ARRT VI EXAM QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2024/2025, Exams of Health sciences

Download ARRT VI EXAM QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2024/2025 and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! ARRT VI EXAM QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2024/2025 Kyphoplasty Also called per cutaneous vertebralplasty are invasive procedures indicated for patients who have back pain. Also, these procedures are done to stabilize a compression fracture that results from osteoporosis, a malignant tumor of the vertebral body, including cancer types such as multiple myeloma, a hemangioma, or an injury to this find that results in broken spinal bones. With a compression fracture, the bones have collapsed in sections of the spine or in the entire spine. During the procedurehey needle or a guy pan is placed into the vertebral body using image guidance. Once the needle or guide pin is pleased, a style that in a cannula are inserted over the needle or the guide pin and into the pedicle. Through the cannula, a drill is advanced. Once an inflatable balloon device is placed into the vertebral body and expands it, The bone is compacted and a cavity space is open. Using real-time image guidance, the vertebral bodies cavity space is injected with the bone cement. Lovenox A parenteral anticoagulant used to treat thromboembolic conditions. Anticoagulant drugs include heparin, plavix coumadin lovenox and heparin are examples of parent Terrell coagulants. Coumadin is an example of an oral anticoagulant. Heparin and I'm on some parents should not be taken orally or given intramuscularly. If taken orally, the gastrointestinal tract does not absorb these drugs. Hematoma can occur if these drugs are given intramuscularly. Patientpatients who receive interventional procedures and taken anticoagulant drugs is monitored to ensure overdose does not occur, which can be evident by a hemorrhage Raynaud's disease is an example of Functional peri feral vascular disease. It is a type of circulation disorder associated with peripheral vascular disease, beside organic peripheral vascular disease. Functional peripheral vascular disease is associated with short-term spasms. The onset of functional peripheral vascular disease includes emotional stress, smoking, exposure to cold temperatures, four instance. Best catheter for upper extremities H1H. Several catheters are good for upper extremities depending in the age of the patient. H1H suitable for younger patients while Berenstein and Simmons tend to be more suitable for older patients. Simple consent Simple consent is getting the patient's permission to perform a procedure. Simple consent is further categorized into two types one express consent into implied consent with express consent to consent is given in writing verbally or just by allowing the procedure to happen. And implied consent often takes place in an emergency situation where the patient is on able to give consent Uretic compression A process that allows the pelvicalyceal to fill and for the contrast media to stay in the renal collecting system longer one more involved and complicated studies are performed. He device is used to perform the ureteric compression and is put on the patient before the contrast material is injected Leading cause of aortic aneurysms Atherosclerosis is the leading cause of aortic aneurysm him. This condition occurs when aweakness develops in the lumbar region and the aorta balloons out Qualifications for abdominal aortic aneurysm ultrasound screening Family history abdominal aortic aneurysm or, a male who is aged 65 to 75 years old, a male who smokes cigarettes and has smoked a minimum of 100 cigarettes over the course of his life Wilkie's syndrome Hey vascular compression disorder of the superior mesenteric artery or SMA that can be checked with the vascular interventional radiology The posterior branches of the renal arteries supply blood to which of the part of the kidney? Upper pole and posterior portion Best common catheter used for visceral angiography are Cobras and sidewinders Visceral angiography evaluates bloodflow in the liver, spleen, and bowel External renal stone removal procedures are generally used for stones larger then 2 cm or 8 inches The folds in the brain matter are known as Gyrus. The brain matter is made up of folds and fishers the folds are known as gyrus A digital image acquisition mode where one image is produced a refers to? Digital angiography. Image production for vascular image has three types of modes for digital image acquisition, which are Digital angiography, Digital cineradiography and digital subtraction angiography. With digital angeography, also called spa filming, a single images produced. For instance, Organic peripheral vascular disease Hey disease that occurs when structural changes service in the blood vessel. Examples of this disorder are tissue damage and inflammation. Further, a type of organic peripheral vascular disease is a peripheral artery disease. When the blood flow is restricted in the arteries, which are the blood vessels that transports blood to the organs of the body from the heart, the arteries restricts or Narrows and fattydeposits accumulate and block the arteries also arthrosclerosis peripheral arterial disease happens when the blood does not flow through the arteries sufficiently to provide adequate blood supply to the muscles in the body. This condition most often occurs in the legs and arms.signs and symptoms of peripheral artery disease that has progressed into advanced stages are pain, especially in the feet or a vector a fomite sterilization a fomite Fomites are contaminated inanimate objects that have been exposed to infectious agents. Infectious agents can live on inanimate objects, such as gloves, radiographic equipment, food, water, medical devices, clothes, bedding and towels, for example. A cyst is not the best answer choice as this is where a parasite is enclosed in a covering or protective wall. A vector is a carrier of an infectious disease that spreads the disease from one host to another host. Then, sterilization is the elimination of a microorganism. The right lobe of the liver is composed of which of the following segments? Anterior and posterior. Medial and lateral. Superior and inferior. Medial and inferior. Anterior and posterior The liver is divided into right and left lobes by a line drawn between the gallbladder and the inferior vena cava. The right lobe is composed of anterior and posterior segments, each with superior and inferior subsegments Abdominal aortography requires how many milliliters of contrast medium injection? 60-70. 10-20. 1-5. 40-50. Abdominal aortography requires 40 to 50 milliliters of contrast media injection. Knowledge of the appropriate amount of contrast medium required for procedures is essential to radiographic professionalism The small saphenous vein usually drains into which vessel? Fibular vein. Femoral vein. Popliteal vein. Anterior tibial. Popliteal vein The small saphenous vein is a rather large superficial vein in the posterior leg. It usually drains into the popliteal vein, but it sometimes joins with the Giacomini vein and that merged vein drains into the great saphenous vein. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers Of which of the following is the deltoid artery a branch? Subclavian artery. Thoracoacromial trunk. Thyrocervical trunk. Descending aorta Thoracoacromial trunk The deltoid artery is a branch of the thoracoacromial trunk. It supplies blood to the deltoid muscle Which of the following best identifies a functionality of a guide wire? It prevents a catheter from being inserted into an organ It allows access to the blood vessel A guide wire is made of thick coils of gold rope A guide wire is attached to the tip of a balloon catheter tip It allows access to the blood vessel For vascular access procedures or minimally invasive procedures, several types of equipment is used to access the blood vessels, the bile duct, and other organs in the body. The equipment may include imaging equipment, a needle, guide wire or a catheter. A guide wire is defined as a thin piece of wire. The wire helps to guide the insertion and placement of a catheter, stent or material into the body. At what level does the celiac artery arise from the abdominal aorta? L3-L5. T10-T12. T9-T11. T12-L1. T12-L1 The celiac artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the T12 to L1 level. Knowledge of anatomy and the position of organs and blood vessels is essential to radiographic professionalism. What should a radiologic technologist remember when using moral rules to make an ethical decision? Moral rules require a health care professional to make alternate choices Moral rules are grounded in conflict resolution Moral rules are incomplete Moral rules are applicable to a subset of professional groups Moral rules are incomplete