Medical Terminology, Exams of Medicine

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Signs -         Measurable or objective manifestations of the disease process Symptoms -         Experience the patient feels and describes Iatrogenic -         Caused by physicians and their treatment Diagnosis -         The precise disease process affect the patient Etiology -         Underlying cause of disease Idiopathic -         Unknown cause of disease Prognosis -         Describes the expected patient outcome Syndrome -         Condition characterized by a group of sings, symptoms, and disease process Nosocomial -         Development of infections at the acute care facility Community acquired -         Infections that develop outside of a health care facility Inflammation -         Initial response of body tissues to local injury Granulation tissue -         Combination of young developing capillaries and proliferating fibroblasts Pyogenic -         Production of pus Bacteremia -         Potential involvement of other organs and tissues in the body by organisms invading blood vessels Permeable -         Allows fluid/cells to pass from one tissue to another tissue or location Edema -         Accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue spaces or body cavities Anasarca -         Generalized edema that occurs with pronounced swelling with subcutaneous tissues throughout the body Elephantiasis -         Localized lymphatic obstruction resulting in localized edema Ischemia -         Interference with blood supply to an organ or part of an organ Infarct -         Localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ Hemorrhage -         Implies rupture of blood vessel Hematoma -         Accumulation of blood trapped within body tissue Atrophy -         Reduction in number or size of cells in an organ or tissue with corresponding decrease in function Hypertrophy -         Increase in size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased function Hyperplasia -         Increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ Dysplasia -         Loss of uniformity of individual cells and their architectural orientation Neoplasia -         Ungovernable abnormal proliferation of cells Oncology -         Study of neoplasms (tumors) Benign -         Growth that closely resembles the cells of origin in structure and function Malignant - Nosocomial -         Development of infections at the acute care facility Community acquired -         Infections that develop outside of a health care facility Inflammation -         Initial response of body tissues to local injury Granulation tissue -         Combination of young developing capillaries and proliferating fibroblasts Pyogenic -         Production of pus Bacteremia -         Potential involvement of other organs and tissues in the body by organisms invading blood vessels Permeable -         Allows fluid/cells to pass from one tissue to another tissue or location Edema -         Accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue spaces or body cavities Anasarca -         Generalized edema that occurs with pronounced swelling with subcutaneous tissues throughout the body Elephantiasis -         Localized lymphatic obstruction resulting in localized edema Ischemia -         Interference with blood supply to an organ or part of an organ Infarct -         Localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ Hemorrhage -         Implies rupture of blood vessel Hematoma -         Accumulation of blood trapped within body tissue Atrophy -         Reduction in number or size of cells in an organ or tissue with corresponding decrease in function Hypertrophy -         Increase in size of the cells of a tissue or organ in response to a demand for increased function Hyperplasia -         Increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ Dysplasia -         Loss of uniformity of individual cells and their architectural orientation Neoplasia -         Ungovernable abnormal proliferation of cells Oncology -         Study of neoplasms (tumors) Benign -         Growth that closely resembles the cells of origin in structure and function Malignant -         Neoplastic growth that invades and destroys adjacent structures Metastasize -         Malignant neoplasms that travel to distant sites Carcinoma -         Malignant neoplasms of epithelial cells origin Anaplastic -         Undifferentiated cell growth without form Sarcoma -         Highly malignant tumor originating from connective tissue Lymphatic spread -         Major route by which carcinoma metastasizes Hematogenous spread -         Malignant tumors that have invaded the circulatory system and travel as neoplastic emboli Grading -         Assessment of aggressiveness or degree of malignancy Staging -         1. Extensive ness of tumor at the primary site 2. Presence or absence