deficiency anemia may result from the following: Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase (TdT) - Which cytochemical stain is used to help distinguishing acute lymphocyte leukemia from malignant lymphoma? Chronic myelogenic leukemia - A differential shows extreme leukocytosis, normal RBC morphology with possible NRBCs, and exhibits a shift to the left with all stages of granulocyte maturation. Which disorder is this? Myeloblast - Which stage of neutrophil has a nucleus with fine chromatin nucleoli and agranular cytoplasm? (Leukocyte count x100)/(100 + # of NRBC) - Nucleated erythrocytes may falsely elevate leukocyte count which a correct leukocyte count must be performed as a corrective procedure. Which of the below is the correct formula? Bone marrow - The life span of the neutrophil is spent in three compartments. Which compartment is the site of differentiation, proliferation, and maturation? Thrombopoietin - What is the major humoral factor regulating platelet development which influences all stages of megakaryocyte production? Large center square - When counting platelets using the unopette system (a manual method), which area is used to count on the Neubauer hemacytometer? Methanol fixation - What is the first part of the staining process for morphological examination? Shift cells - On blood films prepared with Wright's stain, abnormally early release of the RBCs from the marrow into the peripheral blood is indicated by the presence of nucleated RBCs or polychromatophilic macrocytes, also known as New methylene blue method - An erythrocyte still possessing RNA is referred to as a reticulocyte. What supravital stains bind, neutralize, and cross-link ribonucleic acid (RNA)? Chorea and undulant fever - In the vast majority of infections, there is at least some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions? Histogram - What is used to evaluate size distribution curve of leukocyte data and allows visualization of subpopulation of cells based on their relative sizes? Westgard - Analyzing the quality control results, who developed the rule that is used to evaluate control results when two or more levels of control material are used? flow cytometry - Which principal automated hematology analyzer allows the simultaneous analysis of multiple characteristics through a laser light beam? Impedance - Which automated blood cell counting principle is based on increased resistance that occurs when a blood cell with poor conductivity passes through an electrical field? Erythrocytes - Which cellular constituent of blood contains the vital protein hemoglobin? Prolonged washing - While performing a microscopic evaluation on a peripheral blood smear, you notice the color is excessively pink. What could be the cause? Plasma cells. - B-lymphocytes differentiation is complex and proceeds through both an antigen-independent and antigen dependent stage, culminating in the generation of mature, end-stage, nonmotile cells called Bleeding time. - Test for the vascular factors include the capillary fragility test and Closure time (CT) - What is the term used to describe the aggregation of soluble test antigens? Antigenicity - What is influenced by molecular size, foreignness, shape of the molecule, and chemical composition? IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE - What are the five immunoglobulin (Ig) classes of antibodies with different molecular weights and biological activity that occur in human blood and body fluids? ABO antibodies - The purpose of the reverse group testing (ABO serum testing) is to detect what? A - If you mix an unknown antigen (patient red cell) with a known antibody (Anti-A) and get visible agglutination, which unknown antigen is detected? Dolichus biflorus - Which reagent is used to distinguish between A1 and A2 red cells? B - A group A individual will have which ABO antibody in their plasma or serum? IgM - What antibodies of the ABO blood group system typically cause rapid hemolysis of red cells if an incompatible unit of blood is transfused? 3% - One unit of transfused red blood cells (RBCs) should increase the hematocrit by what percentage? Patient identification error - If during an immediate spin crossmatch, if the results are incompatible what is likely the cause? abdominal trauma, intrauterine transfer, amniocentesis - A 300µg dose of RhIG should be given routinely to unsensitized D-negative mothers at 28 weeks gestation after the following condition(s) 30 mL - What is the maximum amount of fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) D positive fetal red cells a women is allowed to lose for one dose of RhIG? Elution - IgG antibody complexes on red blood cells can be dissociated and placed in a solution to test specificity. What process is this? H - A person who is said to be a secretor is an individual that has the Se allele and expresses the soluble form of which antigen in their secretions? Panel cells react at room temperature - What is the most significant