Moral rules deal with statements governing right and wrong conduct or behavior. Moral rules typically apply to individual behavior. Moral rules have limitations such as they are not complete and do not address all ethical situations that may arise. Therefore, moral rules often rely on an individual's personal judgment when dealing with an ethical situation and making a decision. The thoracic aorta ends at which level? T9. L1. T12. T4. T12 The thoracic aorta is contained in the posterior mediastinal cavity. It ends at the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm in the T12 level. Which of the following documents is referred to a "declaration" in some states? Health care power of attorney A living will A physician's order A requisition request A living will Health care advanced directives are legal documents that express the wishes of the patient if the individual is incompetent or unable to make medical decisions. A living will outlines an individual's choices for medical care. In some states, a living will may be called a declaration. A living takes effect when the patient is incapacitated and is not able to make decisions about his or her medical care or in situations where the patient has a terminal medical illness or is unconscious. The living will can have directions for medical care, such as if the patient want or does not want cardiopulmonary resuscitation, mechanical ventilation or nutritional feedings through a tube, for example. The left and right hepatic ducts combine to form which of the following? Common hepatic duct. Common bile duct. then injected, followed by cannulation of the femoral vein. Fluoroscopic guidance is used where a guide wire is threaded into the vein and a catheter is inserted over the wire and passed into the inferior vena cava. Which of the following is a section of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologist's Standards of Ethics, which has enforceable standards? Code of Ethics Preamble Rules of Ethics Doctrine Rules of Ethics The Standard of Ethics has two parts, which are the (1) Code of Ethics and the (2) Rules of Ethics. The first section of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologist - Standards of Ethics is the Code of Ethics, which outlines standards the technologists should follow and use to measure professional and ethical conduct. The Code of Ethics has an aspirational section, which comprises 10 statements. The second section of the Standards of Ethics is the Rules of Ethics, which outlines acceptable practices for a registered technologist and are mandatory standards the technologist must follow. The Rules of Ethics provides patients, the community and other health care professional assurance that the technologist has the qualification to practice in the field. As with the Code of Ethics, the Rules of Ethics are designed to foster patient safety, patient protection and guidelines for patient comfort. The transverse cervical artery supplies blood to which of the following? Upper chest. Anterior chest wall. Intercostal spaces. Upper back muscles Upper back muscles The transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the upper back muscles. It is a branch of the thryocervical trunk During an abdominal aortography, the exposure is made during the: Beginning of suspended expiration End of suspended expiration Middle of suspended expiration Onset of suspended expiration End of suspended expiration An abdominal aortography has several requirements, such as ensuring the exposure is made toward the end of suspended expiration. Further, the central ray is positioned at the level of the L2. This allows the aorta extending to the diaphragm and the aortic bifurcation to appear in the image. The abdominal aortography is performed on patients who are suspected to have bruits in the mid-section of the abdomen, has vascular disease in the abdominal aorta, the arteries such as the iliac, visceral and renal. The structure at the base of the brain which is formed by the joining of the basilar and carotid arteries is known as which of the following? Interior carotid artery. Inferior vena cava. Circle of Willis. Circle of Pons. Circle of Willis The Circle of Willis is a structure at the base of the brain. It is formed by the juncture of the carotid and basilar arteries. It is sometimes also called the cerebral arterial circle. What type of atherectomy is considered the first type? Rotational. Staged. Directional. Transluminal extraction Directional An atherectomy is considered a non-surgical procedure. It is used to open both blocked vein grafts or coronary arteries. It restores proper blood flow to the heart. There are three types. They are rotational, directional, and transluminal extraction. Rotational uses a fast rotating shaver to remove plaque. Directional was the original type of atherectomy. Transluminal extraction cuts plaque off of blood vessels, and then sucks it up into a bottle. Which of the following supplies blood to the brain and eyes? Basilar artery. Internal carotid artery. Vertebral artery. External carotid artery. . Internal carotid artery The internal carotid artery supplies blood to the brain, eyes, and some internal parts of the head. Knowledge of the vessels of the body part being imaged or treated is key for radiographic professionals Which vessel begins at the junction of the brachial and basilic veins and travels to the first rib where it becomes the subclavian vein? Cephalic. Digital metacarpal. Axillary. Iliac. Axillary The axillary vein begins at the junction of the brachial and basilic veins and travels to the first rib where it becomes the subclavian vein. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer A type of catheter used during thrombolysis where the dissolving solution is injected with the use of a syringe refers to: Systemic approach Pulse spray method Super selective approach Vasoconstrictor method Pulse spray method For a thrombolytic procedure there are several kinds of catheters that can be inserted into the blood clot. Common types of catheters are pulse spray and infusion type. With the pulse spray approach, an individual uses a syringe to inject the thrombolytic agent. With the infusion approach, a pump infuses the thrombolytic agent over a course of time, such as hours or days. There is not a vasoconstrictor method. However, a vasoconstrictor drug exists that is used for infusion therapy. to help evaluate an electrolyte imbalance as well monitor for several conditions. Normal potassium levels vary by age. The normal range for potassium in adults is 3.5-5.2 mEq/L. How is nitroprusside administered? Intramuscularly. Via infusion pump. Via enema. Intrathecally. Via infusion pump Nitroprusside is a vasodillator, which widens blood vessels and results in lowered blood pressure, increased heart rate, and increased cardiac output. Nitroprusside is administers by an infusion pump. Determine which is considered a mild reaction to iodine contrast media? Difficulty breathing. Swelling of the throat. Swelling of the face. Headache. Swelling of the face Most patients tolerate contrast media well. However, it is important to educate patients about potential reactions. Mild reactions to iodine contrast include swelling of the face and eyes, hives, pallor, chills, and shaking. A private or civil injustice that may involve an injury refers to: Reasonable cause Due care Criminal law Tort ... A contraindication for a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure is: Severe encephalopathy Severe endocarditis Severe endoblast Severe hemothorax Severe encephalopathy Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is a percutaneous procedure. With this technique, a stent is placed inside the portal veins to reduce the amount of pressure between the portal vein and the adjacent veins, such as the hepatic vein. The blood flow pressure (a) is reduced as the blood goes to the liver when it is diseased, (b) prevents bleeding and (c) stops fluid accumulation. The best answer choice for this question is encephalopathy, which is a condition or disease affecting the brain. Additional contraindications associated with a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure are heart failure and liver failure. The remaining answer choices, severe hemothorax, severe endoblast and severe endocarditis, are incorrect. Endocarditis describes inflammation affecting the heart's membrane lining. Then, endoblast is an immature cell that develops into the endodermal cell. Hemothorax occurs when the blood vessels break and blood and fluid builds up in the pleural cavity. Which of the following is used to screen patients for an abdominal aortic aneurysm? A routine onetime ultrasound A CT angiography A routine physical transducer examination by a physician A magnetic resonance imaging A routine onetime ultrasound is a screening tool used to not only screen a patient for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, but also confirm the size of an abdominal aortic aneurysm Also, the ultrasound is used to watch the growth of the abdominal aortic aneurysm. Suspected aortic aneurysms are often discovered during a routine physical examination and from there the physician may order an abdominal ultrasound, a computed tomography scan or a magnetic resonance imaging. A computed tomography (CT) angiography is the first line imaging test when a patient has an abdominal aortic aneurysm but it is used for the measurement of the aneurysm and not for screening purposes. Also, the CT angiography helps with planning an endovascular aortic aneurysm repair and is used as a follow up medical test after an endovascular aortic aneurysm repair.