ARRT Magnetic Resonance Imaging Quizzes with Verified Solutions Latest 2023-2024, Exams of Nursing

Download ARRT Magnetic Resonance Imaging Quizzes with Verified Solutions Latest 2023-2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! ARRT MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING QUIZZES WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST 2023-2024 A patient arrives at the imaging facility with a crainal scar. The technologist should: A. wrap the head in a sterile dressing B. perform the MRI procedure immediately to document the patient's surgical history C. ignore the scar, it doesn't matter if the patient has had cranial surgery, as long as we are scanning another part of the patient's body D. screen the patient, their doctor, and/or family member to find out what type of surgery the patient underwent - D. screen the patient, their doctor, and/or family member to find out what type of surgery the patient underwent What drug will be administered by the nurse or radiologist to a patient who has had a severe reaction to a contrast agent and developed brochospasms? A. atropine B. epinephrine C. xanax D. valium - B. epinephrine In which stage of infection do the infective microbes begin to multiply? A. the incubation period B. the latent period C. the disease phase D. the convalescent phase - A. the incubation period In her studies on death and dying, Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross described the first stage of the grieving process as: A. denial B. anger C. bargaining D. depression - A. denial A screening questionnaire for patients about to undergo MRI should include information about: A. Prior injuries B. Prior surgery and implants C. Pregnancy D. All of the above - D. All of the above Facsimile transmission of health information is: 1. not permitted 2. permitted for urgently needed patient care 3. permitted for third-party payer hospital certification A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - C. 2 and 3 only Sanction / injunction by the ARRT can result from: 1. Conviction of a felony 2. Exposing a patient to ionizing radiation without a shield 3. Interpreting images and providing the patient with that information A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - D. 1, 2, and 3 The people who should be educated about the effects of the static magnetic field are: A. The nursing staff and the code team B. The housekeeping staff and members of the fire department C. The anesthesiologists and respiratory therapists D. all of the above - D. all of the above What is normal oxygen saturation level? A. 95-100% B. 70-80% For medicolegal reasons, images are required to include all the following information except: A. the date of the examination B. the patient's name and/or identification number C. directional or orientation markers D. the patient's date of birth - D. the patient's date of birth Each of the following is a fomite except: A. a fork B. a mosquito C. a doorknob D. the MR system couch - B. a mosquito The unit of measure of RF absorption is: A. Watts per kilogram B. Volts per pound C. Volts per kilogram D. Watts per pound - A. Watts per kilogram Mrs. Jones has just been sent to the MRI department from the emergency room, following a severe motor vehicle accident. She has suffered a fracture of C3 and her physicians are concerned about a cervical spinal cord compression at that level. Select the best method for proceeding with this case. A. On finding out that she has had a total hip replacement, cancel the exam B. Ask her and her family about the possibility of her having metal fragments in her body C. Allow her to wear her favorite gold necklace during the procedure D. Rush her quickly into the scanner on her own stretcher so as not to aggravate the fracture - B. Ask her and her family about the possibility of her having metal fragments in her body All patients must be provided with: A. an immediate reading of their examination B. eye goggles C. a movie to watch during the exam (scan and a show!) D. hearing protection - D. hearing protection You and a fellow technologist have received an unconscious patient from the emergency department. As you perform the examination it is important that you: An iatragenic infection is one caused by: A. physician intervention B. blood-borne pathogens C. chemotherapy D. infected droplets - A. physician intervention According to the Safety Committee of the