of metastases to lymph nodes and distant organs Epidemiology -         Study of determinate of disease events in given population Morbidity -         Rate that an illness or abnormality occurs Mortality -         Reflects the number of deaths by disease per population Hereditary process -         Genetic information contained in the nucleus of each cell passed to the next generation Autosomes -         44 chromosomes other than X and Y Dominant gene -         Always produces effect Recessive gene -         Manifests when a person is homozygous for the trait Mutation -         Alteration in the DNA structures that may become permanent hereditary change Toxoid -         Chemically altered toxins Antigens -         Foreign substance that evokes an immune response Antibodies -         Immunoglobulins responding to the antigens to make them harmless Immune -         Protected against antigens Active immunity -         Forming antibodies to counteract an antigen by way vaccine or toxoid Vaccine -         Contact with dead or deactivated microorganisms to form antibodies What does alveolar or pneumococcal pneumonia affect? -         The alveolar air spaces-replaces air with fluid How does interstitial pneumonia appear radiographically? -         produces a linear or reticular pattern (ground glass); appearing withmultiple small nodules of densities; Honeycomb lung in CT What is aspiration pneumonia? -         Aspiration of esophageal or gastric contents into the lung What is a lung abscess? -         necrotic area of pulmonary parenchyma containing purulent material What is the radiographic appearance of a lung abcess? -         encapsulated opaque mass with a hazy, poorly defined periphery; fluid replaces air What is the most common way that TB is spread to other individuals? -         droplets in the air from an infected person What is TB? -         a disease causing diffuse destruction throughout the lung and its' often fatal What are the four radiographic patterns of primary TB? -         1. Well defined consolidation 2. Hilar enlargement 3. Ghon lesion 4. Pleural effusion What is a ghon lesion -         a calcification (granuloma) from healing disease process What is RSV? -         lower respiratory tract infection What is the radiographic appearance of RSV? -         hyperinflation; increased consolidation What does COPD stand for? -         Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease What are some of the common conditions within COPD? -         1. Chronic bronchitis 2. Emphysema 3. Asthma 4. Bronchiectasis What is chronic bronchitis? -         excessive tracheobronchial mucus production, leading to obstruction of small airways; severe coughing What is the most common radiographic appearance with chronic bronchitis? -         Increase in bronchovacular markings ("dirty chest"); thickening of bronchial walls and peribronchial inflammation ("tram lines") What is emphysema? -         irreversible condition where obstructive and destructive changes in small airways lead to an increase in the volume of air in the lungs What are some possible radiographic appearances of emphysema? -         1. Pulmonary overinflatioin 2. increase in size and lucency of retrosternal air space 3. Barrel shaped appearance of the chest Other than chronic bronchitis what can also give the "dirty chest" appearance? -         Asthma What is asthma? -         Widespread narrowing of airways due to increased responsiveness of tracheobronchial tree to allergens What is bronchiectasis? -         permanent abnormal dilation of one or more large bronchi What is a common complication of bronchiectasis? -         Bronchitis What is pneumoconiosis? -         severe pulmonary disease caused by inhalation of irritating particles What are the most common types of pneumoconiosis? -         Asbestosis, Silicosis, Anthracosis What is the most common work-related lung disease? -         Silicosis What is the cause of silicosis? -         inhalation of high concentrations of silicon dioxide; mining, foundation workers and sandblasting What is the most frequent cause of inhalation silicosis? -         Quartz dust What is the radiographic appearance of silicosis? -         Multiple, well-defined, scattered nodules of uniformdensity What type of workers may develop asbestosis? -         improperly protected workers in manufacturing asbestos products, handling building materials, or working with insulation composed of asbestos What is the radiographic appearance of asbestosis? -         pleural thickening with calcified plaques; shaggy heart What is anthracosis? -         coal worker's pneumonocoiosis; hard coal particles collect in the walls of the respiratory bronchioles What is another name for anthracosis? -         black lung What is the radiographic appearance of anthracosis? -         multiple less well-defined nodules of