ANCC PMHNP Exam Chapters 2-4, Exams of Health sciences

Download ANCC PMHNP Exam Chapters 2-4 and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! [Date] ANCC PMHNP Exam Chapters 2-4| 139 Questions and Answers, Graded A+. 1. Nurse Practitioner Core Competencies - Correct answer all nurse practitioners upon graduation are expected to meet these. These include scientific foundations, leadership, quality, practice inquiry, technology and information literacy, policy, health delivery system, ethics, and independent practice 2. history of NP role - Correct answer the NP role was introduced in 1965 by Loretta Ford and Henry Silver, MD at the University of Colorado. They identified new roles in which experienced RNs with advanced education and skills were performing clinical duties traditionally reserved for physicians. 3. License, Accreditation, Certification, and Education Consensus Model - Correct answer adopted by many nursing organizations, this provides guidance for states to adopt uniformity in the regulation of APRN roles; finalized in 2008 4. state legislative statutes - Correct answer grant legal authority for NP practice 5. Nurse Practice Act - Correct answer every state has one; provides title protection (who may be called a nurse practitioner), defines advanced practice, prevailing state laws that define scope of practice, places restrictions on practice, sets NP credentialing requirements, states grounds for disciplinary action, and [Date] may specifically require that an NP develop a collaborative agreement with a physician 6. States grounds for disciplinary action - Correct answer practicing without a valid license, falsification of records, medicare fraud, failure to use appropriate nursing judgment, failure to follow accepted nursing standards, failure to complete accurate nursing documentation 7. collaborative agreement - Correct answer a protocol that describes what types of drugs might be prescribed and defines some form of oversight for NP practice 8. licensure - Correct answer a process by which an agency of state government grants permission to persons to engage in the practice of that profession; also prohibits all others from legally doing protected practice 9. credentialing - Correct answer process used to protect the public by ensuring a minimum level of professional competence 10.certification - Correct answer credential that provides title protection; determines scope of practice; process by which a professional organization or association certifies that a person licensed to practice as a professional meets set standards, assures public of mastery, assures person has acquired necessary skills [Date] 20. justice - Correct answer doing what is fair; fairness in all aspects of care 21.beneficence - Correct answer promoting well-being and doing good 22.nonmaleficence - Correct answer doing no harm 23. fidelity - Correct answer being true and loyal 24.autonomy - Correct answer doing for self 25.veracity - Correct answer telling the truth 26. respect - Correct answer treating everyone with equal respect 27.deontological theory - Correct answer an action is judged as good or bad based on the act itself regardless of the consequences 28. teleological theory - Correct answer an action is judged as good or bad based on consequence or outcome 29.virtue ethics - Correct answer actions are chosen based on moral virtue or the character of the person making the decision [Date] 30.malpractice insurance - Correct answer provides financial protection against claims of malpractice (coverage for negligence and for highly technical or professional skills required by NPS), recommended universally for all NPs, does not protect NPs from charges of practicing outside scope of practice, provides NPs their own legal representation even if their agency carries it a well 31.duty - Correct answer can be established before office visit; the NP has to exercise reasonable care when undertaking and providing treatment to the client 32.breach of duty - Correct answer the NP violated the applicable standard of care in treating client's condition 33.proximate cause - Correct answer there is a causal relationship between the breach in the standard of care and the client's injuries 34.damages - Correct answer the client experiences permanent and substantial damages as a result of the breach in standard of care 35.competency - Correct answer a legal, not medical concept; determination that a client can make reasonable judgments and decisions regarding treatment and other health concerns [Date] 36.commitment basic criteria - Correct answer person has diagnosed psychiatric disorder, person is harmful to self or others as consequence of disorder, person is unaware or unwilling to accept the nature and severity of the disorder, and treatment is likely to improve functioning 37. involuntary admission - Correct answer admission to a hospital or other treatment facility against persons' will; clients maintain all civil liberties except ability to come and go as they please 38.voluntary admission - Correct