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ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE, Exams of Nursing

ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS LATEST 2024 [NEWEST] ALREADY GRADED A+ ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS LATEST 2024 [NEWEST] ALREADY GRADED A+ ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS LATEST 2024 [NEWEST] ALREADY GRADED A+ ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS LATEST 2024 [NEWEST] ALREADY GRADED A+ ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS LATEST 2024 [NEWEST] ALREADY GRADED A+ ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS LATEST 2024 [NEWEST] ALREADY GRADED A+ ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETA

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Download ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! ARMY AEROMEDICAL EXAMS AND STUDY GUIDE WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS LATEST 2024 [NEWEST] ALREADY GRADED A+ Identify the safety features provided by the aircraft. Aircraft Structural Shell (fuselage)- Landing Gear and Crashworthy Seats- Personnel Restraint System- Post-crash Factors- Which one of the safety features are essential for survival? Structural shell - prevent intrusion of structure in the occupiable living space during a survivable crash. Army aircraft offer protection from thermal injuries in what ways Crashworthy fuel systems, self sealing fuel cells, break free self sealing fuel lines, and fire extinguishing systems How does the landing gear and crashworthy seats effect vertical impacts Newer Army rotary wing aircraft (UH-60/AH-64) rely heavily on fixed landing gear and seats to attenuate crash forces. Fatalities are rare for vertical impacts up to approximately 15.2 meters per second (50 ft/sec). Maximum landing loads for the UH-60 is 540 ft/min (11.25g) under normal conditions Hand held fire extinguishers in the cockpit are used when Only to extinguish personnel who are on fire Protection from drowning is primarily provided through Protection from drowning is primarily provided through training of the crewmember (water survival training) The two-piece flight suit Army Aircrew Combat Uniform (A2CU) provides what level of thermal protection Flash-fire protection designed to char at 700-800 degress F and enhances aircrew comfort during aviation operations, it can be worn with the micro climate cooling system. What does the Microclimate Cooling System (MCS) consists of Microclimate Cooling System (MCS) consists of a crewmember vest, cooling liquid, and a compressor unit (mounted on the aircraft). It has a quick disconnect umbilical that allows rapid egress in the event of an aircraft emergency What is the advantage of the nomex, kevlar composition of the Army Aircrew Combat Uniform (A2CU) -Superior flame resistance and durability -Does NOT support combustion -Does NOT melt or drip, designed to char at 700-800 degress F -Good chemical resistance -Low shrinkage -Comfortable to wear What is the proper way to launder the Army Aircrew Combat Uniform (A2CU)? According to the tag on the inside of the garment! How will the sleeves of the Army Aircrew Combat Uniform (A2CU) be worn at all times and Sleeves will be worn DOWN at all times and NOT be rolled or cuffed. The Velcro™ tabs will be secured during flight When performing crew duties Soldiers must wear what type of under-garments Wool, cotton, or Nomex, or any blend thereof How must the Identification tags be worn -- Required to be worn around the neck by aircrew members while flying -- ID tag chain should be worn around outside of the collar and tucked between blouse and T-shirt -- No covers or silencers which could cause burns if they melt (no plastic or 550 cord) What characteristics must your boots provide must provide stability to prevent ankle and/or foot injury which adequately protect the aviator Flight gloves are constructed of Nomex and leather How will the flight glove be worn? will be worn at all times during flight under the sleeves of the flight suit. If a watch is worn, it should be worn outside of glove Flight gloves can be washed with mild soap and water but the washing temperature should not exceed Washing temperature should not exceed 120 degrees F The HGU 56/P Flight helmet provides Provides both crash protection and noise attenuation who custom fits and services the HGU 56/P flight helmet Unit Aviation Life Support Equipment (ALSE) technician. The HGU 56/P Flight helmet and visor is cleaned using what solution Exhalation The passive phase of respiration. Movement of air out of the lungs when the chest wall collapses and the diaphragm relaxes. What happens to respiration during pressure breathing at altitude The active and passive phases of respiration are reversed. In some indivduals, this can lead to hyperventilation and unconsciousness Hypoxia Oxygen deficiency sufficent to impair performance What are the four types of Hypoxia Hypemic Stagnant Histotoxic Hypoxic Hypemic Hypoxia Reduction in O2 carrying capability of red blood cells; e.g. carbon monoxide Stagnant Hypoxia Reduction in blood flow; e.g. positive G maneuvers Histotoxic Hypoxia Interference with the use of O2 by the body tissues; e.g. cyanide poisoning Hypoxic Hypoxia Insufficient pressure of O2 in the air; e.g. flying at altitude Symptoms What you feel Signs What you see in others Stages of Hypoxia (ICDC) (ICDC) Indifferent stage Compensatory stage Disturbance stage Critical stage Indifferent stage sea level to 10,000 ft, usually no symptoms noted in a healthy individual. What is the only significant effect of mild hypoxia at the indifferent stage? Night vision deteriorates at about 4,000ft. Compensatory stage 10,000 to 15,000 ft; mild effects begin to appear, but the individual can usually overcome the effects or compensate for the deficits Disturbance stage 15,000 to 20,000 ft; most of the symptoms of hypoxia will appear, and will increase in severity with absolute altitude, time at altitude, and rate of ascent Critical stage 20,000 ft and above, severe effects, loss of consciousness, convulsions, and death What is hyperventilation abnormal loss of CO2 from the blood Causes of hyperventilation Causes are usually: - emotional; fear, apprehension, excitement - pressure breathing, - hypoxia Symptoms of Hypoxia Symptoms are observable by the individual aircrew member. They vary from one person to the next: Air hunger or breathlessness / Apprehension (anxiety) Fatigue / Nausea / Headache / Dizziness / Hot and cold flashes / Euphoria / Belligerence (anger) Blurred vision Tunnel vision / Numbness / Tingling / Denial Signs of Hypoxia Signs are observable by the other aircrew members Increased rate and depth of breathing /Cyanosis /Mental confusion / Poor judgment / Loss of muscle coordination Unconsciousness / Slouching Symptoms of Hyperventilation similar to those of hypoxia: Tingling sensations /Muscle spasms /Hot and cold sensations / Visual impairment / Dizziness / Unconsciousness Differentiate between hyperventilation and hypoxia Altitude: Above 10,000 ft, assume hypoxia: Below 10,000 ft, assume hyperventilation Symptoms: Cyanosis only seen with Hypoxia Muscle Spasms only seen with Hyperventilation What is the treatment of hyperventilation / hypoxia. Treatment Above 10,000 feet- assume hypoxia and treat accordingly. 