` Which of the following would you use when it is necessary to diminish flow? Straight catheter. Balloon occlusion catheter. Pig tail catheter. Umbrella catheter. Umbrella catheter Umbrella catheters are used to diminish flow. Awareness of the different types of catheters and the circumstances in which they are used is key for radiology professionals. Which type of injector has an electromechanical flow rate that is relative to variables? Air-compressed. Linear rise. Pressure dependent. Fixed flow rate. Pressure dependent Automatic pressure injectors are used to inject contrast media into a patient. A pressure dependent injector has an electromechanical flow rate that is relative to variables When exchanging catheters, the guidewire should be at least how much longer than the catheter? 10 cm. Three times as long. Twice as long. 20 cm. Twice as long Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a certain area of the body, and guidewires thread the catheters through the vessels. When exchanging catheters, the guidewire should be at least twice as long as the catheter. Which type of injector has an electromechanical flow rate that is not dependent upon variables? Pressure dependent. Linear rise. Air-compressed. Fixed flow rate Fixed flow rate Automatic pressure injectors are used to inject contrast media into a patient. Fixed flow rate injectors have an electromechanical flow that is not dependent upon variables Which branch of the abdominal aorta arises around the L3 level anterolaterally and to the left? Plaque Atherosclerosis is a disorder characterized by damage to the artery or vein from a build-up of plaque long the vessel walls. An angioplasty is designed to help correct this problem by pressing this build up against the vessel wall and implanting a stent if necessary. The anterior and posterior tibial arteries are located at which of the following? Trochanteric fossa. Fovea. Linea aspera. Intercondyloid fossa Intercondyloid fossa The anterior and posterior tibial arteries arise from the bifurcation of the politeal artery. They are located at the anterior and posterior intercondyloid fossa. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer A major complication of a catheter placed to drain an abdominal abscess is: Hemorrhage Pain Infection Pericatheter leak Hemorrhage Complications associated with a catheter inserted for the drainage of an abdominal abscess is divided into two categories: major and minor. Major complications are hemopneumothorax, septic shock, hemorrhage, an enteric fistula, for instance. Minor complications may involve a pericatheter leak or the patient experiencing pain or acquiring an infection. After a percutaneous stone removal procedure, how long does a patient generally stay in the hospital? 1 hour. 12 hours. 1 day. 2-7 days. 2-7 days A percutaneous stone removal is a type of procedure that is used to remove stone material directly from a kidney. During the procedure, a small incision will be made into the patient's back. A score is inserted into the incision which goes directly to the kidney, and from there the stones can be removed. Since the procedure is invasive, it requires of a hospital stay of 2-7 days. The popliteal artery supplies blood to all but which of the following? Knee. Calf. Plantar region of the foot. Thigh. Plantar region of the foot The popliteal artery supplies the knee, calf, and thigh. Knowledge of the location and function of the various arteries and veins is key to professionals who perform vascular interventions. of the following is a major branch of the posterior tibial artery? Popliteal artery. Dorsalis pedis. External circumflex arteries. Peroneal artery. Peroneal artery The peroneal artery is a major branch of the posterior tibial artery and supplies blood to the lateral and posterior compartments of the leg. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers. When performing a retrograde femoral artery catheterization, the femoral artery is found: In the middle of the femoral cavity space instead of the pubic symphysis Posterior to the iliac spine Anterior to the superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle Above the inguinal nodes in the ligaments Anterior to the superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle The femoral vessel is often selected for vascular procedures because the vessels are large, which helps with the insertion of large diameter catheters. Also, this vessel carries the least risk for thrombosis developing in the vessel. The puncture site to administer anesthesia for a retrograde femoral artery catheterization is located by palpating the femoral artery and the inguinal ligament directly underneath the inguinal ligament where a mark is made which designates 0.5 cm medially to the strongest pulsation of the femoral vein. The femoral artery is located between the middle of the pubic symphysis. It is also anterior to superior to the iliac spine. An esophageal stricture is further classified as: Benign or malignant Extraluminal or intraluminal Low output or high output Therapeutic or nontherapeutic Benign or malignant A stricture of the esophagus is defined as the narrowing of the esophagus. An esophageal stricture can be benign (no cancer) or malignant (cancer). Patients with esophageal stricture has problems swallowing, may experience pain during swallowing or have regurgitation of food, to name a few symptoms. How many types of atherectomy are there? 3. 5. 7. 9. 3 An atherectomy is considered a non-surgical procedure. It is used to open both blocked vein grafts or coronary arteries. It restores proper blood flow to the heart. There are three types. They are rotational, directional, and transluminal extraction A procedure in which an artificial opening is created in the stomach, such as for providing nutritional support, is known as which of the following? Nephrotomy. Colostomy. Control panel Total volume Pulsation Synchronization The contrast medium injection device has different types of parameters. These parameters are the flow rate, total volume, rise, pressure and delay. The flow rate defines the speed or degree that the contrast agent is injected, which is measured by cubic centimeters per second. The control panel is where the parameters can be changed by the interventional technologist Which of the following is a disadvantage of side holes on a catheter? Increases resistance. Must be flushed frequently. Increases recoil. Cannot be used in large vessels. Must be flushed frequently Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a certain area of the body. Side holes in catheters reduce catheter's resistance and recoil, but they must be flushed frequently to avoid clotting. All but which of the following is a basic shape of a catheter? Single curve. Pigtail. Double curve. Straight. Double curve Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a certain area of the body. There are four basic shapes of catheters: single curve, multiple curve, pigtail, and straight. What is the increment of French sizes? .33 mm. .33 cm. 3.3 mm. 33 mm. .33 mm Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a certain area of the body. Catheters are measured by French sizes, which refers to the outer diameter of the catheter tube. The increment of French sizes is .33 mm or 1/3 mm. What is the length of the flexible portion of a fixed core guidewire? 10-15 mm. 10-20 mm. 3-10 mm. 3-10 cm. 3-10 cm Guidewires are used to direct the catheter through vessels. With fixed core guidewires, the core is attached close to the tip. The flexible portion of a moveable core guidewire is 10-15 cm in length. A patient who has undergone angioplasty should be advised to contact his physician immediately if he experiences all but which of these? Increased leg pain. Shortness of breath. Drainage at the catheter site. Nausea. Nausea A patient who experiences chest pain, persistent or worsening leg pain, shortness of breath, bleeding or drainage at the catheter site, and fever should contact his or her physician immediately. These are potential signs of a serious complication. What is DSI used for in a renal angiogram? To view only bones and tissues, and blood vessels. To view only blood vessels, and not bones and tissues. To view only bones, and not blood vessels and tissues. To view only tissues, and not bones and blood vessels To view only blood vessels, and not bones and tissues DSI stands for Digital Subtraction Angiography. It is used in procedures like renal angiograms. On a computer, tissues and bones are subtracted out of the picture. This is done to view only the blood vessels during an angiogram. The anterior tibial artery branches off into which vessel? Dorsalis pedis. Peroneal artery. Popliteal artery. Deep femoral artery. Dorsalis pedis The anterior tibial artery branches into the dorsalis pedis, which supplies blood to the foot. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer. Which of the following is the preferred insertion site for a PICC line? Brachial vein. Basilic vein. Cephalic vein. Superior vena cava Basilic vein A PICC line is a form of intravenous access that can be used for a prolonged period of time to administer medications or fluids and to withdraw blood samples. The line is inserted into a peripheral vein in the patient's arm and then advanced to the superior vena cava. The preferred insertion site for a PICC line is the basilic vein, but the cephalic and brachial veins may also be used for an insertion site if the basilic vein cannot be used for some reason How long can a PICC line stay in position? 72 hours. 30 days. 1 year. 6 months. 1 year A PICC line can remain in place for one year. This is an advantage over a regular line, which can only remain in place for 72 hours. Treatment of a serious allergic condition, anaphylaxis, may involve: Giving the patient oxygen Performing surgery Injecting the patient with an allergen Inducing vomiting Superior vena cava. Femoral vein Superior vena cava A PICC line is inserted into a peripheral vein in the patient's arm, such as the cephalic, basilic, or brachial vein. It is just advanced proximally toward the heart until the tip rests in the distal superior vena cava or cavoatrial junction Of all disruptions diagnosed, the majority are found to be at which location? Aortic root. Aortic arch. Isthmus. Mediastinal branches Isthmus Of all the aortic disruptions diagnosed, 80-86% are found at the isthmus of the aorta. With an incidence of about 9%, the next most likely site for disruption is at the aortic root. The LPO position of the lower leg demonstrates which of the following? Right internal iliac artery and left femoral bifurcation. Left internal iliac artery and right femoral bifurcation. Left internal iliac artery and left femoral bifurcation. Right internal iliac artery and right femoral bifurcation Left internal iliac artery and right femoral bifurcation The LPO position of the lower leg will demonstrate the left internal iliac artery and right femoral bifurcation. Knowledge of anatomy and positioning is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers. How often should a technologist evaluate a patient who is in a cast for impaired circulation? Every 30 minutes Every 15 minutes Every hour Evaluation is not necessary Every 15 minutes Individuals in a cast due to a fracture are at risk for developing a decubitus ulcer. A cast on a person's extremities can impair circulation and reduce blood flow to the skin which may lead to skin breakdown. The technologist should assess the patient for potential impaired circulation or even compression of the nerve. This assessment should be done every 15 minute. Examples of symptoms the technologist should watch for associated with impaired circulation and compression of the nerves are: (1) pain - rapid onset of pain when a person is not moving is a sign of damage to the nerves (2) Cold - an individual may feel coldness in the extremities instead of warmth (3) numbness - numbness is attributed to nerve damage or the cast is applied to tightly on the patient (4) Burning - tingling sensation or burning in the fingers or the patient's toes is indicative of impaired circulation (5) Swelling - represents edema. About how long is the recovery period for a patient who has had an abdominal angiogram? 30 minutes -4 hours. 12-24 hours. 48-120 hours. 3-4 weeks. 12-24 hours An abdominal angiogram is commonly referred to as an abdominal arteriogram. It is a type of imaging test. It uses X-rays to evaluate blood vessels. The recovery time for this procedure is about 12-24 hours. Which of the following is the widest, shortest part of the small intestine? Descending colon. Duodenum. Jejunum. Cecum. Duodenum The duodenum is the shortest, widest section of the small intestine. It is mostly retroperitoneal -- behind the peritoneum, which protects the abdominal and pelvic organs. The posterior tibial artery divides into which vessels? Dorsalis pedis. Peroneal artery. Medial and lateral plantar arteries. Popliteal artery. Medial and lateral plantar arteries The posterior tibial artery branches into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers. After a pulmonary angiogram is completed, how long should pressure be applied to the puncture site? 30 seconds. 5-10 minutes. 20-45 minutes. There is no puncture site. 20-45 minutes A pulmonary angiogram is used to check to see how well blood flows through the lungs. It is a type of imaging test. The catheter is placed through the skin into a vein. At this puncture site, it is crucial to place pressure for 20-45 minutes to avoid bleeding. The ileocolic artery is a branch of which of the following? Inferior mesenteric artery. Superior mesenteric artery. Common hepatic artery. Splenic artery. Superior mesenteric artery The ileocolic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery. The ileocolic artery supplies blood the appendix, cecum, and ileum. During a percutaneous biliary drainage procedure an antibiotic is given: After the procedure One hour before the procedure In a pulmonary angiogram, contrast dye is placed where? Into the arteries. Directly into the lungs. Directly in the heart. In the veins of the leg Into the arteries A pulmonary angiogram is used to check to see how well blood flows through the lungs. It is a type of imaging test. It uses low dose x-rays. Contrast dye is placed inside the arteries, and the blood flow is checked. The branch of the subclavian artery which ascends posteriorly and then enters the cranium through the foramen magna is known as which of the following? Internal carotid artery. Basilar artery. Cerebellar artery. Vertebral artery Vertebral artery The vertebral artery is a branch of the subclavian artery. It ascends posteriorly and enters the cranium through the foramen magna. It has branches into the meninges, medulla, and cerebellum. Which of the following structures makes up the nephron? Renal tubule and cortex. Renal corpuscle and medulla. Cortex and renal corpuscle. Renal corpuscle and renal tubule Renal corpuscle and renal tubule The nephron is the functional unit of the kidneys that regulates the concentration of water and soluble substances. The nephron is made up of the renal corpuscle and renal tubule Which type of catheter is used in the carotid artery and arch vessels? Pigtail. Cobra. Headhunter. Tracker. Headhunter Different types of catheters are used for a variety of procedures. The headhunter catheter is used in the carotid artery and arch vessels Which of the following types of contrast media breaks apart in the bloodstream and forms compounds? Isotonic. Nonionic. Ionic. Nonisotonic. Ionic Vessels subject to angiography must be made radiopaque by injection of a contrast medium, which comes in several forms. Ionic contrast media breaks apart in the bloodstream and forms compounds, which can cause pain in the patient. Pulse oximetry is contraindicated in a patient who has which of the following conditions? Hypothermic. Hypertensive. Hypovolemic. Diabetic. Hypovolemic Pulse oximetry is used to measure the saturation of O2 in the bloodstream. Pulse oximetry is contraindicated in patients who are hypovolemic Which type of contrast media is associated with higher osmolality? CO2. Nonionic. Ionic. Isotonic. Ionic Vessels subject to angiography must be made radiopaque by injection of a contrast medium, which comes in several forms. Ionic contrast media is associated with higher osmolality, meaning that it agitates the bloodstream more. Which of the following is a normal range for ALT on a liver panel? 