Society for Magnetic Resonance Imaging, which of the following patients should be visually and verbally monitored? A. all patients B. elderly patients with difficulty hearing C. deaf and mute patients D. all of the above - D. all of the above What should be obtained to provide a normal control for comparison when performing pediatric MR examinations? A. imaging of the contra-lateral extremity B. imaging of a secondary joint C. imaging of the ipsilateral extremity D. none of the above - A. imaging of the contra-lateral extremity The legal doctrine respondeat superior means which of the following? A. let the master answer B. the thing speaks for itself C. a matter settled by precedent D. a thing or matter settled by justice - A. let the master answer In preparation for the MRI examination, patients should be encouraged to: A. Wear a wrist-watch so they are aware of the length of the exam B. Wear their own clothing so as to feel at home with the study C. Keep their hearing aids in so as to hear the commands and requests of the technologist D. Change into a patient gown or scrubs provided by the health care facility - D. Change into a patient gown or scrubs provided by the health care facility 1. refer to the patient by name 2. make only those statements that you would make with a conscious patient 3. reassure the patient about what you are doing A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 - D. 1, 2, and 3 Family members and ancillary personnel accompanying the patient into the scan room: A. Should be screened as if they are going through the procedure B. Need not be screened because they are not undergoing MRI C. Can enter the scan room to check on the patient but cannot stay during scanning D. Must wear a lead apron during the procedure - A. Should be screened as if they are going through the procedure Foreign objects can commonly become lodged in the: A. valleculae B. arytenoid cartilage C. thyroid cartilage D. piriform sinuses - A. valleculae What tendon is an extension of the gastrocnemius muscle? A. achilles B. plantaris C. peroneus longus D. tibialis anterior - A. achilles Branches of the middle cerebral artery feed this structure, making it the most common site for a stroke to occur. A. the pons B. the internal capsule C. the insula D. the midbrain - B. the internal capsule occurs when the blood supply to a bone is removed resulting the death of a portion of that bone. D. olecranon process - A. radial tuberosity The main bursa of the shoulder is the: A. bicipitoradial bursa B. subacromial-subdeltoid bursa C. olecranon bursa D. subscapular bursa - B. subacromial-subdeltoid bursa The dura mater extends to which vertebral level forming the thecal sac? A. S4 B. L4 C. L3 D. S2 - D. S2 At what threshold is the corpus luteum no longer considered a follicle but rather a cyst? A. 10 mm B. 20 mm C. 15 mm D. 5 mm - B. 20 mm What structure contains the artery which supplies the femoral head? A. greater trochanter B. transverse ligament C. acetabular labrum D. ligamentum teres - D. ligamentum teres When positioning a patient for an MRI examination of the knee, what helps to align the ACL for its best demonstration? A. 45o external rotation B. 15o external rotation C. 15o internal rotation D. 45o internal rotation - B. 15o external rotation The muscle which covers the most anterior surface of the neck is the _. A. scalene B. pterygoid C. platysma D. trapezius - C. platysma The cephalic vein opens into which vein? A. radial B. axillary C. basilic D. subclavian - B. axillary The menigeal layer that follows the periosteum of the cranium is: A. subarachnoid space B. dura mater C. arachnoid layer D. pia mater - B. dura mater In which imaging plane is the triangluar fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) best demonstrated? A. sagittal B. axial C. coronal D. oblique sagittal - C. coronal The ligament extends from C1 to the sacrum along the anterior surface of the vertebral bodies. A. anterior longitudinal B. apical C. alar D. posterior longitudinal - A. anterior longitudinal The aorta arises from the . A. left ventricle B. right ventricle C. right atrium D. left atrium - A. left ventricle Which pulse sequence will best demonstrate a bony contusion? A. T1 weighted spin echo B. inversion recovery C. gradient recalled echo D. T2 weighted fast spin echo - B. inversion recovery In order to determine the level of the vertebrae in the thoracic spine, a