granular density What is the radiographic appearance to a solitary pulmonary nodule? -         discrete, well-marginated, rounded opacity less than or equal to 3 cm What is the most common primary malignant lung neoplasm? -         Bronchogenic carcinoma What are the four types of bronchogenic carcinoma? -         1. Adenocarcinoma 2. Squamous cell carcinoma 3. Large cell carcinoma 4. Small cell carcinoma Of the 4 types of bronchogenic carcinoma, which is considered to have the worst prognosis? -         Small cell carcinoma What is the radiographic appearance of pulmonary metastases? -         multiple, well-circumscribed, round or oval nodules throughout the lungs What is a pulmonary embolism? -         embolic occlusion in the lungs Where does a large percentage of the pulmonary emboli come from? -         95% of ebolisms arise from DVT of lower extremities What are some possible radiographic appearances? -         piece of shaft is separated by proximal and distal fx lines Compression fx -         compacts the trabeculae Depressed fx -         fragment driven inward Greenstick fx -         occurs in immature bone; one side of cortex remains intact Torus (buckle) fx -         compaction of one side of the cortex Bowing fx -         plastic deformity of bone Undisplaced fx -         fragments not angled or separated Displacement fx -         described by direction of distal fragment in relation to proximal fragment Angulation fx -         angular deformity of the axes of the major fracture fragments Dislocation -         displacement of a bone that is no longer in contact with the normal articulation Subluxation -         displacement of a bone with only partial loss of continuity of joint surface Pathologic fx -         occur in diseased bone Stress fx -         response of bone to repeated stressors, none of which alone would cause a fracture What is battered-child syndrome? -         multiple, repeated, physically induced injuries in young children caused by parents or guardians. What is another name for battered-child syndrome? -         suspected nonaccidental trauma (SNAT) Colle's fx -         transverse fx of distal radial with posterior (distal) angulation Navicular (scaphoid) fx -         fx involving the carpal bones Boxer's fx -         tranverse fx of the neck of the fifth metacarpal w/ palmar angulation of the distal fragment Monteggia fx -         fx of the ulnar shaft associated with anterior dislocation of radius at the elbow Galeazzi fx -         combination of fx of the radial shaft and dorsal (posterior) dislocation of the ulna at the wrist Potts fx -         fx of both malleoli w/ dislocation of ankle joint Jones fx -         transverse fx at base of fifth metatarsal Jefferson fx -         comminuted fx of C1 Odontoid fx -         most occur at base of dens Hangman's fx -         fx of C2 arch with subluxation of C2-C3 Clay shoveler's fx -         avulsion fx of spinous process in lower C-spine and upper T-spine Seat belt fx -         transverse fx of lumbar vertebral body Congenital -         disease present at birth What is the radiographic appearance of transitional vertebra? -         incompletely developed ribs; contain expanded transverse processes Where in the spine do transitional vertebra usually occur? -         Thoracolumbar junction; lumbosacral junction; C7 Spina bifida? -         a posterior defect in the spinal canal, resulting from failure of the posterior elements to fuse properly. Large defect may include a meningocele or myelomeningocele Meningocele -         herniation of the meninges Myelomeningocele -         Herniation of the meninges and portion of spinal cord or nerve roots What is the radiographic appearance of spina bifida? -         large body defects; absence of lamina; increased interpedicular distance; soft tissue mass posterior to the spine What modality best demonstrates spina bifida? -         MRI Osteopetrosis -         a rare hereditary dysplasia in which excessive bone formation occurs without proportional resorption; brittle bones; marble bones; prevents bone marrow from growing What is the radiographic appearance of osteopetrosis? -         increase in bone density Osteogenesis Imperfecta -         brittle bone disease; genetic mutation in which there is too little collagen in connective tissue of bones Achondroplasia -         diminished development of cartilage in the growth plate What is the most common form of dwarfism? -         Achondroplasia Congenital Hip Dysplasia (developmental hip dysplasia) -         incomplete acetabulum formation What causes congenital hip dysplasia? -         increased hormone levels during delivery; as the fetus grows and occupies more space, amount of amniotic fluid decreases, placing pressure on the infant What is the radiographic appearance of congenital hip dysplasia? -         AP and frog-leg