Laboratory Techniques and Clinical Applications in Clinical Laboratory Science, Exams of Nursing

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AMT MT Certification Exam standard deviation - The statistic that quantifies how close numerical QC values are in relation to each other is: Precision - The reproducibility of a value upon repeated measurements is referred to as: Accuracy - The closeness of a measurement to its true value is referred to as: MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) are now called - Safety Data Sheets (SDS) Level-Jennings chart - A graphical presentation of run to run or day to day quality control values is a: Quality indicator - Established measures used to determine how well an organization meets needs and operational performance expectations is referred to as: Calibration Verification - Under CLIA law, the assaying of materials of known concentration in the same manner as patient samples to substantiate the instrument or test system's calibration throughout the reportable range for the patient test result is: FDA (Food and Drug Administration) - What agency determines the complexity of a lab test system? Analyte - A substance or constituent for which the laboratory conducts testing is: Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP) - Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories. Hook effect - Concentration of antigen (analyte) exceeds the amount of the antibody present in the reaction. polyacrylamide gel - Electrophoresis support material that separates proteins on the basis of charge and molecular size Fluorometer - An immunoassay methodology using either europium or phyconiliproteins would use which detection method? Mass Spectrometer - Instrument that ionizes the target molecule then separates and measured the mass-to-charge ratio. Chelation of Calcium in EDTA tube - Prevents the coagulation by inhibiting coagulation. Ruthenium III - Which label used in detection of electrochemiluminescence? Valinomycin - Key membrane component for potassium selective electrode. An International Unit (IU) is defined as the amount of enzyme that will catalyze which of the following? Cystic Fibrosis - Pancreatitis, pancreatic carcinoma, and which either pancreatic disease are the major medical conditions of this organ? Cholesterol - Common precursor for all adrenal steroids? Glucagon - Produced in the alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Chylomicrons - Lipoproteins that transfer triglycerides to the liver. Chylomicrons - Metabolism occurs in the exogenous pathway renal failure - Hyperkalemia may be caused by this condition: Vitamin D - Serum calcium levels are regulated by PTH, calcitonin, and which other hormone? CSF/serum albumin index - The integrity of blood-brain barrier may be determined by which index? THC-COOH - Can be detected in urine following passive inhalation. Timing of specimen collection - Most important factor in TDM First-Pass - A drug that metabolizes in the liver to a large degree before it reaches the blood stream has undergone this type of metabolism: Wilson's Disease - Serum copper levels than the reference interval increased urinary levels described in which condition? urine - Specimen of choice for arsenic, if exposure took place less than 1 week ago? 250 times greater - The binding affinity for hemoglobin for carbon monoxide when compared with that for oxygen is approximately: Albumin - Good indicator of chronic malnutrition hCG - Has not been cleared by the FDA for use as a tumor marker NADH - Common enzymatic methods for alcohol determination measure the production of: Cyclosporine - Immunosuppressant drugs include tacrolimus, sirolimus, and ________. CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) - (most widely used tumor marker): Used in management of gi tumors (colon cancer), adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lover and lung Erythrocyte size, hgb level, RBC count, HCT - RBC indices are affected by: CO2 - Hemoglobin transports which gas from tissues to the lungs? oil immersion - The WBC and RBC morphology is examined under which lens? nucleated red blood cell (NRBC) - What cell would cause a falsely elevated white blood cell count? buffy coat - The visible white-colored layer between RBC's and the plasma in a manually spun crit tube or when anticoagulated blood is left to stand RBC's just touching - WBC differential is done in an area of the slide where the: hemoglobin analysis - Is an oxygen-carrying capacity test, an indirect test Westergren method - Plasmin - The active enzyme that is responsible for digesting fibrin or fibrinogen Factor X, II, VI and Factor IX - Blood clotting factors that are Vitamin K dependent normal PT, prolonged PTT - Consistent for a patient that had a factor VIII deficiency or hemophilia A Thrombin Time (TT) - Purpose is plasma factors, measures concentration and activity of fibrinogen in stage III; monitors Coumadin therapy Heparin - The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor which drug therapy? D-dimer - Test used to rule out pulmonary embolism Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) - Particle agglutination is used for detecting D-Dimers associated with ___________. Reports qualitative and