indicator that you are working with a cold agglutin? sensitization. - The binding of an antibody or complement component to a red cell is the definition of antigen. - A substance that is foreign and binds specifically to an antibody or a T-cell receptor is a definition of A condition when a mother makes an antibody to red cell antigens from the fetus. - Which of the following statements is true regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? D-galactose. - The immunodominant sugar for the B antigen is Landsteiner's rule. - the rule of stating that normal, healthy individuals possess ABO antibodies to the ABO blood group antigens that are absent from their red cells is termed phenoytpe. - The physical expression of inherited traits is determined by reacting red cells with known antisera and observing for the presence or absence of hemagglutination is Age, Genetic make-up, Route of inoculation - The primary immune response is elicited as the first exposure to a foreign antigen and is influenced by the characteristics of the antigen and immune response. What are some host properties contributing to the immune response? Direct antiglobulin test - Which immunohematology test is used to detect antibody bound to red cells in-vivo and uses the AHG reagent? Weiner - Which theory with regards to Rh believes that each parent gives one Rh gene but that alleles at one gene locus are responsible for expression of their system antigens on the red cell? Recording data on appropriate log - Which of the following is an example of good record keeping in Blood Banking? 12 months - A spinal fluid from a 2 day old neonate with fever grows moist colonies on blood agar that are >0.5 mm with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis after 24 hours incubation. The gram stain reveals a gram positive cocci in chains. The isolate is CAMP test positive and PYR negative. The most likely identification is use of antibiotic-impregnated filter paper disks placed on an agar plate that has been seeded with a lawn of bacteria. - Disk diffusion or the Kirby-Bauer method of susceptibility testing is performed by antibodies bound to enzymes - Enzyme-linked immunoassays (ELISA) employ the use of _______________ to produce a visible end point. reverse transcriptase to produce cDNA from transcript - Reverse transcription-PCR uses Hippurate hydrolysis - Which of the following tests may be useful for differentiating Campylobacter jejuni from similar organisms Bile solubility test - With the addition of a bile salt, sodium desoxycholate, the lytic process is accelerated with this test, what is this test? Flotation - What procedures allow the separation of protozoan cysts and certain helminth eggs? nonspecific agglutination reactions. - The use of a control latex in latex agglutination testing helps to determine if the positive test result is due to Lysine Iron Agar test - What test for the enzymes lysine deaminase and lysine decarboxylase and is helpful in screening stool specimens for enteric pathogen? spiders, mites, and ticks. - Parasites can belong to the phylum Arthropoda, which includes insects Cellophane tape preparation - What is the proper specimen to collect for pinworm examination? Wheatley trichrome - What is the most commonly used stain for parasitic examination of stool samples? Detection of parasite antigens in clinical samples - The use of EIA methods for the detection of an acute intestinal parasite infection is primarily used in what way? itching, scaling and ring like patches of the skin, thick discolored nails, brittle, broken hairs. - Superficial or cutaneous mycoses cause there is a constriction present at the base of the germ tube where it attaches to the mother cell. - A pseudogerm tube occurs when dark or pigmented hyphae. - Dematiaceous fungi produce Calcofluor White - KOH used in conjunction with what fluorescent dye will enable the microbiologist to visualize fungal structures? a light-chain immunoglobulin associated with multiple myeloma. - Bence Jones protein is Suprapubic - Which type of urine specimen is best used for bacterial cultures from infants? Porphobilinogen - What is a normal, colorless precursor of the porphyrins? Osmolality - What is a measure of the number of solute particle per unit amount of solvent; thus it depends only on the number of particles in solution? the weight of 1mL of urine in grams divided by the weight of 1mL of urine. - Urine specific gravity is an expression of density of urine and is expressed by Sudan III. - Identification of oval fat bodies is confirmed by staining with discard the last urine collected in the 24 hour urine collection period. - All of the following about a 24-hour collection beginning at 7 a.m. are true except Trichomonas - A pear shaped flagellate with an undulating membrane commonly found in urine sediment is albumin - In using the reagent strip tests for protein, it is more sensitive to acetone and acetoacetic acid. - Acetest tablet test is used to confirm