projections of pelvis to demonstrate superior and posterior dislocation What does DDH stand for? -         Developmental dysplasia of the hip         cotton-wool appearance Osteochondroma -         benign projection of bone with a cartilaginous cap; occurs in the epiphyseal plate and grows laterally from the epiphysis What is the modality of choice for osteochondroma? -         Ultrasound Enchondroma -         begin as slow-growing benign cartilaginous tumors arising in the medullary canal What bones do enchondromas usually affect? -         small bones of hands and feet What is the radiographic appearance of enchondroma? -         cortical thinning and endosteal scalloping; calcifications within lesion appear stippled, speckled, ringlike or arclike Giant Cell Tumor -         bone-destroying, aggressive, benign tumors typically arise at the end of the distal femur of a young adult What is the radiographic appearance of a giant cell tumor? -         multiple large bubbles separated by strips of bone; soap bubble What is the radiographic appearance of osteoma? -         well-circumscribed, extremely dense, round lesions What is the radiographic appearance of osteoid osteoma? -         round or oval lesion with lucent center; less than 1.5 cm diameter Where do most osteoid osteomas appear? -         femur and tibia Simple Bone Cyst -         true fluid-filled cyst with a wall of fibrous tissue What is the radiographic appearance of a simple bone cyst? -         expansible lucent lesion with a thin rim of sclerosis oval configuration with the long axis running parallel to the bone Bone Island -         Solitary, sharply defined areas of dense compact bone; asymptomatic Osteogenic sarcoma -         malignant tumor typically occurs at the end of long bones and consists of osteoid and spicules of calcified bone What age range is osteosarcoma most common? -         10-25 year olds What is the radiographic appearance of osteosarcoma? -         sunburst pattern, with irregular, ill-defined borders What is the radiographic appearance of chondrosacroma? -         bone destruction along with dots/hole appearance or ill-defined calcification with its cartilaginous matrix Ewing's Sarcoma -         malignant tumor arising in bone marrow of long bones What is the radiographic appearance of ewings sarcoma? -         small holes or moth eaten (mottled) appearance At what age does Ewing's sarcoma peak? -         20s Multiple Myeloma -         widespread malignancy of plasma cells; affects flat bones; associated with bone marrow failure, hypercalcemia, renal failure and recurrent infections What is the radiographic appearance of multiple myeloma? -         multiple punched-out lesions What projection best demonstrates multiple myeloma? -         lateral skull What is the best screening examination for detecting asymptomatic skeletal metastases? -         radionuclide bone scan or PET scan Scoliosis -         twisting and curvature of vertebral column in the lateral perspecitve What are two other modalitis that may be used to obtain more information about scoliosis? -         CT-bony development MRI- spinal cord and spinal canal Spondyloysis -         cleft in the pars interarticularis without displacement What is the radiographic appearance of spondyloysis? -         linear lucency in the pars interarticularis Spondylolisthesis -         cleft in pars interarticularis with forward displacement of one vertebra on another What is the blood flow through the heart? -         1. SVC and IVC 2. Right atrium 3. Tricuspid valve 4. Right ventricle 5. Pulmonary valve 6. Pulmonary artery 7. Lungs 8. Pulmonary vein 9. Left atrium 10. Mitral valve 11. Left ventricle 12. Aortic valve 13. Aorta to rest of body Left-to-right shunts permit mixing of blood in the __________ and __________ circulations. -         Systemic; pulmonary Atrial Septal Defect -         Open communication between to atria; higher left atrial pressure overloads right atrium Ventricular Septal Defect -         Communication between ventricles What is the most common congenital heart defect? -         Ventricular septal defect Patent Ductus Arteriosus -         Vascular connection between pulmonary artery and aorta What is a classic sign of coarcation of aorta? -         Normal to increased BP in arms, but very low BP in legs What is the most frequent cause of hypertension in children? -         Coarctation of Aorta Rib notching indicates what? -         Coarctation of Aorta Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) -         Narrowing of the lumen of one or more of the coronary arteries Aortic Insufficiency -         Reflux of blood from the aorta during diastole causes volume overloading of the left ventricle and dilation of this chamber Pericardial Effusion -         accumulation of fluid within the pericardial space surrounding the heart What is the