100% O2 / Descend to a safe altitude. Below 10,000 feet- assume hyperventilation and treat accordingly. Voluntary reduction in rate and depth of respiration is necessary to accomplish this task./ Reading or repeating a checklist in most cases can treat hyperventilation. Your co-pilot has pain in one tooth, what is it and what do you do? Land and seek dental care. it is Barodontalgia (trapped gas disorders of the teeth). What is the treatment for sinus trapped gas dysbarism? Stop descent of aircraft and attempt to clear by valsalva Define sound mechanical radiant energy that is transmitted by pressure waves in an elastic material/medium (such as air) and is the objective cause of hearing Define noise sound that is loud, unpleasant or unwanted. However, sound does not have to be loud What are the three measurable characteristics of noise? F.I.D Frequency Intensity Duration Identify the effects of noise on the body annoyance, fatigue, speech interference, and hearing loss How does noise cause fatigue? Fatigue can be caused by a number of physiological responses that have been attributed to noise. Reported responses include effects on blood flow to the skin, respiration, skeletal muscle tension, and constipation How does an annoying noise affect crewmembers while they are performing their duties Raynaud's Disease (White finger) occurs to the hands after prolonged exposure to vibration from power tools, jackhammers, or other such equipment that vibrates at high frequencies. Trauma occurs in the arterioles and nerve endings in the extremities and limits the blood flow to that portion of the extremity Identify the effects of vibration on vision during flight Vision could be affected due to vibration in the aircraft; visual instruments may be difficult to read. Helmet mount or night vision devices may vibrate at 4-12 Hz At what level is speech distorted from the effects of vibration Speech can be distorted during oscillations of 4-12 Hz. Above 12 Hz, speech becomes increasingly difficult to interpret __________ is the mechanical radiant energy that is transmitted by __________ pressure waves. Sound, longitudinal Newton's First Law (Law of Inertia) an object in motion tends to stay in motion & an object at rest tends to stay at rest unless acted upon by an outside force. Newton's Second Law Force = Mass x Acceleration Newton's Third Law For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction what is 1G (Gravity) 32.2 Ft/sec2 What is Inertia the resistance to a change in the state of rest or motion Acceleration The (increased) rate of change of velocity with respect to time. Acceleration of gravity continues until terminal velocity is reached. Deceleration A reduction in the velocity of a moving body with respect to time (negative acceleration) What is the Tri-axial Reference System Identifies the direction in which the body receives accelerative forces. (X,Y, & Z axes) X-axis the axis through the chest to back Y-axis the axis across the shoulders Z-axis the long axis along the spine from head to foot What are the factors of acceleration that effect severity of impact on the body (BIRDI) Body Area and site Intensity Rate of onset Duration Impact direction How do changes in body surface area affect injury severity? increase body surface area = decreased severity How do changes in intensity of acceleration forces effect injury severity? increased intensity = increased severity How do changes in rate of onset of acceleration forces effect injury severity? increased rate of onset = increased severity How do changes in duration of acceleration forces effect injury severity? increased duration = increased severity How does impact direction effect injury severity? all other factor being equal, y-axis impacts will result in more severe injury than z- or x-axis impacts. +Gx impacts are the most survivable. What are the factors that reduce the overall efficiency of the body to withstand G's called? Decremental factors What are the factors that enhance the ability of the body to withstand G-forces called? Incremental factors Name some of the incremental and decremental factors with respect to +Gz Decremental Factors: Dehydration, Alcohol Use, Blood Loss, Illness, Varicose Veins, Low Blood Pressure and Incremental Factors: Fear, Excitement, Asymptomatic Hypertension, G-suit, anti-G straining Maneuver Aircraft design features that enhance crash survivability (CREEP) Container, Restraints, Environment, Energy absorption, and Post crash factors Occupant survivability during an accident sequence is contingent upon the what criteria? The amount of crash forces transmitted and occupiable living space (Two objects cannot occupy the same space). Sensory Illusion is A false perception of reality coming from one or more of the senses of orientation. Leads to spatial disorientation. What is spatial disorientation Inability to determine one's position, attitude, and motion relative to a point of reference, usually the surface of the Earth. What are the senses of orientation Visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive Which of the senses of orientation is most reliable Visual What percentage of orientation comes from vision? 80% When is spatial disorientation most likely to occur When the pilot has lost visual reference to the horizon Name the visual illusions Fire Fire Fire CRASH CARS Fascination/ Fixation in flying False Horizon illusion Flicker Vertigo Crater Illusion Relative motion illusion Altered Planes of reference Size-distance illusion Height-depth perception illusion Confusion of ground lights (celestial lights) Autokinesis Structural illusion Reversible perspective Fascination/ Fixation in flying Occurs when aircrew members ignore orientation cues and focus their attention on their object or goal Fixation:commonly referred to as target hypnosis, occurs when an aircrew member ignores orientation cues and focuses their attention outside the aircraft. Maintain good visual reference with the horizon; maintain instrument proficeincy; if you suspect SD or loose the horizon transition to instruments; trust your instruments; transfer the controls (two pilots rarely affected at the same time) How is proprioceptive system or "Seat of the pants flying" often inaccurate and misleading In the absence of visual cues, a pilot will be unable to maintain a level attitude because the proprioceptive system detects gravito-inertial forces that are often inaccurate. The information provided by the proprioceptive system might be misleading, which is why aviators should not rely solely upon seat of the pants flying Define Stress the nonspecific response of the body to any demand placed on it Is stress good or bad Stress is neither good nor bad. It is the individual who defines the stress as good or bad. The same events can have different meanings, and therefore create "different stress," for any 2 individuals Physiological stressors (DEATH) Drugs, Exhaustion, Alcohol, Tobacco, Hypoglycemia What is hypoglycemia and its effects? Low blood sugar and causes nervousness, shakiness, perspiration, dizziness, sleepiness, confusion, difficulty speaking, and feeling weak Necessary abilities for crewmember performance Psychomotor abilities Attention Memory Judgment and decision making and prioritization of tasks Crew communication Psychomotor abilities include hand-eye coordination, muscular coordination, and strength Self-imposed stress and aviation-specific stress have the what effects on Psychomotor abilities Psychomotor abilities decline. For example, tracking abilities decrease, with a tendency toward more time off-target, over-corrections, and less smooth movements Memory abilities decline during stress in which ways Oversimplification Speed/accuracy tradeoffs How does stress compromise the Judgment and Decision-making abilities Judgment and decision-making abilities may be compromised by stress, with inexperienced crew members tending to make a disorganized assessment of alternatives, to rush to a decision, and to seek premature closure Does stress cause greater or decreased tolerance for error? greater Self-imposed stress and aviation-specific stress have the what effects on attention abilities --Perceptual Tunneling - --Cognitive Tunneling - . --Task Shedding The narrowing of sensory information processed by the brain (i.e. visual field) that can result from both emotional stress and cognitive workload Perceptual Tunneling For example, a pilot may attend to the most significant stimuli (brightest light, loudest noise) at the expense of other perceptual cues The cognitive abilities affected by the narrowing of what is considered important in the attention field is... "Cognitive Tunneling" An example would be a pilot who does not appropriately monitor his airspeed because he is intently focusing on making the proper radio call at the proper time How is tunneling carried to the extreme of task shedding "Task Shedding" is tunneling carried to the extreme. This is when entire tasks are completely abandoned. For example, tunneling may be missing a radio call while on approach with a caution light illuminated, while task shedding is forgetting to do the pre-landing checks altogether What is the best way to deal with stress