50-75 U/L. 25-75 U/L 7-55 U/L. 20-85 U/L 7-55 U/L. A liver panel measures enzymes, proteins, and substances produced or excreted by the liver that are affected by liver injury or disease. The normal range for ALT on a liver panel is 7-55 U/L. When creating a care plan, it should include all of the following, except: The medical professional's opinions only. A patient's needs. A patient's perspectives. A patient's experiences. The medical professional's opinions only Communication is a very important part of patient care. Communication should always be open and honest. When talking to a patient, the communication should be centered around them. Patient centeredness is based on two attributes. They are being responsive to the patient's needs and including a patient in creating a care plan and decision making. When creating a care plan for an individual patient it is important to include the patient's needs, wants, perspectives, and experiences. All but which of the following are vasodilators? Hydralazine. Minoxidil. Nitroprusside. Fetanyl. Fetanyl Vasodilators widen the blood vessels, resulting in a lower arterial blood pressure, increased heart rate, fluoroscope, and contrast material to collect the images on the blood vessels. Only low amounts of radiation exposure is used. The procedure should not be performed on patients that are pregnant or have bleeding problems. For patients that cannot have the procedure performed, a MRA or magnetic resonance angiogram can be performed. Which vein arises from the radial side of the arm? Iliac. Mesenteric. Cephalic. Basilic. Cephalic The cephalic vein is one of the superficial veins in the upper arm. It arises on the radial side of the arm. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer. A method of checking for gallstones is to have the patient take a deep breath while you apply pressure over the gallbladder. If the patient experiences pain, he or she is said to be positive for which of the following? Murphy sign. Willis's sign. Murphy test. Jaundice. Murphy sign The Murphy sign occurs when a patient takes a deep breath and has pain when pressure is applied over the gallbladder. This is one sign of gallstones. The difference between a percutaneous kyphoplasty and a percutaneous vertebroplasty is: The vertebroplasty uses a needle to stabilize bone fragments_ The kyphoplasty requires confirmation of needle placement with an intraosseous venography The vertebroplasty expands the compression fracture The kyphoplasty treats compression fractures using a stent and bone cement The vertebroplasty uses a needle to stabilize bone fragments Percutaneous kyphoplasty is an interventional radiology technique that uses a balloon catheter to expand the vertebral body compression fracture. During the expansion, bone cement is injected into holes developed during the expansion. Kyphoplasty is indicated for patients with curvature of the spine and for patients with a hunchback. With percutaneous vertebroplasty, the bone cement is injected into the compression fracture with a needle and the placement of the needle and contrast media injection is confirmed with an intraosseous venography. The maximum dose of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) during a 2 hour vascular procedure is: 200 ug as a bolus 0.3 mg sublingually 100 ug as a bolus 100 mg 100 mg The maximum amount of Benadryl administered during a 2 hour vascular study is 100 mg. The average dose administered is between 25 to 50 mg. Benadryl is administered through the oral, intramuscular or intravenous routes. Onset for action with an oral dose of Benadryl is between 30 to 60 minutes. With administration intravenously, the onset of action is between five to 10 minutes. Benadryl lasts between 4 to 6 hours. The remaining answer choices, 100 ug as a bolus, 200 ug as a bolus or 0.3 mg sublingually, are associated with dosing for nitroglycerin. For a patient undergoing an angioplasty, nitroglycerin may be administered as a bolus, between 100 to 200 ug. A patient who has angina pectoris is given 0.3 mg of nitroglycerin on as a needed basis sublingually (underneath the tongue). Mutism is likely to result from which of the following? Dissecting aneurysm. Unilateral occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery. Bilateral occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery. Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery. Bilateral occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery Bilateral occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery is likely to cause mutism, or the inability to speak. It may also cause poor judgment, ataxia, confusion, apathy, and incontinence. Awareness of the different signs and symptoms that can result from vascular occlusions is key in both diagnoses and treatment. A patient who is to undergo ureteral stenting should be instructed to do which of the following? Refrain from eating or drinking after midnight the day of the procedure. Refrain from taking anything by mouth after midnight the day of procedure. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 2 hours prior to the procedure. Stop taking all oral medications 24 hours before the procedure. Refrain from eating or drinking anything after midnight the day of the procedure A patient set to undergo ureteral stenting should refrain from eating or drinking anything after midnight the day of the procedure. Oral medications may be taken with sips of water. PICC lines are available with at most, how many lumens? Four. Three. Five. Two. Three PICC lines are a form of intravenous access that can be used for a prolonged period of time to administer medications and fluids as well as withdraw blood samples. PICC lines are available as single, double, or triple lumen. Which of the following best represents a coagulation guideline to prevent a complication, bleeding, when a PICC line or CV access is removed? Check patient's INR value who are prescribed Coumadin Avoid administering aspirin to the patient Administer a routine laboratory test to assess platelet count Give the patient a dose of heparin before the procedure Check patient's INR value who are prescribed Coumadin With the removal of a peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC) or central venous access (CV) device, the risk of bleeding is low but still can be a complication. Therefore, coagulation parameters exist that detects bleeding faster which provides time to control the bleeding. These guidelines include reviewing international normalized ratio (INR) levels for a patient who takes the medication Coumadin to ensure they are in an acceptable range. Acceptable levels for the INR for these patients are less than 2.0. Higher numbers may indicate complications such as bleeding. are observed. The catheter used for the procedure, it placed in the groin area and moved through the blood vessel. It uses x-rays to guide the catheter to its correct place A patient who is scheduled to undergo percutaneous nephrostomy should be instructed to do which of the following? Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 12 hours prior to the procedure. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 4-8 hours prior to the procedure. To refrain from eating anything for 4 hours prior to the procedure, but to drink copious amounts of water. To take nothing but water by mouth for 24 hours prior to the procedure. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 4-8 hours prior to the procedure Patients undergoing percutaneous nephrostomy should not take anything by mouth for 4-8 hours prior to the procedure. They should not eat or drink, nor take oral medications Which type of catheter is used in the aortic arch, carotids, and upper extremity arteries? Davis. Pigtail. Cobra. Simmons Davis Different types of catheters are used for a variety of procedures. A Davis catheter is used to enter the aortic arch, carotids, and upper extremity arteries. To remove an IVC filter, which of the following tools is used? A balloon ended knife. A regular catheter. Special catheter. It cannot be removed Special catheter Inferior vena cava filters are placed in the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein found in the abdomen. Its job is to return blood to heart from the lower body. The filter is used to trap big clot fragments. To remove the filter, a special catheter is used. Removable IVC's have hooks on the end of them that allows for the catheter to grasp the filter, close it, pull on it, and then remove it completely. Which type of catheter is designed for placement into smaller vessels and usually only have an end hole only? Selective. Flush. Balloon. Dialysis. Selective Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a certain area of the body. Selective catheters are designed for placement into smaller vessels and usually only have an end hole only. A self-expanding stent that has high grade flexibility is known as which of the following? Balloon stent. Gianturco stent. Wall stent. Basket stent Wall stent Wall stents are self-expanding wire stents. They are woven stainless steel and have high grade flexibility. They are most often used for cardiac, visceral, and peripheral procedures During an ECG, a patient should be instructed to do what? Not move for 1-2 second periods. Not move for 5-10 second periods. Not move for 1-2 minute periods. Not move for 5-10 minute periods Not move for 5-10 second periods ECG stands for Electrocardiogram. It is considered a diagnostic tool. It