sagittal locator in thoracic spine exams should include the: A. lumbar vertebrae and sacrum B. lumbar and thoracic vertebrae C. cervical and thoracic vertebrae D. thoracic vertebrae and sacrum - C. cervical and thoracic vertebrae What is the major stabilizing mechanism for the distal radioulnar joint? A. triangular fibrocartilage complex B. carpal tunnel C. flexor retinaculum D. carpal bridge - A. triangular fibrocartilage complex What is the function of the hyoid bone? A. prevents food from entering the trachea B. protects the delicate vocal cords C. forms a base for the tongue D. acts as a base for the laryngeal cartilages - C. forms a base for the tongue When performing a study of the parotid glands, the horizontal alignment light should be centered to the: A. the hyoid bone B. angle of the mandible C. the chin D. external auditory meatus - D. external auditory meatus The most inferior portion of the spinal cord, located at approximately the level of the first or second lumbar vetebra, is called the: A. sacral plexus B. filum terminale C. cauda equina A. increased scan time B. increased SNR C. small FOVs D. decreased motion artifact - C. small FOVs The primary advantage of using a surface coil is: A. large FOVs B. decreased motion artifact C. increased SNR of tissues closest to the coil surface D. uniform signal within the coil's active volume - C. increased SNR of tissues closest to the coil surface An RF pulse applied at the precessional frequency will: A. make the protons stop spinning. B. bounce off the protons. C. make the patient glow in the dark. D. be absorbed by the protons. - D. be absorbed by the protons. The position of a picture element (pixel) in an image deals with its: A. brightness B. location C. size D. depth - B. location Faraday's Law of Induction involves which of the following properties of matter? A. electromagnetism B. strong force C. weak force D. gravity - A. electromagnetism Gradient coils are designed so that a current passing through the coils will alter B0 in a: A. circular fashion B. parabolic fashion C. linear fashion D. waveform - C. linear fashion In a superconducting magnet, the magnetic field strength is increased by increasing the: A. Amount of cryogens B. Temperature C. Internal pressure D. Turns of wire - D. Turns of wire Resistive electromagnet designs are not typically used to produce B0 fields in excess of 0.3T because of: A. difficulties cooling the primary windings B. high primary field homogeneity C. the extended amount of time they would take to ramp down D. extreme power consumption - D. extreme power consumption What is the gradient rise time? A. the time it takes to bring down the magnet's field strength. B. the time it takes for the gradient to ramp to full strength C. the time it takes for the RF probe to ramp to full strength D. the time it takes for the primary magnet to ramp to full strength - B. the time it takes for the gradient to ramp to full strength Nuclear spins are at equilibrium when: A. they are randomly positioned. B. more are aligned against B0. C. more are aligned with B0. D. they are perpendicularly aligned with B0. - C. more are aligned with B0. Which gradient(s) is(are) energized to select an axial slice? A. X, Y, Z B. X C. Z D. Y - C. Z T2* decay is a result of: A. spin-spin interactions. B. spin-lattice interactions. C. magnetic field inhomogeneities. D. both a and c. - D. both a and c. If an NSA of 3 is selected, each phase encoding slope will be performed times. A. 0 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1 - C. 3 Spatial localization of signals in an MR imager is accomplished by: A. image encoding B. filtration C. collimation D. signal enhancement - A. image encoding The fast Fourier transform (FFT) is performed to: A. place data into K space until acquisition is complete. B. transform data from K space for display as an image. C. FFT not used in MR, only used in photography D. A and B - D. A and B When the excitation pulse is turned on the: A. the spins precess at random. B. spins stop precessing. C. the excitation pulse has no effect on precession. D. spins precess in-phase - D. spins precess in-phase Radiofrequencies are produced by: A. a filament B. an antenna C. an oscillator D. a diode - C. an oscillator A magnetic field strength of 0.5 T is equivalent to: A. 15,000 G B. 1 G C. 5,000 G B. random thermal motion of molecules C. magnetic field inhomgeneities. D. spin-spin