Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

Angular Velocity - Vibrations and Waves - Solved Past Exam, Exams of Physics

This is the Solved Past Exam of Vibrations and Waves and its key important points are: Angular Velocity, Time Derivative, Angular Frequency, Speed of Sound, Boundary Conditions, Equations of Motion, Small Angle Approximation, Inserting Trial Solutions, Differential Equations

Typology: Exams

2012/2013

Uploaded on 02/26/2013

narang
narang 🇮🇳

4.5

(31)

71 documents

1 / 5

Toggle sidebar

Related documents


Partial preview of the text

Download Angular Velocity - Vibrations and Waves - Solved Past Exam and more Exams Physics in PDF only on Docsity! Massachusetts Institute of Technology Physics 8.03 Exam 1 Solutions Thursday, October 14, 2004 Problem 1 Without slipping: when the center of the wheel moves a distance x, the wheel has rotated an angle 0 = 52920 = @ radians. Angular velocity w = @ = 4, thus the velocity of the center of the wheel v=wR. gq A A mF qm | A (a) The total energy at x point is Evot(x) = ake + 5M + 5 = she + 5M? + iures = ake +Mé? (1) (b) Time derivative dE/dt = 0 gives IME + kx =0 (2) (c) The angular frequency is wa (3) Problem 2 (a) v & 340 m/sec is the speed of sound in air (measured during lecture on Oct. 5). (b) The sound wave in this pipe is shown in the following figure. Where € represents the position of the air molecules, and p « a is the pressure over and above 1 atm. At the closed end there is always a node in € and an anti-node in p. At the open end, there is always an anti-node in € and a node in p. Thus, in p space we only have the cos term because B=0. The boundary conditions are Pz =0,t=0)=po=A (4) and at any time f, pz = L,t) = 0 = po cos kink (5) Therefore (2n − 1)π kn = (6)2L NOTICE: at any time, p(z = L, t) = 0 thus 0 = p0 cos knL + B sin knL ⇒ B = −p0 tan(knL) tan(knL) = ±∞ for any n. This is consistent with B = 0. And (2n − 1)πv ω = vkn = (7)2L This can be found by substituting p(z, t) = p0 cos kz cos ωt into the wave equation. ∂p = −p0k sin kz cos ωt (8) ∂z ∂2p = −p0k2 cos kz cos ωt (9) ∂z2 ∂p = −p0ω cos kz sin ωt (10) ∂t ∂2p = −p0ω2 cos kz cos ωt (11) ∂t2 Thus 1 −p0k2 cos kz cos ωt = − 2 p0ω2 cos kz cos ωt (12) v which leads to ω2 k2 = ⇒ ω = vk (13) 2v 2π(c) L = 0.5 cm, k1 = π ⇒ λ1 = k1 = 2 m (λ1 = 4L). 340λ1 = f v 1 ⇒ f1 = 2π = = 170 Hz. ω1 2 2π 340 k2 = 3π ⇒ λ2 = k2 = 2 m ⇒ f2 = 2/3 = 510 Hz = 3f1.3 2
Docsity logo



Copyright © 2024 Ladybird Srl - Via Leonardo da Vinci 16, 10126, Torino, Italy - VAT 10816460017 - All rights reserved