Minimize stressors Combat and Operational Stress include Combat and Operational Stress include "all the physiological and emotional stresses encountered as a direct result of the dangers and mission demands of combat" and other operational environments Adaptive Stress Reactions include --Strong personal trust, loyalty, cohesiveness among peers --Personal trust, loyalty, and cohesiveness between leaders and subordinates --Esprit de corps or identification with the larger unit --For aircrews, unit cohesion binds crews together to perform the mission in spite of danger. Crewmembers know and trust their peers and leaders and understand their dependence on each other --Strong sense of responsibility toward the unit and its members Maladaptive Stress Reactions include what two categories --Misconduct Stress Behaviors --Combat and Operational Stress Reaction The stress reaction that may look like symptoms of mental illness is Combat and Operational Stress Reactions. Although they may look like symptoms of mental illness, they are typically transient and resolve within hours or days. Factors that may decrease one's vulnerability to combat stress (4 C's) --Competence in your work --Confidence in your abilities --Cohesion (group) --Control or perceived control Define Fatigue State of feeling tired, weary, or sleepy 5 stages of sleep Stage 1: 5 - 10 minutes transition into sleep Stage 2: light sleep Stage 3/4: deep sleep "slow wave", cell rebuilding Stage 5: REM What is the Circadian cycle Internal clock which regulates biological functions, to include alertness According to the Circadian cycle, you are at your peak alertness between... 0800 and 1200 According to the Circadian cycle, you are at your lowest level of alertness between... 1300 and 1500 Mental fatigue is The feeling of weariness that results from repetitive performance of nonphysical tasks it can be caused or made worse by anxiety, apprehension, and stress The severity of fatigue can be modified by psychological factors such as the amount of time soldiers expect to be working, the expected difficulty of the work, and the expected reward P.M.S. Photopic Mesopic Scotopic Photopic Day vision Mesopic Dusk/dawn; twilight vision, full moon Scotopic Night vision; partial moon or starlight Which type of vision is considered the most dangerous for Aviation Mesopic Cues to distance estimation and depth perception (2 types) Binocular and Monocular Monocular Visual cues from one eye Binocular Visual cues from two eyes Which type of cue is more important in aviation (monocular or binocular) Monocular What is the acronym for the monocular cues for depth perception G.R.A.M. Expand the acronym G.R.A.M Geometric Perspective Retinal image size Aerial perspective Motion Parallax Types of Geometric Perspective L.A.V. Linear Perspective Apparent Foreshortening Vertical position in the field Types of Retinal image size K.I.T.O. Known size of objects Increasing or decreasing size of objects Terrestrial association Overlapping Contours Types of Aerial Perspective F.L.P. Fading of colors and shades Loss of textures and detail Position of light source What is the MOst important of the MOnocular cues MOtion parallax What vitamin is required for the production of rhodopsin? Vitamin A - 2 types of toxic exposure types Acute and Chronic Acute short term exposure (such as smoke in the cockpit) Chronic long-term exposure (such as smoking) Routes of Entry Principle for Toxins Inhalation Absorption Ingestion Inhalation toxins enter throgh the lungs Absorption toxins enter through the skin Ingestion toxins enter through the mouth In the aviation environment which route of entry is considerd the most improtant Inhalation Excretion How quickly the body gets rid of toxins Retention How long a toxin stays in body Which organs are responsible for filtering out and excreting toxins The liver and kidneys Physiological Principles regarding effects of toxins Determined by individual's: Metabolism, Body Composition, and Genetics What are some Aviation toxic substances Aviation Fuels, Aviation Fuel Combustion, Solvents/Degreasers, Lubricants, Hydraulic Fluids, Fire Extinguishers, Composites/Plastics. What is the most primary concern regarding toxins from JP fuels Inhalation of fumes/vapors What is the most common and toxic substance in the aviation environment Carbon Monoxide What are some of the effects of CO intoxication? Headache, weakness, dizziness, nausea, confusion, and loss of consciousness. What is the easiest way to remember the effects of carbon monoxide exposure early symptoms look like the flu What is the source of carbon monoxide byproduct of incomplete combustion -- e.g. exhaust What is a primary concern regarding hydraulic fluids Fluids are maintained under high pressures, inhalation of aerosolized particles What is the principle hazard of composites inhalation of microscopic fibers/particles that embed in the lungs and cause an asbestos like reaction What is the primary hazard of plastics Burning of plastics releases Cyanide, Phosgene, and Flourine Activity that conducts aviation accident investigations U.S. Army Safety Center (renamed Combat Readiness Center) Activity that conducts aeromedical training and ARMS inspections Aeromedical waiver Positive HIV test results What does AR40-8 cover? Exogenous Factors What are some exogenous factors alcohol - 12 hours and until no residual effects remain Anithistamines or Barbiturates - 24 hrs Immunization - 12 hrs Blood Donations - 72 hrs for donations 200cc + Diving - 24 hrs Smoking Cessation Aids What are the organizations maintaining aviation medical standards? AAMA (Army Aeromedical Activity), US Combat Readiness Center, USAARL (Army Aeromedical Research Laboratory), USASAM (Army School of Aviation Medicine). Who consists of the Aviation Medicine Health Care Team? Flight Surgeon, APA (Aeromedical Physicians Assistant), AMNP (Aviation Medicine Nurse Practitioner), and Aeromedical Psychologist. Brainpower Read More What is the primary goal of the Aviation Medicine Program? Preventative Medicine The Flight Surgeon is a _____ crewmember. rated What is the timeframe that an FDME or FDHS must be started and completed? Within a three-month period preceding the end of the birth month. Who has the final approval authority of a DD Form 2992? The Unit Commander Describe boxes 11 and 12 on a DD Form 2992. 11: Up, qualified for flying duty. Contains an effective date and expiration date. 12: Down, Disqualified for flight. Contains an effective date and estimated duration of grounding. Describe box 13 of the DD Form 2992. 13: Remarks / Limitations. Will include FFD (Full flying duty) or DNIF (Duties not to include flying duty). Will not contain patient privacy information. What is contained in boxes 14, 15, and 16 of the DD Form 2992? 14: FS's signature and/or APA's, or AMNP's signature 15: Aircrew member's signature 16: Commander's signature What is the difference of a temporary versus permanent medical disqualification? Temporary results in requalification within 365 days. Permanent is not likely to result in requalification within 365 days. What are the two types of FDME and how long are they valid for? Initial (18 months) and comprehensive (5 years between 20-49 Yrs, 1 year at 50 yrs and older). What are the classes of FDME and who are the performed for? Class 1 - Initial for those that want to be pilots. Class 2 - Aviators, FS, DAC Pilots, and APA/AMNP. Class 3 - Non-rated crewmembers and Aeromedical Psychologists. Class 4 - ATC and UAV operators. How frequently must an FDHS be completed? Annually between each comprehensive FDME. What is the first fuel used in aviation? Castor Oil Who was the first to describe the relationship between work and illness? Hippocrates Name the 3 general types of toxic hazards encountered in an aviation environment. Physical, Chemical, Biological Identify what toxic hazard: Water inhaled in large quantities and oxygen inhaled in a hyperbaric chamber? chemical What are two types of exposure? Acute and chronic What is the definition of an occupational hazard? Anything capable of producing an adverse health effect (injury or illness). What are the three routes a toxin can enter the body? Inhalation, Skin (absorption), and ingestion. What toxic substances could you be exposed