radiographic appearance of a pericardial effusion? -         Enlargement of cardiac silhouette What is the modality of choice for pericardial effusion? -         Echocardiography Deep vein thrombosis -         Primarily involves the lower extremity; major source of PE What is the preferred modality used to diagnose a DVT? -         Duplex color Doppler ultrasound Supernumerary Kidney -         A small, incompletely developed third kidney; functions normally, prone to infection Hypoplastic Kidney -         Miniature replica of a normal kidney and has good function Malrotation -         Rotation on longitudinal or horizontal axis; asymptomatic Ectopic Kidney -         Abnormal position of kidney Crossed ectopia -         An ectopic kidney lies on the same side as the normal kidney and commonly fused Complete fusion -         Rare anomaly that produces a single irregular mass What is the radiographic appearance of a completely fused kidney? -         Disk, cake, lump, or doughnut kidney Horseshoe Fuison -         Kidneys fused at lower poles What is the most common fusion anomaly with kidneys? -         Horseshoe fusion Duplex Kidney -         Common anomaly that varies from a simple birdie pelvis to a completely double pelvis, ureter and ureterovesical orfice What are the modalities of choice to assess renal and congenital anomalies? -         US and plain x-rays Ureterocele -         Cystic dilation of the distal ureter near its insertion into the bladder Glomerulonephritis -         Nonsuppurative inflammatory process involving the tufts of capillaries that filter the blood within the kidney Pyelonephritis -         Inflammation of kidney and renal pelvis What causes pyelonephritis? -         Pus forming bacteria What is the modality of choice for Pyelonephritis? -         CT Cystitis -         Inflammation of the urinary bladder What is the radiographic appearance of cystitis? -         Decrease in bladder size; irregularity of bladder wall Where do urinary calculus most commonly from? -         In the kidney What imaging modality best demonstrates a kidney stone without anatomically obscuring the area? -         CT Hydroureter -         Unilateral dilatation of the ureter from a blockage above the level of the bladder Hydronephrosis -         Dilation of the renal pelvicallyceal system What is the most common univocal mass of the kidney? -         Renal cyst What is the modality of choice for a renal cyst? -         US Polycystic Kidney Disease -         Inherited disorder in which multiple cysts of varying size cause lobulated enlargement of the kidneys and progressive renal imparment What is the most common renal neoplasm? -         Renal carcinoma (hypernephroma) Wilms' Tumor is also referred to as -         Nephroblastoma What is the most common abdominal neoplasm of infancy and childhood? -         Wilms' tuor How does Wilm's tumor appear clinically? -         Arises form embryonic renal tissue; may be bilateral; tends to become very large and appear as a palpable mass Where does bladder cancer most commonly originate from? -         Epithelium Acute renal failure -         Rapid deterioration in kidney function What results in the accumulation of nitrogen-containing wastes in the blood? -         Acute renal failure Chronic Renal Failure leads to uremia which leads to what? -         Excessive waste in the blood Erythrocytes -         Red blood cells Where are erythrocytes and thrombocytes made? -         In the red bone marrow Thrombocytes -         Platelets What are the types of leukocytes? -         Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, monocytes Can the hematopoietic system be directly imaged? -         No What does melanoma develop from? -         Benign mole which changes size and color and becomes itchy and sore Metastatic Melanoma -         Well-circumscribed, round, or oval nodules that may develop central necrosis and ulveration How does metastatic melanoma appear in a barium study? -         Nodules appear as dense, barium-filled central crater surrounded by sharply marginal Ed modular mass Muscular Dystrophy -         Fat replaces muscle; leads to generalized weakness; decreased muscle tone leading to osteoporosis, bone atrophy with cortical thinning, scoliosis, joint contractures How does muscular dystrophy appear radiographically? -         Extensive accumulation of fat within muscle bundles as a fine striated, or striped appearance What is the most common trisomy disorder? -         Down syndrome What are some radiographic appearances of Down syndrome? -         Pelvis-decreased acetabular and iliac angles with hypoplasia and lateral flaring of iliac wings; shortening of middle phalanx of 5th finger; squaring of vertebral bodies, hypoplasia of nasal sinuses; delayed closure of racial sutures Marfan's Syndrome -         Autosomal dominant disorder; generalized