interactions - A. spin-lattice interactions. The main magnetic field is known as: A. B0 B. N C. the static, external, or primary magnetic field D. both a and c - D. both a and c As the strength of the external magnetic field increases: A. more spins will align themselves in a high energy state. B. more spins will align themselves in a low energy state. C. precessional frequency will increase. D. both b and c. - D. both b and c. The electromagnetic radiation utilized in magnetic resonance procedures is considered: A. ionizing B. supersonic C. ultrasonic D. non-ionizing - D. non-ionizing Which of these is the magnetic field strength proportional to? A. The amount of current passed through the loops of wire B. The number and size of the loops C. How closely the loops are spaced D. All of the above - D. All of the above Image weighting is influenced by: 1.) TR 2.) flip angle 3.) TE A. 1 and 4 4.) signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 - C. 1, 2, and 3 A gradient echo sequence uses: A. a 180o flip angle B. a 90o flip angle C. a variable flip angle D. gradient excitation - C. a variable flip angle Which of the following parameter ranges will result in achieving the steady state: A. 30-45o flip angle, 20-50 ms TR B. 30-45o flip angle, 2000-5000 ms TR C. 60-90o flip angle, 20-50 ms TR D. 30-45o flip angle, 200-500 ms TR - A. 30-45o flip angle, 20-50 ms TR The gradient is reversed to rewind the residual transverse magnetization in a coherent gradient echo sequence. A. slice select B. RF C. frequency D. phase - D. phase Which of the following adjustments will result in the greatest increase in SNR? A. doubling NSA B. doubling slice thickness C. changing the FOV from 10x10 to 20x20 D. changing the matrix from 128x128 to 256x256 - C. changing the FOV from 10x10 to 20x20 Which of the following will influence SNR? A. slice thickness B. matrix C. FOV D. all of the above - D. all of the above One axis of k-space represents phase, while the other represents: A. Intensity B. Frequency C. Contrast D. Position - B. Frequency Pre-saturation pulses can be used to diminish: A. entry-slice phenomenon B. TOF effects C. intra-voxel dephasing D. all of the above - D. all of the above The top portion of K space is a mirror image of the: A. Right B. Top C. Bottom D. Left - C. Bottom For a tissue to produce a useful signal, it must be: 1) excited 2) nulled 3) rephased 4) saturated A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 4D. 2 and 4 - B. 1 and 3 Flow is enhanced in GE sequences because: A. TR is very short B. the slices are excited and rephased simultaneously C. the rephasing gradient is applied across the entire scanner D. flip angle varies from 90o - C. the rephasing gradient is applied across the entire scanner D. all of the above. - D. all of the above. The additional RF needed to utilize saturation pulses will: A. increase the number of slices available per TR B. have no effect on the number of slices available per TR C. decrease the number of slices available per TR D. none of the above - C. decrease the number of slices available per TR A fast spin echo sequence uses the following series of RF pulses: A. 90 - 90 - 90 B. 90 - 180 - 90 C. 180 - 90 - 180 D. 90 - 180 - 180 - D. 90 - 180 - 180 Fluid appears on STIR images. A. nulled B. dark C. bright D. gray - C. bright Doubling the FOV in both phase and frequency directions will increase SNR by a factor of: A. 2 B. 4 C. 1 D. 1.4 - B. 4 Fat appears on FLAIR images. A. dark B. bright C. nulled D. gray - B. bright Acquiring half of the phase views of K space and then interpolating the data for the other half is a technique known as: A. Half fourier B. Power scanning C. Zero fill D. Fast spin echo - A. Half fourier To maximize image quality, receive coil used should include: A. careful placement. B. adjustment if region of interest (ROI) is not centered within the imaging volume. C. choosing the smallest coil possible or using an array of coils. D. all of the above. - D. all of the above. Fat is on STIR images. A. gray B. nulled C. bright D. dark gray - B. nulled can be applied to demonstrate the difference between pathology and bone marrow signal after administration of a gadolinium-based MR contrast agent. A. Fat saturation B. Pre saturation C. Silicone saturation D. Water saturation - A. Fat saturation Reducing the the receive bandwidth by half: A. increases SNR by a factor of 2. B. improves SNR 