to in an aviation environment? Aviation fuels Aviation combustion products Composites and plastics Solvents and degreasers Lubricants and hydraulic fluids Fire extinguishing materials List the signs and symptoms of toxic fuel exposure. Lightheadedness Fatigue Coma Slurred speech and impaired psychomotor skills Irregular heartbeat Coughing, choking, wheezing, nausea, and vomiting Chemical burns can also occur What are the immediate action steps for protective measures inside a cockpit if exposed to smoke or fumes? Recognize Ventilate Descend Land Evacuate Seek medical attention What are some preventative protective measures individual aircrew members can perform to eliminate or reduce contact with toxic substances? Wea AACU/NOMEX flight suits Smoke and eat in designated areas Hand washing Wear PPE What component of the eye contains photoreceptors known as rods and cones? Retina This condition is a result of the eye's actual focal point being behind the retinal plane or wall, causing blurred vision (e.g. nearby objects are not seen clearly). Hyperopia (farsightedness) The lens is fairly elastic and flexible in our twenties, however, as we age into our late forties, the lens begins to harden. This condition is known as: A "g." It is equal to 32.2 ft/s² or 9.81 m/s² What is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time? Acceleration What is the most common accelerative force? Gravity What is Inertial Force? The resistance to change in the state of rest or motion A body at rest tends to stay at rest, a body in motion tends to stay in motion, until acted upon by an outside force Newton's First Law of Motion For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction (inertial force) Newton's Third Law of Motion What are the factors affecting accelerative forces? Body area and site Intensity Rate of onset Duration Impact direction The greater the size of the body area affected, the less severe the effects Body Area and Site The greater the intensity, the more severe the effects of accelerative forces Closely related to duration Intensity What is Rate of Onset as it relates to vibration? The faster the rate of acceleration, the more severe the effects What is the effect of Duration as it relates to vibration? The longer the force is applied, the more severe the effects On which axis does Impact Direction have the most severe effects? Force in the Gy axis will not be tolerated as well as a force applied to another axis because of aircraft structural and human physiological limitations List the Factors Increasing G Tolerance. Asymptomatic hypertension Fear & excitement Tensing of muscles Short stocky build L-1 maneuver Anti-G suit Blood volume decrease / Blood pressure decrease Dehydration Fatigue/illness Hemorrhage Acute alcohol abuse Varicose veins Factors Decreasing G Tolerance Greater than +/-7 G's breathing may be difficult +/-20 G's for several seconds without severe effects Gx Tolerance What are G-forces exceeding 10 G's and lasting less than a second? High Magnitude Accelerations What are the effects of High Magnitude Accelerations Minor discomfort Minor injury Incapacitating Irreversible injury Lethal What is the Crash Survivability Criteria Amount of decelerative (crash) force transmitted to the crewmember Occupiable living space Aircraft design features (CREEP) Container Restraint System Environment Energy Absorption Post Crash Factors Aircraft Design Features (C.R.E.E.P.) Safety features provided by the Aircraft Structural shell (fuselage) Landing gear & crashworthy seats Personnel restraint system Post crash factors Describe Nomex Characteristics. Does NOT support combustion but chars at approximately 700°-800°F Does NOT melt or drip Good chemical resistance More durable than cotton Low thermal conduction Comfortable to wear What are the characteristics of Nomex Flight Gloves? Insulation -Reduces heat transfer Comfort Sensitivity -Improves tactile identification Wear issued type 100% cotton 100% wool Nomex Any combination of three blends Authorize Undergarments Describe Flight Boot Characteristics and wear. Retention Stability Protection for feet and ankles Fire retardant Leather boots must have upper construction of NOMEX, cotton All boots must have AWR Laced to top Avoid zippers, or straps How are ID tags worn? Worn around the neck while flying Tucked between blouse and t-shirt (outside of collar) NO silencers/covers (550 cord or plastic) How is the HGU-56/P Helmet worn, used, and stored? Custom fit by ALSE Dual visor / better retention system The pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each gas in the mixture Dalton's Law Functions of the Circulatory System Oxygen and nutrient transport to the cells Transport of metabolic waste products to organ removal sites Assists in temperature regulation Components of the circulatory system Arteries (Oxygenated) Veins (Deoxygenated) Capillaries Components of Blood Plasma White blood cells Platelets Red blood cells What are the Functions of the Respiratory System? Intake of Oxygen[O2] Removal of Carbon Dioxide [CO2] Maintenance of body heat balance Maintenance of body acid base balance [pH] What are the Phases of Respiration? Inhalation is active Exhalation is passive Where does the oxygen exchange occur in the lungs? Alveoli Law of Gaseous Diffusion Gas molecules of higher pressure move in the direction of gas molecules of a lower pressure Define Hypoxia. State of oxygen deficiency in the blood cells and tissues sufficient to cause impairment of function What are the four types of hypoxia? Hypoxic - reduced O2 in the lungs, occurs at high altitude. Hypemic - Blood cells cannot accept O2 (CO poisoning or blood loss). Stagnant - Inadequate circulation (pressure point of G forces). Histotoxic - inability of the tissue cell to accept or use oxygen (Cyanide, alcohol, or Narcotics) List the Symptoms of Hypoxia (what you might feel) Air hunger Apprehension Fatigue Nausea Headache Dizziness Blurred vision Hot & cold flashes Euphoria Belligerence Numbness Tingling Denial List the Signs of Hypoxia (what you might see) Hyperventilation Cyanosis Mental confusion Poor judgment Lack of muscle coordination Methods to prevent hypoxia? Limit time at altitude Pressurized cabin Minimize self imposed stressors 100% O2 How do you treat Hypoxia? Descend to a safe altitude 100%O2 What are the Stages of Hypoxia? (ICDC) Indifferent Stage Compensatory Stage Disturbance Stage Critical Stage What is the time of useful consciousness at 18,000 ft.? 20 - 30 minutes What are the symptoms of hyperventilation? Tingling sensations Muscle spasms Hot and cold sensations Visual impairment Dizziness Unconsciousness What is Hyperventilation? An excessive rate (>16 breaths/min) and depth of respiration leading to the abnormal loss of CO2 from the blood (Alkalosis) How is Hyperventilation treated/corrected? Don't panic Control your breathing Talk out loud, read a checklist Check your oxygen equipment - it may be hypoxia What is Gas Dysbarism? Syndrome resulting from the effects, excluding hypoxia, of a pressure differential between the ambient barometric pressure and the pressure of gases within the body Two Types: Trapped Gas and Evolved Gas What is Boyle's Law (Boyle's balloon)? The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure when the temperature of the gas is held constant. What is the difference between trapped gas and evolved gas? Trapped gas can be painful. Evolved gas can be fatal. What is the treatment for Ear/Sinus Blocks? On the ascent (rare) Land and refer individual to flight surgeon On the descent (most common) Stop the descent of the aircraft and attempt to clear by valsalva If unable to clear, climb back to altitude until clear by pressure or valsalva Descend slowly and clear ear frequently during descent Describe Barodontalgia. Tooth pain due togas expansion Usually isolated to one tooth and always on the ascent New decay under a filling Trapped air under crown Myth that you CAN'T have mental health treatment and still fly. Key is safety. Goal of treatment is to get you healthy and back to safely flying. What are the physiological stressors (DEATH)? Drugs Exhaustion Alcohol Tobacco Hypoglycemia Define Fatigue The state of feeling tired, weary, or sleepy that results from periods of anxiety, exposure to harsh