disorder of connective tissue with ocular, skeletal, and cardiovascular manifestations How does Marfan's syndrome show radiographically? -         Elongation and thinning of tubular bones, arachnodactyly (spider-like digits), precuts excavatum (concave sternum) Syphilis -         Chronic, sexually transmitted systemic infection What is the radiographic appearance of syphilis in the tertiary stage? -         Chronic osteomyelitis (usually long bones and skull), periosteal reaction with dense sclerosis Gonorrhea -         Bacterial infection that is one of the most common and widespread of venereal diseases What is the radiographic appearance of gonorrhea? -         Septic arthritis with articulate erosion and joint space narrowing What is the modality of choice for patient's with PID? -         CT or US What does PID stand for? -         Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) -         Enlargement of prostate gland How does benign prostatic hyperplasia appear on an IVU? -         Elevation and smooth impression of floor in a contrast-filled bladder; distal ureters have a J- Shape Prostate Carcinoma -         Tumor may be slow growing and symptomatic for long periods or behave aggressively with extensive metastases What is the second most common malignancy in men? -         Prostate carcinoma What type of imaging is preferred for diagnosis of prostate carcinoma? -         Transrectal US What is the modality of choice for staging of prostate carcinoma? -         MRI Testicular Torsion -         Twisting of the gonad on its pedicle, leads to compromise of circulation and sudden onset of severe scrotal pain What are the modalities of choice for testicular torsion? -         Doppler US and NM Epididymitis -         Inflammation of epididymis What is the modality of choice for epididymitis? -         Doppler US and NM What is the most common neoplasm in men between 20 and 35 years old? -         Testicular tumors Where do testicular tumors tend to metatstasize to? -         Lymphatics What modality is used to diagnose testicular tumors? What is the accuracy rate? -         US 98-100% Pelvic Inflammatory Disease -         Inflammation of the pelvis reproductive organs What is usually the cause of PID in women of childbearing age? -         venereal disease especially gonorrhea What imaging exam best demonstrates the extent of PID? -         Trans abdominal US What approach is most sensitive for dialated tubes, inflammatory changes, and abscesses? -         Endovaginal PCOS -         Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome What are some characteristics of PCOS? -         Multiple ovarian cysts, which may interfere with the physiology of the ovary How should ovarian cysts appear on US? -         Rounded, anechoic adnexal masses What is the most common malignancy of the ovaries? -         Metastatic lesions (ovarian tumors) Cystadenocarcinoma -         Malignant tumor Cystadenoma -         Benign tumor What are the modalities of choice for ovarian tumors? -         US, MRI, CT What is the most common type of germ cell tumor? -         Dermoid Cyst (Teratoma) Dermoid Cyst (Teratoma) -         Contains skin, hair, teeth, and fatty elements Leiomyomas -         Uterine fibroid Uterine Fibroid -         Common benign, smooth-muscle tumors, stimulated by estrogen Esophageal Diverticula -         outpouchings of the esophageal wall Zenker's Diverticula -         posterior wall of the upper (cervical) esophagus; large outpouching What type of study should be done to diagnosis Zenker's diverticula? -         barium swallow study; best demonstrated on a lateral view Esophageal Varices -         dilate veins in the wall of the esophagus What is most commonly the result of portal hypertension (from cirrhosis)? -         Esophageal Varices What is the radiographic appearance of esophageal varices? -         wavy border thickening of folds; round or oval filling defects resembling rosary beads Hiatal Hernia -         part of the stomach protrudes into the thoracic cavity through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm What is the most common abnormality found on an upper GI exam? -         Hiatal Hernia What is the radiographic appearance of a hiatal hernia -         much of the stomach lies within the thoracic cavity What is the preferred modality for a perforation of the esophagus? -         CT What is the radiographic appearance of a perforation of the esophagus? -         free air in the mediastinum or esophageal soft tissues; extravasation of contrast material through perforation Gastritis -         inflammation of the stomach mucosa What is the radiographic appearance of alcoholic gastritis? -         thickened gastric folds &/or multiple superficial gastric erosions What is the radiographic appearance of corrosive gastritis? -         narrowing of the antrum and