is non-invasive. The procedure is not painful. During the procedure, the skin will be cleaned and dried. The patient will be asked to not move for 5-10 second periods All but which of the following is a peripheral pulse site? Brachial. Femoral. Mesenteric. Popliteal. Mesenteric Peripheral pulses are sites on the body where the pulse may be taken. The peripheral pulses include carotid, femoral, popliteal, radial, brachial, and posterior tibialis anterior. Analgesic medications produce which of the following effects in the body? Promotes calm or induces sleep. Prevents blood from forming clots. Pain relief. Narrows the blood vessels Pain relief Analgesic medications, more commonly called pain killers, relieve pain in the body. The primary classes of analgesics are narcotics, NSAIDs, and acetaminophen. Knowledge of the different types of medications is essential for radiography professionalism Which of the following type of tunneled catheter is NOT used for dialysis? Leonard. Broviac. Groshong. Hickman Hickman Tunneled catheters are used for frequent or long-term therapies. Common types of tunneled catheters are Groshong, Hickman, Broviac, and Leonard. Of those types, only the Hickman catheter is not used for dialysis. Which of the following supplies blood to the upper body? Internal carotid artery. Posterior cerebral artery. Middle cerebral artery. Anterior cerebral artery. Middle cerebral artery. 2 months. 3 months. 5 months. 6 months. 6 months Catheters with subcutaneous infusion chambers have a reported mean lifetime of 6 months or more. In comparison, Hickman catheters have a mean lifetime of 40 to 110 days Which part of the nephron is made up of the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule? Renal corpuscle. Cortex. Medulla. Renal tubule. Renal corpuscle The renal corpuscle is made up of the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule. The renal copuscle along with the renal tubule make up the nephron, which is the functional unit of the kidneys. Which branch of the abdominal aorta arises approximately at the level of T12 slightly left of the midline? Superior mesenteric artery. Inferior mesenteric artery. Celiac trunk. Renal arteries. Celiac trunk The celiac trunk arises from the abdominal aorta approximately at the level of T12 slightly to the left of the midline. It supplies blood to the liver, spleen, pancreas, duodenum, and gallbladder. A percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and stenting procedure involves: Balloon insertion Constricting the vessel with a catheter The use of a catheter to increase embolization Placing a stethoscope into an occluded vessel Balloon insertion A percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) procedure is carried out with the use of a balloon catheter. The catheter is placed in a vessel that is occluded or narrow. The catheter dilates the vessel and decreases embolization. The PTA can be used with a stent or without a stent. How often should the dressing on a PICC line be changed? Every 7 days. Every 24 hours. Only when soiled. Every 8 hours. Every 7 days PICC line dressings should be changed every 7 days. If the dressing becomes soiled, it should be changed earlier. What is an advantage of a compliant balloon? Maintain its shape. Reduce recoil. Stretch. Reduce resistance. Stretch Balloon catheters are used in percutaneous transluminal angioplasty, and the balloons can be either compliant or non-compliant. Compliant balloons can stretch Which type of catheter is used for percutaneous transluminal angioplasty? Flush. Balloon. Selective. Hickman. Balloon Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a certain area of the body. Ballooon catheters are used for percutaneous transluminal angioplasty. Which of the following statements is true about IVCs? If left in place, they cause more damage than good. They do not address the cause of deep vein thrombosis or coagulation. They address the cause of deep vein thrombosis only. They address the cause of coagulation only. They do not address the cause of deep vein thrombosis or coagulation Inferior vena cava filters are placed in the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is a large vein found in the abdomen. Its job is to return blood to heart from the lower body. The filter is used to trap big clot fragments. The IVCs do not address the cause of deep vein thrombosis or coagulation. What type of catheter is placed entirely under the skin? Tunneled catheter. Implanted port. Direct line catheter. PICC line. Hide Explanation Implanted port Central venous catheters are commonly referred to as central lines. They are long, thin, and flexible. They are used to insert medications, nutrients, fluids, and blood into a patient. There are three types, tunneled catheter, implanted port, and PICC line. A tunneled catheter is surgically inserted into the vein and moved under the skin with one end of the catheter outside of the skin. An implanted port, is placed entirely under the skin. PICC line or peripherally inserted central catheter inserted in the arm. All but which of the following catheters are used in the carotid arteries? Headhunter. Pigtail. Berenstein. Davis. Pigtail Different types of catheters are used for a variety of procedures. The Berenstein, Davis, and headhunter catheters are all used on the carotid arteries. the test the patient should prepare by notifying the doctor is they are pregnant and/or taking medications. They should not eat anything 4 hours prior to the test. The inner layer of kidney tissue is known as which of the following? Medulla. Cortex. Nephron. Corpuscle Medulla The inner layer of kidney tissue is called the medulla. Knowledge of anatomy and the position of organs and blood vessels is essential to radiographic professionalism. All but which of the following are common indications for renal angiography? Diffuse renal parenchymal disease. Hematuria of unresolved cause. Renovascular hypertension. Renal artery stenosis. Diffuse renal parenchymal disease Arteriography is a vital part of evaluating patients with suspected renovascular hypertension, renal artery stenosis, and acute arterial occlusion and for renal transplants as well. Other indications include hematuria of unresolved cause, trauma, renal arteriovenous malformation, and aneurysm. Arteriography generally has no place in evaluating diffuse renal parenchymal disease. A patient has claudication identified on an ankle brachial index. Which of the following test is indicated next? Stress testing Output phosphor Resolution Contrast Stress testing Stress testing is done if a patient shows claudication on an ankle brachial index. With the stress test, the patient walks on a treadmill at a 12-degree incline. The treadmill moves approximately 2 miles an hour. Blood pressure cuffs are positioned around the patient's ankles. Then, an ECG monitoring is used. The ankle pressure is evaluated in intervals of 30 seconds for four minutes. The patient usually walks up to five minutes in order for the symptoms to repeat. While the pressure stabilizes, the patient's pressure is measured each minute. Output phosphor, resolution and contrast are not examples of tests. Output phosphor has to do with the anode of the x-ray, which is the location the electrons pass. Resolution and contrast are one of the characteristics, along with distortion and quantum mottle, that impacts the quality of an image. All but which of the following are signs or symptoms of an air embolism in a PICC line? Chest pain. Confusion. Increased heart rate. Increased blood pressure. Increased blood pressure An air embolism occurs when an air bubble enters a PICC line. Signs and symptoms include decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate, confusion, light-headedness and chest pain. Urinary incontinence is likely to result from which of the following? Unilateral occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery. Occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery. Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery. Bilateral occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery Bilateral occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery Bilateral occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery is likely to cause incontinence. It may also cause poor judgement, ataxia, confusion, apathy, and mutism. Awareness of the different signs and symptoms that can result from vascular occlusions is key in both diagnoses and treatment Deep vein thrombosis is often diagnosed with a: Leg ascending venography A descending venography An upper extremity venography Venacavography Leg ascending venography A leg ascending venography is used to diagnose conditions such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), even more so, in patients where the physician suspects DVT but a duplex Doppler scan was negative for DVT or patients who underwent a nondiagnostic ultrasound. Further, a Leg ascending venography is used to assess an enclosed tumor and venous deformities. A descending venography is an x-ray that evaluates how well the deep vein is working. Then, an upper extremity venography evaluates the veins for blockage, lesions and thrombosis (neck of the veins). A venacavography is an assessment of the inferior vena cava. Bile aids in which of the following processes? Breakdown of protein. Emulsification of fats. Absorption of calcium. Excretion of iron. Emulsification of fat Bile aids in the emulsification of fat. This substance is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder The fingerlike protrusion from the cecum, once thought to be vestigal, is known as which of the following? Anal canal. Villi. Gallbladder. Villiform appendix. Villiform appendix The villiform appendix is a small, fingerlike protrusion from the cecum. It was once thought to be vestigal, but now is thought to be a harbor for beneficial bacteria. A condition which may result from vascular occlusion, in which a person loses half the field of vision in one or both eyes, is known as which of the following? Hemianopia. Hemiplegia. Ataxia. Cortical blindness Hemianopia Hemianopia is a condition in which a person loses half the field of vision in one or both eyes. Which of the following is not a risk of a thrombectomy? Lung collapse. Occlusion. Vessel puncture. Heart attack. Lung collapse A thrombectomy is used to remove a blood clot(s) from a vessel. It is a type of surgical procedure. The procedure restores proper circulation. The outcome is usually successful, but there are risks. They include: heart attack, vessel puncture, vessel tearing, occlusion, bleeding, infection, and swelling The path by which bile is secreted by the liver and travels to the duodenum is known as which of the following? Portal triad. Common hepatic duct. Hepatobiliary system. Biliary tract Biliary tract The biliary tract is the path by which bile is secreted by the liver and travels to the first part of the small intestine, known as the duodenum. Knowledge of anatomy and the position of organs and blood vessels is essential to radiographic professionalism Ureters carry urine from the kidneys and enter the bladder in what aspect? Anteriorly. Proximally. Distally. Posteriorly Posteriorly Ureters carry urine away from the kidneys and enter the bladder posteriorly. Knowledge of anatomy and the position of organs and blood vessels is essential to radiographic professionalism. Which of the following statements is true about medications when a blood clot has been found? A pulmonary angiogram can rarely be used to deliver medications. A pulmonary angiogram can never be used to deliver medications. A pulmonary angiogram can always be used to deliver medications. A pulmonary angiogram can be used to deliver medications if the patient is under 30 years of age. A pulmonary angiogram can rarely be used to deliver medications A pulmonary angiogram is used to check to see how well blood flows through the lungs. It is a type of imaging test. For a pulmonary angiogram, if a blood clot is found, it can rarely be used to deliver medications. Which of the following is a reason that a patient might need a thrombectomy? Dehydration. Polycythemia. Both dehydration and polycythemia. None of the above Both dehydration and polycythemia A thrombectomy is used to remove a blood clot(s) from a vessel. It is a type of surgical procedure. The procedure restores proper circulation. It is generally performed if there are signs of arterial thrombosis. If the patient is dehydrated or has polycythemia, their risk for thrombus increases. Which branch of the abdominal aortic artery arises anterolaterally just below the renal arches? Inferior mesenteric artery. Middle suprarenal arteries. Gonadal arteries. Inferior phrenic arteries Gonadal arteries The gonadal arteries arise from the abdominal aorta anterolaterally just below the renal arches. "Gonadal artery" is a generic term. In females, they are the ovarian arteries, and they are the testicular arteries in males. The right and left lobes of the liver are divided by which of the following? Inferior vena cava. Ligamentum teres. Glisson's capsule. Imaginary line drawn between the gallbladder and inferior vena cava. Imaginary line drawn between the gallbladder and inferior vena cava The division between right and left lobes corresponds to a line drawn between the gallbladder and inferior vena cava, rather than any surface features of the organ itself. The right lobe is composed of anterior and posterior segments, while the left lobe contains medial and lateral segments. All but which of the following is a component of the renal tubule? Proximal convoluted tubule. Bowman's capsule. Loop of Henle. Distal convoluted tubule All but which of the following is a component of the renal tubule? Proximal convoluted tubule. Bowman's capsule. Loop of Henle. Distal convoluted tubule Which of the following is the normal range for hemocrit in adult females? 54.8-67.2% 38.8-50% 22.4-36.5% 34.9-44.5%. 34.9-44.5% Hemocrit measures the percentage of red blood cells to whole blood volume. Normal ranges vary by age and sex. A normal range of hemocrit in adult females is 34.9-44.5%. Which of the following is the normal range of creatinine clearance? 20-64 mL/min. 80-104 mL/min. 80-134 mL/min. 95-132 mL/min 80-134 mL/min Hemiballismus is a condition in which a person involuntarily and violently swings one arm or leg. It is often a result of occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery. The leaking of caustic fluid into the tissues around an IV site is known as which of the following? Infiltration. Extravasion. Extroversion. Thrombosis. Extravasion Extravasion is a potential complication of IV medications. It is the leaking of caustic fluid from an IV into the surrounding tissues Which vessel transcends from the diaphragm, anterior to the vertebral column, by passing through the aortic hiatus on the left side of the body? Thoracic aorta. Bronchial arteries. The deep Palmar arch. Abdominal aorta. Abdominal aorta The abdominal aorta transcends from the diaphragm, anterior to the vertebral column, by passing through the aortic hiatus on the left side of the body. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer. Which branch of the abdominal aorta arises below or up to 2 cm distal to the celiac trunk? Inferior mesenteric artery. Middle adrenal arteries. Renal arteries. Superior mesenteric artery Superior mesenteric artery The superior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta below or up to 2 cm distal to the celiac trunk. It supplies blood to the small bowel, right colon, and middle colon. The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of which of the following? Common hepatic artery. Splenic artery. Left gastric artery. Right gastroepiplotic artery Common hepatic artery The gastoduodenal artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery. The ability to locate and identify the key blood vessels of the body is a vital skill for radiographic professionals, including those performing vascular interventions. Cramps in the legs which may indicate narrowing of the blood vessels are known as which of the following? Claudication. Stenosis. Thrombosis. Angiography Claudication Claudication is cramps in the legs, which may indicate narrowing of the blood vessels. Peripheral angiography is often used to locate the cause of claudication. The organ of the body that makes and stores insulin and glucagon, which works to maintain blood glucose levels, is known as which of the following? Gallbladder. Liver. Jejunum. Pancreas Pancreas The pancreas produces and stores insulin and glucagon. These help maintain blood glucose levels. The ability to locate and identify key structures, and their functions, is a vital skill for radiographic professionals. At what phase of vascular imaging production does the image undergo manipulation before it is archived? Image post processing Acquisition Reconstruction Pixel redefinition Image post processing After an image is acquired, the image can be changed/manipulated and transmitted or exported. This is all done before the image is stored or archived. Manipulating the image before archiving it prevents repeat exposures. The form of post-processing used is dependent on the digital image acquisition mode used. Which of the following would you instruct the patient to do before an IVU procedure occurs? Void before the procedure Perform self-compression exercises Eat a heavy meal before the procedure Drink large amounts of water before the procedure Void before the procedure An excretory urography is also known as an excretory urogram, intravenous urogram (IVU) or an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). However, the best term is excretory urogram as this procedure captures anatomical structures on an image beside the renal pelvis. An IVU is an x-ray procedure that shows the minor and major calyces and renal pelvis of the kidneys, the urinary bladder, and the ureter. Patient preparation for this procedure includes the technologist providing patient instructions, such as telling the patient to eat a light meal before the day of the IVU, do not drink or eat anything after midnight, and informing the patient to use a laxative to cleanse the bowels before the procedures. The morning of the procedure, the patient is given an enema. Further, with this procedure, because of the contrast media that is injected into the patient's vein to view the structures, the patient is instructed to void before procedure. By doing so, the patient prevents the bladder from filling up with too much urine, which could rupture the bladder if compression is performed. Also, voiding before the procedure gets rid of the urine in the bladder. Urine dilutes the contrast media in the bladder and can affect the visualization of the internal structures. Which of the following best identifies a contraindication of a percutaneous nephrostomy? 