environment, activity, or loss of sleep What are the signs and symptoms of fatigue? Attention / concentration difficult Feel or appear dull and sluggish Accuracy, timing, and ability to reason logically degrade General attempt to conserve energy Feel or appear careless, uncoordinated, confused, or irritable Social interactions decline Involuntary lapses into sleep begin to occur Cognitive deficits are seen before the physical effects are felt What are the effects of fatigue on performance Reaction time increases Attention is reduced Diminished memory Greater tolerance for error Impaired communication, cooperation, and crew coordination. What is Sleep? Biological process / drive that involves physical and mental changes and results in recuperation. Core temperature, digestion, heartrate Hormone / chemical levels Tissue repair What are the stages of sleep? N1 (drowsiness) = transition between awake and sleep. N2 = light sleep stage N3 = deep sleep, also called "slow wave" sleep because of slowing of brain waves /activity Rapid Eye Movement (REM) What 4 factors will decrease your vulnerability to combat stress? Confidence, competence, cohesion, control. Describe Sleep inertia. Short-term grogginess right after awaking. TC 3-04.93 says 5-20minutes Define the Circadian Cycle Internal pattern, or "clock", which regulates biological function on a cycle of approximately 24 hours Identify specific types of sleep disruptions Circadian disruptions - off-cycle schedule. Intentional sleep restriction - not sleeping enough. Personal habits (poor sleep habits) Identify specific countermeasures for general fatigue and sleep problems Best countermeasures are prevention (adequate sleep) and maintaining optimal circadian adaptation. -Stick to a consistent bedtime/wake-up schedule -Bedroom only for sleep and sex -Resolve daily stressors outside of bedroom Establish a bedtime routine (be consistent with it) -Create a quiet and comfortable sleep environment -Aerobic exercise routine (during daytime) -Don't consume caffeine within 4 hours of bedtime -Don't smoke cigarettes within 1 hour of bedtime -Don't use alcohol as a sleep aid -If you have problems with sleeping do not nap during the day. -Don't watch the clock! -If you aren't getting to sleep within 30 minutes get out of bed and go to another room! Identify countermeasures for Shift Lag and Jet Lag -Reduce mental demands on night flights -Be sure crew double-check everything -Try implementing shorter continuous periods at the controls -Minimize administrative duties when on ground -When shift is done, go home! Go to bed!! -Maximize every sleep opportunity -Determine if circadian readjustment is necessary Identify countermeasures for fatigue during periods of sleep restriction -Strategic napping -Rest breaks -Exercise -Postural Changes What are the monocular cues associated with Geometric perspective (LAV)? Linear Perspective Apparent foreshortening Vertical Position in the field What are the monocular cues associated with Retinal Image Size (KITO)? Known size of objects Increasing or decreasing size of objects Terrestrial association Overlapping contours What are the monocular cues associated with Aerial Perspective (FLP)? Fading of colors and shades Loss of detail or texture Position of Light Source and Direction of Shadow Define Low Magnitude Accelerations. G's that range from 1 -10 G's and lasting for several seconds Excessive G forces such as those experienced in prolonged acceleration can disrupt normal circulatory function, possibly resulting in a decreased level of consciousness. Identify the effects of low-magnitude acceleration. Describe the transaxial inertial directions X = Forward (-) and Backward (+) Y = Right (-) and Left (+) Z = Up (-) and Down (+) Hyperventilation ____ carbon dioxide levels in the blood, blood becomes more ____. Lowers Alkaline Identify aeromedical policy for use of medications for fatigue while on flight status All hypnotics and other sleep aids are Class 4 medications when in general use -Cannot be used without consent ofFS -Grounded while using. -Need a waiver for underlying condition Pre-deployment rest or sustained operations -FS may give medications for short-term use significantly in this stage due to dark conditions and the development of mild hypoxia. Self-imposed stressors will increase the effects of hypoxia at all altitudes Compensatory Stage 10,000 to 15,000 ft; mild effects begin to appear, but the individual can usually overcome the effects or compensate for the deficits. Pulse rate, systolic blood pressure, circulation rate, and cardiac output increase. Respiration increases in depth and sometimes in rate. Drowsiness; poor judgment; impaired coordination and efficiency Disturbance Stage 15,000 to 20,000 ft; most of the symptoms of hypoxia will appear, and will increase in severity with absolute altitude, time at altitude, and rate of ascent. physiological responses can no longer compensate for O2 deficiency. Occasionally, crewmembers can become unconscious from hypoxia without undergoing the subjective symptoms. Impaired flight control, handwriting, speech, vision, intellectual function, and judgment; decreased coordination, memory, and sensation to pain Critical Stage 20,000 ft and above, severe effects, loss of consciousness, convulsions, and death. Within 3 to 5 minutes without O2, judgment and coordination usually deteriorate. Mental confusion, dizziness, incapacitation, and unconsciousness subsequently occur. Circulatory and central nervous system failure; convulsions; cardiovascular collapse; death Supplemental Oxygen Rules During flights that exceed 10,000 feet for greater than one hour, crewmembers will use supplemental O2. Furthermore, during flights that exceed 12,000 feet for greater than 30 minutes and anytime a flight exceeds 14,000 feet, crewmembers will use supplemental O2 How to treat Hypoxia Treatment consists of giving the individual 100-percent O2. If O2 is not available, descent to an altitude below 10,000 feet is mandatory Hyperventilation Hyperventilation is an excessive rate and depth of respiration that leads to an abnormal loss of CO2 from blood that can lead to changes in the body's acid base balance resulting in negative side-effects. Causes of Hyperventilation The human body reacts automatically under conditions of stress and anxiety regardless of whether a problem is real or imaginary. Trapped-Gas Disorders During ascent, the free gas normally present in various body cavities expands. If escape of this expanded volume is impeded, pressure builds within the cavity and causes pain. The expansion of trapped gas accounts for abdominal pain, ear pain, sinus pain, and toothache. Preexisting conditions such as infections or Bone/jaw problems are main causes. Prevention and Treatment of Ear Disorders Crewmembers can equalize pressure during descent by swallowing, yawning, or tensing the throat muscles. If these methods do not work, personnel can perform the Valsalva maneuver Valsalva Manuever close the mouth, pinch the nose shut, tilt your head upwards, and blow firmly. This maneuver forces air through the previously closed Eustachian tube into the middle ear cavity and equalizes pressure. Important Note on the Valsalva Manuever To avoid over-pressurization of the middle ear, crewmembers should never attempt a Valsalva maneuver during ascent. It is possible to over-pressurize during the descent; crewmembers should only perform this maneuver as their bodies require. Stress Definition Stress can be defined as a nonspecific response of the body to any demand. It can also be thought of as the rate of wear and tear on the body Two basic points of Stress 1. Stress is a physiological phenomenon involving actual changes in the body's chemistry and function. 