possible gastric outlet obstruction What is the radiographic appearance of bacterial or infectious gastritis? -         thickening gastric wall causing narrowing of stomach and gas in the stomach wall What is the radiographic appearance of chronic atrophic gastritis? -         thinning and absence of mucosal folds ("bald") Peptic Ulcer Disease -         group of inflammatory processes involving the stomach and duodenum What causes peptic ulcer disease? -         caused by the action of acid and the enzyme pepsin secreted by the stomach What is the radiographic appearance of stomach cancer? -         lesions/polyps (elevated, flat or depressed); irregular ulcers; clubbed mucosal folds Crohn's Disease -         idiopathic, chronic, inflammatory disorder Crohn's Disease is also referred to as -         regional enteritis In what age range is crohn's most common? -         15-25 year olds What is the cause of crohn's disease -         cause is unknown, stress or emotional upsets usually related to the onset or relapse of crohns Where does Crohn's disease occur? -         any part of the GI tract but usually involves the terminal area of the ileum What is the radiographic appearance of Crohn's disease? -         cobblestone; irregular thickened mucosal folds; skip lesions; string sign(severely narrowed, rigid segment of small bowel in which mucosal pattern is lost What is the recommended modality for Crohn's disease? -         CT What are the two reasons behind 75% of small bowel obstructions? -         fibrous adhesions from previous surgery; peritonitis usually caused by fungus or bacterial infection What is the radiographic appearance of of SBO? -         step-ladder appearance; air-filled small bowel appears dilated; air fluid levels are present Bezoar -         solid mass of indigestible material that accumulates in your digestive tract Adynamic Ileus -         fluid and gas do not move normally through a nonobstructed small and large bowel What is the radiographic appearance of adynamic ileus? -         small and large bowel appear uniformly dilated with no apparent point of obstruction Intussusception -         telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another Is intussusception more common in adults or children? -         children What is one way to undo intussusception? -         Barium enema--pressure from the contrast can force the telescoping to undo itself What is the radiographic appearance of intussusception? -         coiled spring appearance on barium enemas Appendicitis -         neck of appendix becomes blocked by a fecalith or post-inflammatory scarring What is the radiographic appearance of appendicitis? -         round or oval, laminated calcified fecalith in the appendix Diverticulosis -         colonic outpouchings that are acquired herniations of mucosa and submucosa through the muscular layers at points of weakness in the bowel wall What is the main cause of a massive lower GI bleed in elderly patients? -         Diverticulosis Diverticulitis -         complication of diverticulosis; infection and inflammation of diverticula What is the radiographic appearance of diverticulitis? -         extravasation; pericolic abscess; pericolic soft tissue mass Ulcerative Colitis -         idiopathic inflammatory disease of the bowel; causes inflammation of cells that line the rectum and colon What is the radiographic appearance of ulcerative colitis? -         absense of haustral markings; mucosal thickening; toxic megacolon "lead pipe" colon Ischemic Colitis -         if blood flow is insufficient, acute bowel necrosis and perforation may result         inflammatory process in which protein and lipid digesting enzymes become activated within teh pancreas instead of small intestine, and begin to digest the organ What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitits? -         alcohol consumption What are the modalities of choice for acute pancreatitis? -         ultrasound and CT Chronic Pancreatitis -         results when frequent injury to the pancreas causes increasing damgae that produces scar tissue What is the modality of choice for chronic pancreatitis? -         Ultrasound Pancreatic Pseudocyst -         localized fluid collections arising from inflammation, necrosis, or hemorrhage resulting from acute pancreatitits or trauma What are the modalities of choice? -         Ultrasound and CT What is the most common pancreatic malignancy? -         adenocarcinoma What modality is used for the initial screening for pancreatic cancer? -         Ultrasound What is the modality that is most effective for detecting pancreatic cancer in any portion of the gland and assesssing the extent? -         CT Pneumoperitoneum -         free air in the peritoneal cavity What two radiographic projections best demonstrate a pneumoperitoneum? -         upright abdomen, left lateral