quantitative results for the D fragment - d-dimer rapid tests Prothrombin group - What measures factors II, VII, I , X? Bleeding time - Tests for vascular factors include the capillary fragility test and __________. Excessive thrombosis - What symptoms would you expect to see from a patient that had decreased function of the fibrinolytic system? Closure Time (CT) - What is the test system to assess platelet-related primary Hempstead is with greater accuracy and reliability than bleeding time? prothrombin - What is synthesized by the liver through the action of Vitamin K? graft rejection - Destruction of grafted tissue by attacking lymphocytes Latent syphilis stage - The stage of syphilis infection in which a patient does not exhibit any symptoms but is still potentially infectious is called ___________. Direct fluorescent immunoassay - 1. Antibody labeled with flour oh Rome directed against the desired antigen is added to a slide with the specimen that potentially contains the desired antigen being tested for... 2. Following incubation, the slide is washed. 3. The slide is observed under a fluorescent microscope. Rubella antibody IgM response - Usually occurs within 3 weeks after rash and pose-vaccination autoimmune disorders - Antinuclear antibodies are used in the diagnosis of: indirect immunofluorescence - One of the most commonly used tests for Antinuclear Antibodies NAAT (nucleic acid amplification test) - Current laboratory testing method for toxin A/B that can be used for either primary or confirmatory testing is: Pregnancy immunochromatographic cassette tesfs - B-hCG binds to the monoclonal anti-B-hCG complexed to an indicator such as colloidal gold particles usually in shape of line or plus sign Reverse passive agglutination - - particles are coated with antibody - used for specific microbial antigen Direct immunoflourescent assay (DFA) - Technique is used to detect antigen-antibody reactions that can be seen with a fluorescent muscroscope. Nosocomial diarrhea - C. difficile is leading cause of: LAMP (loop-mediated isothermal amplification) - Detects a stable region of the toxin A gene is based on: Streptozyme test, if positive, by ASO - Test most likely not to miss potential antibodies produced against streptococcal antigens When performing a screen cell and antibody panel as part of a cross match, if all screening cells, panel cells and compatibility test are reactive at the anti human globulin phase, what is this a characteristic of? A foreign substance - The immune system of an Rh negative mother with an Rh positive fetus treats the Rh positive fetal cells as: Cross into the mother's bloodstream through the placenta - During pregnancy, red cells from the unborn baby: polyethylene glycol - PEG is another antibody enhancement medium and stands for: Abnormal concentrations of serum proteins, altered serum-protein ratios, high molecular weight volume expanders - Rouleaux may be caused by: Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS) - LISS is an antibody reaction enhancement medium and stands for: GVHD (graft vs host disease) - May occur after an allogenic transplant of bone marrow or stem cells Having cancer treatments, who have had a transplant, with bleeding during the surgical procedure - Platelets are administered to patients: 1. Stable up to 42 days in proper refrigeration , 2. used in traumas, surgery, anemia treatments and other blood loss - Red cells from donors are: Transfusion related complicatiins - Include infection transmission, alloimmunization and immunohematologic reactions Anti-A or Anti-B antibodies - Are almost always capable of causing rapid destruction of incompatible transfused red cells. GVHD - graft vs. host disease Cryoprecipitated AHF is stable for one year frozen and can be used - To treat patients with hemophilia, von Willibrand disease and other coagulation abnormalities Red cells, platelets, plasma, cryoprecipitates - One unit of donor blood can help multiple people. Some components from whole blood are: Stable 5 days at room temperature with constant agitation - Platelets from whole blood are: The transfusion process has: - 5 steps- recipient ID, sample ID, choose component and prepare, issue product from BB, verify recipient at bedside and begin transfusion 1. Prior to donation 2. And the donated unit is tested using 9 laboratory tests, 3. By a set of standard questions to determine their health status. - Donors are screened: Between 1-6 degree C - Red blood cells must be stored: Plasma must be stored: - -18 degree C or colder Common pili function to - Help bacteria attach to host's cell's surfaces Ziehl-Neelsen - Which acid fast method uses carbol-fuchsia as the primary stain, a mixture of 3% hydrocholoric acid and 95% ethanol as the decolonizer, and methylene blue as the counter stain? Auramine-Rhodamine - Stains used in the detection of mycobacteria thick peptidoglycan layer with numerous two hour acid cross-linkages - The property of certain bacterial cell walls that enables them to resist decolonization during gran staining is: 1. One end of the bacterial cell 2. Both ends of the bacterial cell 3. The entire cell surface - Flagella are located on: poikilocytosis - variation in shapes anisocytosis - variation in RBC size