2. Stress involves some perceived or actual demand for action. Physical Signs and Symptoms of Stress Prolonged stress and its continuous effects on the body can produce longer-term physical symptoms such as muscle tension and pain, headaches, high blood pressure, gastrointestinal problems, and decreased immunity to infectious diseases Cognitive Signs and Symptoms of Stress Stress can significantly affect one's thought processes. It can decrease attention and concentration, interfere with judgment and problem solving, and impair memory. Emotional Signs and Symptoms of Stress Emotional responses to stress range from increased anxiety, irritability, or hostility to depressed mood, loss of self-esteem, hopelessness, and an inability to enjoy life Behavioral Sign and Symptoms of Stress High stress can adversely affect one's work performance, decrease motivation, and increase the likelihood of conflict, insubordination, and violence in the workplace Stressor Definition any stimulus or event that requires an individual to adjust or adapt in some way— emotionally, physiologically, or behaviorally Types of Stressors Physiological Psychosocial Environmental Cognitive Psychosocial Stressors factors in our daily routines and in our social and physical environments that cause us to experience stress Job Stress Illness Family (daddy) issues Environmental Stressors those stressors that originate from one's surroundings. Altitude Airspeed Extreme Temp, Aircraft Design/Characteristics Flight Conditions Physiological Stressors Self Imposed Drugs Exhaustion Alcohol Tobacco Hypoglycemia Cognitive Stressors the way you perceive a situation or how it affects you and the world around you Musts and Shoulds All or Nothing Failure to focus on here and now Stress effects on Performance Attention: Perceptual tunneling occurs when you focus in on one thing/aspect of a situation, like the altimeter or flashing warning signal, and ignore everything else. Cognitive tunneling, similar to perceptual tunneling, occurs when you mentally focus in on one aspect of a situation, ignoring other thoughts. Task shedding occurs under high stress. In these situations, people will sometimes abandon entire tasks Crash Forces: The intensity of the decelerative force to which the body is subjected is not a single decelerative G. Instead, crash forces produce a series of decelerations at various G loads until all motion is stopped. The human body is far more vulnerable to injury when exposed to a series of high-G shocks in all three axes and can withstand these forces for only an extremely short time (less than 0.1 second). If this time is exceeded, injury or death occurs. Occupiable Living Space: Occupiable living space influences survivability and must not be compromised by either airframe failure or possible penetration of the cabin area by outside objects Aircraft Design Features: - Container - Restraint Systems - Environment - Energy Absorption - Post-crash Protection Acute Toxicity The potentially most damaging toxicological exposure during flight is an acute, high-dose exposure to a toxic agent. Two types of acute inflight exposure are— Sudden, incapacitating exposure. Subtle, performance decrement exposure. Chronic Toxicity exposure to potentially toxic agents can occur during ground support and aviation operations. This type of exposure, which occurs over an extended period of time, does not necessarily cause immediate health effects. Chronic exposure can lead to adverse health outcomes many years later. Types of Heat present in Aviation Environment Radiant Heat: Solar heat, significant stress factor below 10,000 feet Kinetic Heat: Friction between aircraft surface and air causes structure to heat up. Cockpit insulation and cabin air ductwork can reduce effects of kinetic heating ELECTRICAL HEAT LOADS AND COOLING SYSTEMS: The electrical heat load in cockpits is increasing as new high-performance aircraft are developed and fitted with additional improved avionics equipment. The possibility of degraded human performance increases with escalations in cockpit temperature. How heat impacts performance Heat stress causes general physiological changes and can also impair performance. Even a slight increase in body temperature above normal baseline impairs an individual's ability to perform complex tasks such as those required to fly an aircraft safely. A body temperature of 101 degrees Fahrenheit roughly doubles an aviator's error rate. Increases in body temperature generally have the following effects on an aviator: Error rates increase. Short-term memory becomes less reliable. Perceptual and motor skills slow. The capacity to perform aviation tasks decreases. Reaction and decision times slow. The conduct of routine tasks slows. Errors of omission are more common. Vigilant task performance degrades slightly after 30 minutes and markedly after 2 to 3 hours. Prevent Heat Stress Replenish water and salt acclimate wear protective clothing increase ventilation Prevent Cold Stress Some general measures can be taken to prevent all types of cold injury. Individuals can— Keep their body dry. Limit exposure to the cold. Avoid wearing wet clothing. Monitor the wind chill factor. Keep activity below the perspiration level. Avoid direct contact of bare skin and cold metal. Use the buddy system to check for early signs of cold injury. Wear several layers of loose-fitting clothing to increase insulation and cold weather headgear to prevent loss of body heat. Avoid alcohol intake. Alcohol dilates surface blood vessels, a process that initially causes the body to feel warmer but actually chills it through heat loss. What do Rods do? The rods are used for night or low-intensity light vision (viewing periods or conditions). The periphery of the retina, where the rods are concentrated, is much more sensitive to light than the fovea. This concentration is responsible for night vision, which provides silhouette recognition of objects. It is also why crewmembers' eyes are highly sensitive to light during low ambient light or dark conditions. The center of the retina, the fovea, contains a very high concentration of cone cells but no rod cells. The concentration of rod cells begins to increase toward the retina's periphery What do Cones Do? Cone cells are used primarily for day or high intensity light vision (viewing periods or conditions). Cone cells provide sharp visual acuity and color perception. Under low light or dark conditions, cone function degrades; but crewmembers will perceive other colors if light intensity is heightened by artificial source. The center of the retina, the fovea, contains a very high concentration of cone cells but no rod cells. The concentration of rod cells begins to increase toward the retina's periphery. Night Vision Night vision requires a buildup of rhodopsin be present in the rods. The average time required to gain the greatest sensitivity or adaptation to a dark environment is 30 to 45 minutes. When fully adapted, the rod cells become up to 10,000 times more sensitive than at the start of the dark adaptation period. Total light sensitivity can increase 100,000 times through a dilated pupil. Day Blind Spot The day blind spot covers an area of 5.5 to 7.5 degrees and is located about 15 degrees from the fovea, originating where the optic nerve attaches to the retina. The size of the day blind spot is due to the optic nerve's oval shape combined with its offset position where it attaches to the retina. No cones or rods are present at the attachment point. Compensated for by binocular Vision Night Blind Spot The night blind spot occurs when the fovea becomes inactive in low light conditions and involves an area from 5 to 10 degrees wide in the center of the visual field. An object viewed directly at night might not be seen due to the night blind spot; if the object is detected, it will fade away when stared at longer than 2 seconds. The size of the night blind spot increases as the distance between the eyes and object increases. Types of Vision Photopic, Mesopic, Scotopic Photopic Vision Photopic vision is experienced during daylight or under high levels of artificial illumination. Cones concentrated in the fovea centralis are primarily responsible for vision in bright light. Due to the high- level light condition, rod cells are bleached out and become less effective. Sharp image interpretation and color vision are characteristics of photopic vision. The fovea centralis is automatically directed toward an object by a visual fixation reflex. Therefore, under photopic conditions, the eye uses central vision for interpretation, especially in determining details. Mesopic vision Mesopic vision (figure 8-5) is experienced at dawn, dusk, and under full moonlight. Vision is achieved by a combination of rods and