answer admission to a hospital or other treatment facility willfully; clients maintain all civil liberties 39. risk assessment - Correct answer continuous monitoring for high risk situations, assessing persons for non-healthy behaviors 40.healthcare proxy - Correct answer durable power of attorney 41.durable power of attorney - Correct answer legally binding in all 50 states, designates in writing an agent to act on behalf of a person should he or she be unable to make healthcare decisions; includes financial decision making; should be considered as an aspect of relapse planning for clients with chronic psychiatric disorders [Date] 53. initiative vs guilt - Correct answer 3-6 years; mastery indications include self- directed behavior, goal formation, sense of purpose. Failure indications include lack of self-initiated behavior, lack of goal orientation 54. industry vs inferiority - Correct answer 6-12 years; mastery indications include ability to work, sense of competency and achievement. Failure includes sense of inferiority, difficulty learning, working 55. identity vs role confusion - Correct answer 12-20 years; mastery includes personal sense of identity; failure includes identity confusion, poor self- identification in group settings 56. intimacy vs isolation - Correct answer 20-35 years; mastery includes committed relationships, capacity to love; failure includes emotional isolation and egocentrism 57.generativity vs stagnation - Correct answer 35-65 years; mastery includes ability to give time and talents to others, ability to care for others. Failure includes self- absorption, inability to grow and change as a person, inability to care for others 58. integrity vs despair - Correct answer 65+; mastery includes fulfillment and comfort with life, willingness to face death, insight and balanced perspective on [Date] life's events; failure includes bitterness, sense of dissatisfaction with life, despair over impending death 59.psychodynamic theory - Correct answer developed by Freud, focus is on concepts of intrapsychic conflict among the structures of the mind; assumes behavior is purposeful and meaningful 60.principle of psychic determinism - Correct answer tenet of psychodynamic theory that states that even apparently meaningless, random, or accidental behavior is actually motivated by underlying unconscious mental content 61.age of onset for intellectual disability - Correct answer infancy- usually evident at birth 62.age of onset for ADHD - Correct answer early childhood; per DSM-5 by age 12 63.age of onset for schizophrenia - Correct answer 18-25 for men; 25-35 for women 64.age of onset for major depression - Correct answer onset is late adolescence to young adulthood 65.age of onset for dementia - Correct answer most common after age 85 [Date] 66. id - Correct answer contains primary drives or instincts, urges (hunger, sex, aggression) or fantasies; drives are largely unconscious, sexual, or aggressive in content, and infantile in nature; operates on the pleasure principle; seeks immediate satisfaction; present at birth and motivates early infantile actions; "I want" 67.ego - Correct answer contains the concept of external reality; rational mind, responsible for logical and abstract thinking, mediates demands of drives and environmental realities; operates on reality principle; begins to develop at birth as infant struggles to deal with environment; responsible for use of defense mechanisms; "I think, I evaluate" 68.superego - Correct answer is the ego-ideal; contains sense of conscience or right vs wrong; contains aspirations, ideals, morals; regulated by guilt and shame; begins to fully develop around age 6 as child comes into contact with external authority figures; "I should or ought" 69.oral stage - Correct answer 0-18 months; primary means of discharging drives and achieving gratification are sucking, chewing, feeding, and crying; failure linked to schizophrenia, substance abuse, paranoia [Date] 82.projection - Correct answer defense mechanism of unconscious rejection of emotionally unacceptable personal attributes, beliefs, or actions by attributing them to other people, situations, or events 83. regression - Correct answer defense mechanism of returning to more comfortable thoughts, behaviors, or feelings used in earlier stages of development in response to current conflict, stress, or threat 84. repression - Correct answer defense mechanism of unconscious exclusion of unwanted, disturbing emotions, thoughts, or impulses from conscious awareness 85. reaction formation - Correct answer defense mechanism of overcompensation; unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or behaviors are pushed from conscious awareness by displaying and acting on the opposite feeling, thought, or behavior 86. rationalization - Correct answer defense mechanism of justifying illogical, unreasonable ideas, feelings, or actions by developing an acceptable explanation that satisfies the person 87.undoing - Correct answer defense mechanism of attempting behaviors that make up for