decubitus Splenomegaly -         enlargement of the spleen What is the radiographic appearance of splenomegaly? -         elevated left hemidiaphragm; impress the greater curvature of the barium filled stomach; displacement of stomach; downward displacement of left kidney and splenic flexure of colon What is the most common cause of a splenic rupture? -         trauma What is the modality of choice for a splenic rupture? -         CT What is the radiographic appearance of a splenic rupture? -         subscapular hematoma appears as a crescentric fluid collection; splenic laceration appears as enlargement with an irregular splenic border Meningitis -         Acute inflammation of the pain mater and arachnoid What causes meningitis? -         Bacteria and viruses Which form of meningitis is most common? -         Bacterial What is the single most diagnostic study for meningitis? -         Lumbar Puncture Encephalitis -         Acute inflammation of the brain and meninges Blood-brain barrier (BBB) -         Protective barrier that keeps unwanted substances from reaching the brain Brain Abscess -         An encapsulated accumulation of pus within the cranium resulting from a cranial infection What is the result of chronic infections of the middle ear, paranasal sinuses, mastoid air cells or of systemic infections? -         Brain Abscess What is the modality of choice for a brain abscess? -         MRI when CT is not available Subdural Empyema -         Pus accumulation between the dura mater and arachnoid laters of the meninges What is the most common cause of subdural empyema? -         Spread of infection from the frontal or ethmoid sinuses Epidural Empyema -         Infection is outside the Duran membrane and beneath the inner table of the skull Epidural Empyema is almost always associated with ____________ in a cranial bone. -         Osteomyelitis What is the radiographic appearance of osteomyelitis of the skull? -         Multiple, small, poorly defined areas of lucency What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor? -         Glioma Glioma -         Composed of glial cells Glial cells -         Supporting connective tissues in the CNS What is the most sensitive modality for detecting brain tumors? -         MRI Meningioma -         Benign tumor that arises from arachnoid lining cells and are attached to the dura mater. What is a mass effect? -         Effect of a growing mass that results in secondary pathological effects by pushing on or displacing surrounding tissue; can lead to seizures and neuro defects Acoustic Neuroma -         Slow growing benign tumor of the 8th cranial nerve What is the preferred modality for acoustic neuroma? -         MRI Pituitary Adenoma -         Usually arises in anterior lobe What are the modalities of choice for pituitary adenoma? -         CT and MRI What is the radiographic appearance of a pituitary adenoma? -         Enlargement and erosion of the sella turcica on skull radiograph Craniopharyngioma -         benign tumor with both cystic and solid components At what age is craniopharyngioma usually seen? -         Before the age of 20         Focal neurologic deficits that completely resolve within 24 hours What do TIAs result from? -         Emboli originating from the surface of an emboli stroke or from stenosis of an extra cerebral artery What are some causes of intraparenchymal hemorrhage? -         Head trauma, hypertensive vascular disease, congenital berry aneurysm rupture, arteriovenous malformation Multiple Sclerosis (MS) -         Deterioration of myelin sheath Epilepsy -         Brain impulses are temporarily disturbed What are some symptoms of epilepsy? -         Loss of consciousness to violent siezures What are the two primary forms of epilepsy? -         Petite mal and Grand mal Alzheimer's Disease -         Progressive neurodegerative disorder characterized by the gradual onset of demential What is another term used for Alzheimer's disease? -         Presenile dementia What is the modality of choice to rule out reversible causes of dementia? -         MRI Parkinson's disease -         Progressive, degenerative disease What are the most useful imaging modalities for Parkinson's? -         PET/SPECT Cerebellum Atrophy -         Degeneration from a previously normal cerebellar volume, isolated atrophy of the cerebellum Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) -         Relentlessly progressive neurological disorder with widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerves that eventually leads to paralysis and death What is another name for ALS? -         Lou Gehrig's Disease Hydrocephalus -         Dilation of ventricular system Sinusitis -         Caused by a viral upper respiratory infection How does sinusitis appear radiographically? -         Soft tissue density lining the walls of the involved sinuses