cones. Visual acuity steadily decreases with declining light. Color vision is reduced or degraded as light levels decrease and the cones become less effective. Mesopic vision is the most dangerous vision type for crewmembers. How degraded the ambient light condition is determines what type of scanning or viewing technique crewmembers should use to detect objects and maintain safe and incident-free flight. Scotopic Vision Scotopic vision (figure 8-6) is experienced in low light environments such as partial moonlight and starlight conditions. Cones become ineffective in these conditions, causing poor resolution in detail. Visual acuity decreases to 20/200 or less, and color perception is lost. A central or night blind spot occurs when cone cell sensitivity is lost. Scotopic vision degrades primary color perception to shades of black, gray, and white unless the light source is of adequate intensity to stimulate the cones. Peripheral vision is used primarily while viewing with scotopic vision Types of Vision Deficiencies Visual Illusions Vection Height Depth Fascination/Fixation Cratering Autokinesis Structural Size Distance* False Horizon Confusion with Ground Lights *Size Constancy *Aerial Perspective *Shape Constancy Vection An illusory sense of self-motion caused by moving visual cues when one is not, in fact, actually moving. False Horizon Mistaking the actual horizon with: a sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, an aurora borealis, a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars, and certain geometric patterns of ground lights. Confusion with Ground Lights Pilot mistakes ground lights for stars. Pilot puts aircraft in an unusual attitude to keep the "stars," actually misperception ground lights, above the aircraft. Height-Depth Perception when there is a lack of sufficient visual cues causing a lost of depth perception. ( flight over desert, snow, fog and smoke) Crater Illusion When landing at night, the position of the landing light may be too far under the nose of the aircraft. This will cause the illusion of landing into a hole (crater) Structural Illusion Caused by rain, sleet, heat waves...straight lines appear curved viewed through heat waves. a light may appear as a double light or different location when viewed through rain. Size-distance illusion A false perception of distance from an object or the ground, created when a crew member misinterprets an unfamiliar object's size to be the same as an object he/she is normally accustomed to viewing Size Constancy Illusion sometimes we perceive objects as having a changing size because of the interplay between perceived size and distance. A common example of a size constancy illusion is that of landing at an unfamiliar runway A runway that is narrower than expected may cause the pilot to think he or she is higher and further away resulting in the flying of the approach too low and land short. Likewise a wider runway than expected may cause the pilot erroneously to think he or she is closer resulting in flying the approach too high and land long. Shape Constancy perceiving the same shape for objects, even if retinal image changes. A common example of a size constancy illusion is that of landing at an unfamiliar runway. A runway that is narrower than expected may cause the pilot to think he or she is higher and further away resulting in the flying of the approach too low and land short. Likewise a wider runway than expected may cause the pilot erroneously to think he or she is closer resulting in flying the approach too high and land long. Aerial Perspective Illusion Another size-distance illusion is that of aerial perspective. These illusions can occur if visual cues are of a different size or perspicuity (clarity and discrimination) than expected. A classic example would be for a pilot to mistake immature, short or stunted trees for large, tall ones causing him or her to misjudge altitude above the ground. A different but somewhat related phenomenon may occur in rain, smoke or haze, whereby a pilot may erroneously think that the lights of another aircraft or runway approach lighting to be much farther away than actual distance due to lack of brightness and clarity. Objects viewed within a hazy environment, for example, are often thought to be further away Fascination/Fixation Fascination-(Task Saturation) The Pilot becomes so engrossed with problem a problem or task they fail to properly scan outside the A/C. Fixation-(Target) The pilot becomes so intent on shooting the target forgetting to flying the A/C, causing the A/C to strike the ground, Target or Shrapnel. Autokinesis Results when a static light appears to move when it is stared at for several seconds. Uncontrolled eye movement may possibly cause the illusion of movement as the eye attempts to find some other visual reference points Vestibular System The sensory system that responds to gravity and keeps people informed of their body's location in space. Both the semicircular canals and otolith organs sense changes in motion and aircraft attitude. The semicircular canals sense angular acceleration while the otoliths sense linear acceleration. Orolith Organs . The otolith organs (figure 9-3) respond to gravitoinertial force (both gravity and linear acceleration/deceleration). For example, changes in head position relative to gravitational force cause the otolithic membrane to shift position on the macula due to inertia of the otolith crystals. The hairs then bend, signaling a change in head position. Linear acceleration and deceleration stimulate the otolith organs. Semicircular Canals The semicircular canals respond to angular acceleration (changes in angular velocity) and react to changes in roll, pitch, or yaw attitude. Vestibular Illusions Somatogyral (Leans, Graveyard Spin, Coriolis) Somatogravic (G-Excess, Elevator) Oculoargravic Somatogyral Illusions Somatogyral illusions give the false sensation (misperception of direction or magnitude) of rotation and occur due to the semicircular canal's inability to accurately register sustained angular velocity (prolonged rotation). The Leans When you think you're banking, but you're not If the pilot were to roll into a bank in a slow subthreshold roll, he or she may fail to perceive the aircraft is no longer flying straight and level (although the attitude indicator will show a bank). Once the pilot detects the banked attitude, he or she may make a quick recovery to resume straight-and-level flight. However, in this case, the pilot may perceive that that aircraft is actually now banking in the opposite direction even though the attitude indicator shows level. Instead, the pilot should maintain straight-and- level flight as shown by the attitude indicator. Graveyard Spiral The illusion of the cessation of a turn while still in a prolonged, coordinated, constant rate turn, which can lead a disoriented pilot to a loss of control of the aircraft. As an example, if a pilot enters a turn of moderate or steep bank angle and remains in it for several seconds, the semicircular canals (which respond only to changes in angular velocity, not constant angular velocity) will eventually reach equilibrium (no stimulus) and no motion will be perceived. Upon abruptly recovering from the bank, the pilot will undergo angular deceleration, which is sensed by the semicircular canals. He or she may have a strong sensation of initiating a bank in the opposite direction even if the flight instruments contradict that perception. If deprived of external visual references, the pilot might disregard the instruments and initiate control input against the falsely perceived turn, causing the aircraft to re-enter a spiral in the direction of the original turn. Coriolis Illusion The illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis, caused by an abrupt head movement, while in a prolonged constant-rate turn that has ceased to stimulate the brain's motion sensing system. Post-Roll Illusion When does an Army aviator no longer have take off minimums? 50 hours W-PC What are the take off minimums for a pilot with more than 50 hours W-PC? 0/0 What is the minimum WX required to initiate an approach? 