40%. C. reduces the range of noise that is sampled. D. both b and c - D. both b and c The effective TE of a FSE sequence is: A. the time when the center lines of k-space are filled B. the time of the last echo C. the time when the outer lines of k-space are filled D. the time of the first echo - A. the time when the center lines of k-space are filled A technologist selects the following parameters and imaging options: TR 650ms, TE 15ms, Echo Train Length 2, matrix of 256 x 256, fat saturation, FOV 16 cm, receive bandwidth +/- 16,000 kHz, NSA 2, slice thickness 3mm, and gap of 0.5mm. What will be the resulting image weighting? A. T2 B. T1 C. Proton Density D. Spin Density - B. T1 For a single slice, scan time is not affected by which of the following factors: A. TR. B. phase matrix selection. C. TE. D. NSA. - C. TE. Contrast agents increase the differentiation of pathology through: A. shortening PD B. shortening T1 or T2 times C. shortening TE D. shortening TR - B. shortening T1 or T2 times The scan time for a 3D acquisition is given by: A. TR x NSA x number of phase encodings x echo train length B. TR x NSA x number of phase encodings x number of slabs C. TR x NSA x bandwidth x slice thickness D. TR x NSA x number of phase encodings x number of slices - D. TR x NSA x number of phase encodings x number of slices The null point, or TI time, of fat ranges between: A. 300 - 400ms B. 100 - 175ms C. 1700 - 2200ms D. 500 - 1000ms - B. 100 - 175ms Contrast agents are useful in the diagnosis of: A. tumors B. patients with severe (on peritoneal or hemodialysis) renal insufficiency C. patients suffering with hepatorenal syndrome D. all of the above - D. all of the above Anything that influences SNR will influence CNR. A. true B. false - A. true Gradient moment nulling is effective in compensating for what type of flow? A. laminar B. stagnant C. turbulent D. vortex - A. laminar Doubling slice thickness will increase SNR by a factor of: A. 2 B. 1.4 C. 1 D. 4 - A. 2 With a fast spin echo sequence utilizing an eight echo train length (ETL), the number of lines of K space filled during each TR will be: A. 2 B. 8 C. 12 D. 4 - B. 8 The steady state results in the coexistence of and magnetizations. A. longitudinal B. transverse C. vertical D. both a and b - D. both a and b Image quality can be improved by: A. making no change to SNR. B. increasing SNR. C. equivalent SNR. D. decreasing SNR. - B. increasing SNR. Nuclei that have been "beaten down" or saturated will exhibit less: A. TOF effects B. extra-voxel dephasing C. entry slice phenomenon D. intra-voxel dephasing - C. entry slice phenomenon In a 3D acquisition, the slices are produced by: A. A phase encoding gradient applied in the slice selection direction B. Very accurate RF pulses C. Multiple 180o pulses along the slice selection direction D. Sampling multiple lines of K space per pulse - A. A phase encoding gradient applied in the slice selection direction With conventional spin echo each 'line' of K space is filled in each: A. TE period B. frequency encoding period C. TR period D. Excitation period - C. TR period Which screening test should be performed to assess if a patient is renally compromised? A. estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) B. blood urea nitrogen C. fluid input/output measurements D. creatinine clearance - A. estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) Pre-saturation pulses can be used to: A. reduce involuntary motion artifact B. reduce voluntary motion artifact C. prevent wraparound artifacts D. all of the above - D. all of the above Spoiling of the residual transverse magnetization in an incoherent steady state sequence can be performed by: A. the gradients B. digitally encoded RF C. a long TE D. both a and b - D. both a and b High spatial resolution requires: A. large voxels. B. small voxels. C. low SNR. D. high SNR. - B. small voxels. Flow that has passed through a stenosis is first , then flow. A. vortex, laminar B. laminar, turbulent C. turbulent, vortex D. vortex, turbulent - D. vortex, turbulent The most dominant factor affecting entry-slice phenomenon or in-flow effect is: A. TR B. flow direction C. flow velocity D. TE - B. flow direction Coherent gradient echo (GE) sequences: A. produce images with a T2* component B. use flip angles equal to 90o C. produce diffusion weighted images D. produce the highest quality anatomic images - A. produce images with a T2* component