or undo an unacceptable action, feeling, or impulse [Date] 88. intellectualization - Correct answer defense mechanism of attempting to master current stressor or conflict by expansion of knowledge, explanation, or understanding 89.suppression - Correct answer defense mechanism; conscious analog of repression; conscious denial of a disturbing situation, feeling or event 90.sublimation - Correct answer defense mechanism; unconscious process of substitution of socially acceptable, constructive activity for strong unacceptable impulse 91.altruism - Correct answer defense mechanism; meeting the needs of others in order to discharge drives, conflicts, or stressors 92. interpersonal theory - Correct answer developed by Sullivan; behavior occurs because of interpersonal dynamics; interpersonal relationships and experiences influence ones personality development, which is called the self-system 93.health belief model - Correct answer developed by Becker; explains that healthy people do not always take advantage of screening or preventative programs because of perception of susceptibility, seriousness of illness, perceived benefits of treatment, perceived barriers to change, expectations of efficacy [Date] 94.precontemplation - Correct answer person has no intention to change 95.contemplation - Correct answer person is thinking about changing; is aware that there is a problem but not committed to changing 96.preparation - Correct answer person has made the decision to change; is ready for action 97.action - Correct answer the person is engaging in specific overt actions to change 98.maintenance - Correct answer the person is engaging in behaviors to prevent relapse 99.self-efficacy - Correct answer perception of one's ability to perform a certain task at a certain level of accomplishment 100. theory of cultural care - Correct answer nursing theory by Leininger that states regardless of the culture, care is the unifying focus and the essence of nursing; health and well being can be predicted through cultural care 101. theory of self-care - Correct answer nursing theory by Dorothy Orem that states that self-care includes activities that maintain life, health, and well-being [Date] 116. evidence-based practice - Correct answer the integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and client values and needs 117. PICO - Correct answer P = patient, population, problem 118. I = intervention 119. C = comparison  = outcome 120. qualitative hierarchy - Correct answer 1. RCTs, meta-analyses, systematic reviews 121. 2. Evidence-based guidelines based on systematic reviews 122. 3. Evidence from controlled trials w/o randomization 123. 4. Evidence from systemic review of descriptive and qualitative studies 124. 5. Evidence from expert opinion, committee reports 125. quantitative hierarchy - Correct answer 1. Evidence from systematic reviews of descriptive and qualitative studies 126. 2. Evidence from a single descriptive or qualitative study 127. 3. Evidence from expert opinion/committee 128. 4. Evidence-based guideline based on systematic review of RCTs 129. 5. Evidence from well-designed controlled trials w/o randomization 130. 6. Systematic reviews or meta-analysis 131. 7. Evidence from at least one well-designed RCT [Date] 132. internal validity - Correct answer the independent variable (the treatment) caused a change in the dependent variable (outcome) 133. external validity - Correct answer the sample is representative of the population and the results can be generalized 134. descriptive statistics - Correct answer use to summarize the basic features of the data in the study; numerical values that summarize, organize, and describe observations 135. mean - Correct answer average of scores 136. standard deviation - Correct answer indication of the possible deviations from the mean 137. variance - Correct answer how the values are dispersed around the mean 138. inferential statistics - Correct answer numerical values that enable one to reach conclusions that extend beyond the immediate data alone; generated by quantitative research designs [Date] 139. t test - Correct answer assesses whether the means of two groups are statistically different from each other 140. analysis of variance - Correct answer tests the differences among three or more groups 141. pearson's r correlation - Correct answer tests the relationship between two variables 142. probability - Correct answer likelihood of an event occurring; lies between 0 and 1 143. p value - Correct answer also known as level of significance; describes the probability of a particular result occurring by chance alone (if it is .01 there is a 1% probability of obtaining a result by chance alone) 144. quality improvement - Correct answer agency-specific projects that aim to improve systems, decrease cost, and improve productivity; provides standardized method to identify gaps in practice and systems to evaluate ways to improve structure, function, and resources in care 145. PDSA cycle - Correct answer plan, do, study, act; process of quality improvement