0/0 When can an aircraft be flown below the published MDA or DH? The approach threshold of the runway, or the approach lights or other markings, identifiable with the approach end of the runway or landing area, must be clearly visible to the pilot. How much time can elapse before a pilot must be given a Proficiency Flight Evaluation for currency? 60 days in the aircraft mission, type, design, and series (or series, group, per the applicable ATM) to be flown. What clothing and equipment must be worn by crew members when performing crew duties? Leather Boots Flight: Helmet, Suit, Gloves Cotton/Wool/Nomex underwear ID tags How often must your flight helmet be inspected? 120 days (180 days at Ft Rucker) When is it not acceptable to file IFR? (a) Flight is primarily for VFR training. (b) Time will not permit mission completion under IFR. (c) Mission can only be accomplished under VFR. (d) Excessive ATC departure, en route, or terminal area delays are encountered. (e) Hazardous weather conditions must be avoided. If you are 60NM from a VOR, how wide is each radial? 1 mile What does the L stand for in the L class VOR? Low Altitude What does the H stand for in the H class VOR? High Altitude How many degrees off course are you when you have full scale deflection on a VOR approach? At least 10° How many degrees off course are you when you have a full scale deflection on an ILS approach? At least 2.5° What are the classes of NDB's and what distances are associated with them? L = 15 NM MH = 25 NM H = 50 NM HH = 75 NM What does Category A,B,C etc mean on an approach? Determined by the aircraft speed and usually changes the weather minimums What are the speeds associated with the Categories? A: 1-90 kts B: 91-120 kts C: 121-140 kts D: 141-165 kts E: 166+ Are category speeds determined by airspeed or ground speed? Airspeed If circling to land using Category A approach minimums, how large is the obstacle clearance area? 1.3 NM When do you start a turn on a departure procedure? 400 feet above the departure end of the runway What is EFAS? Enroute Flight Advisory Service Who - Flight Watch What - En route weather updates and collection of PIREPS When - 0600-2200 Where - 5000' How - 122.0 mhz What is PMSV? Pilot to Metro Service - a direct to pilot wx briefer service. Used to update wx or give PIREPS. What is a Precision Approach? A standard instrument approach procedure that has a glideslope/glidepath What is an example of a Precision Approach? ILS and PAR What is the difference between an ILS and a PAR? On a ILS the instruments provide the pilot with the elevation and azimuth information On a PAR the Final controller (ATC) provides the information What is a Non precision Approach? A standard instrument approach procedure in which no electronic glideslope is provided What are the Non precision approaches? VOR, NDB, LOC, ASR, LDA, and SDF (everything but a ILS and PAR) What is a Final Approach Fix? The fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an airport is executed What is the final approach fix for an ILS/PAR approach? Glide path/slope intercept How do you know when you are at the FAF on a PAR? Final Controller (ATC) will announce, (on glide path, begin descent) What is the FAF on a non precision approach? Maltese Cross What is a Final Approach Point? The point on a non precision approach, where the procedure turn is completed and the descent may start What is the missed approach point for an ILS/PAR approach? On glide path at design height How do you know that you are at the missed approach point on a PAR? Final Controller (ATC) will announce, "at decision height" What is the missed approach point for a non precision approach? As published on each IAP (usually navaid passage or an elapsed time) On a precision approach what is the lowest altitude allowed called? What is the line of sight range for VHF/UHF radio equipment at 1000ft AGL? 39.6 NM What is the normal range of L and H class VORs at 1000ft AGL? 40 NM from 1000ft AGL up to and including 18,000ft AGL MIA: Minimum IFR Altitude - Mountainous areas, 2000 ft above highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course to be flown - Non Mountainous areas, 1000 ft above highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course to be flown - Or as assigned by ATC MEA: Minium Enroute IFR Altitude - The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance MOCA: Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude - The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airways routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements of the entire route segment and which assures nag signal coverage within 25 SM (22NM) of the closest navaid that defines the route. MRA: Minimum Reception Altitude - Lowest Altitude at which an intersection can be determined MCA: Minium Crossing Altitude - Lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher minimum en route IFR altitude. MVA: Minimum Vectoring Altitude - Lowest MSA altitude at which and IFR aircraft will be vectored by a controller. MAA: Maximum Authorized Altitude - Highest usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment. Prevents receiving conflicting nag signals operating on same freq. OROCA: Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude - Provides 1000ft buffer in Non Mountainous terrain - Provides 2000ft buffer in Mountainous terrain - doesn't guarantee signal coverage for nav/comm/radar MSA: Minimum Safe Altitude - Used in emergencies to provide 1000 ft clearance - designated as an Minimum Sector Altitude or an ESA Minimum Sector Altitude - Altitude depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1000 ft of obstacle clearance within a 25 mile radius of the nav upon which the procedure is predicated. (emergency use only and do not guarantee reception) ESA Emergency Safe Altitude - Altitude depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1000 ft obstacle clearance in non mountainous terrain and 2000ft obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain within a 100 mile radius of the nav upon which the procedure is based. (normally only in military procedures) TAA: Terminal Arrival Area - MSA fro RNAV approached. NOT mando but expected. Radial a course emanating from a VOR/VORTAC/TACAN Bearing The horizontal direction to or from any point. Based on magnetic North. Course The intended direction of flight in the horizontal plane measured in degrees from North. Homing Just keeping the bearing pointer aligned with the index. You will fly a curved path if there is a crosswind. Tracking Using a wind drift correction to fly a direct course. ATC clearances that specify "direct" require tracking. What is the maximum distance you can file a direct route between two VORs below 14,500 AGL and be assured reception? 80 NM. When do you start the outbound timing of a VOR or ADF holding pattern? Abeam the station (TO/FROM indicator switches) When do you start the outbound timing of an Intersection holding pattern? Wings Level (or 90° from Inbound course) If you correct 5° left in the inbound leg of a holding pattern what should your outbound correction be? 15° right If your outbound time in a holding pattern of 60 seconds creates a 45 second inbound time, what will your next outbound time be? Using the E6b, line the inner 45 with the outer 60 and read the speed index at 80 seconds. Are holding entry procedures determined from ground track or aircraft heading? Aircraft heading (+ or - 5°) How do you execute a 45°/180° PT? 1. Fly outbound for 2 minutes 2. Turn 45° left and fly 1 minute after wings level 3. Turn 180° right and fly for 45 seconds 4. Turn right to reciprocal of outbound heading How do you execute a 80°/260° PT? 1. Fly outbound for 2 minutes 2. Turn left for a heading change of 80° 3. Turn right for a heading change of 260° (reciprocal of outbound heading) MSAW Minimum Safe Altitude Warning - function of the ARTSIII computer that aids the controller by alerting him or her when a tracked Mode C equipped aircraft is below or is predicted by the computer to go below a predetermined MSA. MDA Minimum Descent Altitude The lowest altitude, expressed in feet above mean sea level, to which a descent is authorized on final approach or during circle to land maneuvering in execution of a standard instrument approach procedure where no electronic glide slope is provided. DH
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