20-28 g/dL. 13-18 g/dL. 13-18 g/dL A hemoglobin or Hgb test measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Normal ranges vary by age and sex. A normal range of hemoglobin in adult males is 13-18 g/dL Which of the following is the normal range for a potassium test in adults? 3.5-5.2 mEq/L. 5.2-8.3 mEq/L. 1.2-3.6 mEq/L. 6.5-9.2 mEq/L 3.5-5.2 mEq/L A potassium test is performed to determine whether a patient's potassium level is within normal limits and to help evaluate an electrolyte imbalance as well monitor for several conditions. Normal potassium levels vary by age. The normal range for potassium in adults is 3.5-5.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the normal range for total protein on a liver panel? 6.3-7.9 g/dL. 3.5-5.0 g/dL. 1.3-5.9 g/dL. 12.3-15.7 g/dL. 6.3-7.9 g/dL A liver panel measures enzymes, proteins, and substances produced or excreted by the liver that are affected by liver injury or disease. The normal range for total protein on a liver panel is 6.3-7.9 g/dL. Which of the following is a normal range for hemoglobin in an adult male? 12-16 g/dL. 8-13 g/dL. 20-28 g/dL. 13-18 g/dL. 13-18 g/dL A hemoglobin or Hgb test measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Normal ranges vary by age and sex. A normal range of hemoglobin in adult males is 13-18 g/dL. Determine which is considered a mild reaction to iodine contrast media? Swelling of the face Most patients tolerate contrast media well. However, it is important to educate patients about potential reactions. Mild reactions to iodine contrast include swelling of the face and eyes, hives, pallor, chills, and shaking Which of the following is the normal range for serum creatinine levels for males? 0.9-1.3 mg/dL. 0.6-1.0 mg/dL. 0.6-1.3 mg/dL. 1.0-1.5 mg/dL. 0.9 mg/dL The normal range of serum creatinine (SCr) for males is 0.9-1.3 mg/dL. Knowledge of normal lab values is essential to radiographic professionalism. Which of the following is the normal range for hemocrit in adult males? 34.9-44.5% 25.3-36.4% 38.8-50%. 54.6-65.7%. Explanation: Correct Answer: 38.8-50% Hemocrit measures the percentage of red blood cells to whole blood volume. Normal ranges vary by age and sex. A normal range of hemocrit in adult males is 38.8-50%. A condition in which gallstones are present in the common bile duct is known as which of the following? Cholelithiasis. Ductiasis. Choledocholithiasis. Choleodochoitis Choledocholithiasis Choledocholithiasis is a condition in which gallstones are present in the common bile duct. Gallstones may form in the gallbladder and pass into this duct. Only rarely do the stones form within the duct itself. An infectious agent can damage a host through which of the following methods? Direct Causative Reactive Replicative direct An infectious disease can damage the cells of the body by direct or indirect means. With direct, the germs multiply in the body and the microbes' toxins or poisons are released, which destroys the cell. Indirectly, the infected microbe causes the cells of the host to change by modifying the host's metabolism. Then, the cells become inflamed, the body's immune response process tries to get rid of the infectious agent leading to further damage or destruction to the cells. The abdominal aorta bifurcates at which level? T12. L4. L1. T10. L4 The abdominal aorta bifurcates into the right and left common iliac arteries. This bifurcation occurs at the L4 level. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer. What type of health information is NOT restricted in regards to its release under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)? Psychiatric information HIV information Information associated with neglect Alcohol and drug abuse treatment information Information associated with neglect The anterior branches of the renal arteries supply which parts of the kidneys? Lower pole and anterior portion. hemispheres. The ability to locate and identify key blood vessels is a vital skill for radiographic professionals One of the four steps in analyzing an ethical dilemma is: Problem identification Autonomy Veracity Beneficence Problem identification A health care professional may need to analyze a situation when an ethical dilemma emerges. The process for analyzing an ethical situation involves: identification of the problem, creating alternative solutions for the problem, choosing the best solution and defending the choice made. It is important to think about all possible factors when trying to identify a problem. Sometimes people are in such a hurry to solve a problem, an individual may not spend time to find out what issue or part of the situation is really the cause of the problem. By not having the true cause of a problem, an individual may not end up with the right resolution The abdominal aorta bifurcates at which level? L4. T12. L5. T10. L4. The abdominal aorta transcends from the diaphragm, anterior to the vertebral column, by passing through the aortic hiatus on the left side of the body. It bifurcates at the L4 level. The braciocephalic artery supplies blood to all but which of the following? Right arm. Left arm. Head. Neck Left arm The braciocephalic artery supplies blood to the right arm, head, and neck. The left arm is supplied by the left subclavian artery. The bracocephalic artery also supplies the right subclavian and right common carotid arteries. A patient presents for a radiography. What should the technologist know in order to follow the patient's decisions regarding care? If the patient has a latent period If the patient has an advance directive If the patient has a period of incubation If the patient has a convalescent phase if the patient has an advance directive Some patients have an advance directive. An advance directive is legal documentation where the patient has specific instructions for his or her medical care or has designated an individual to make decisions on his or her behalf if the patient is unable to such as if the patient is incompetent or a minor, for instance. The advanced directive can also include specific instructions associated with Do not resuscitate or intubating the patient if the patient is unconscious or incompetent. Therefore, it is important for the technologist and other healthcare professionals to be aware if a patient has an advanced directive so the technologist can ensure the patient's wishes based on the advanced directive are followed. The liver and gallbladder are supplied by which of the following? Common hepatic artery. Colic artery. Renal artery. Posterior gastric artery. Common hepatic artery The liver and gallbladder are supplied by the common hepatic artery. This vessel also supplies the stomach, pancreas, and duodenum. It is a branch of the celiac trunk Which of the following is supplied by the braciocephalic artery? Right subclavian artery. Left subclavian artery. Left common carotid artery. Right internal carotid artery. Right subclavian artery The right subclavian artery is served by the braciocephalic artery. The braciocephalic artery also serves the right common carotid artery. Which of the following is a normal range for red blood cell count in adult females? 2.32-5.72 trillion cells/L 3.90-5.03 trillion cells/L. 1.90-3.03 trillion cells/L. 4.32-5.72 trillion cells/L. 3.90-5.03 trillion cells/L. Red blood cell count (RBC) is measured in common blood tests. Normal ranges vary by sex. A normal range of red blood cells in adult females is 3.90-5.03 trillion cells/L. Knowledge of normal lab values is essential to radiographic professionalism Which of the following is the normal range for hemocrit in adult females? 54.8-67.2% 38.8-50% 22.4-36.5% 34.9-44.5%. 34.9-44.5% Hemocrit measures the percentage of red blood cells to whole blood volume. Normal ranges vary by age and sex. A normal range of hemocrit in adult females is 34.9-44.5%. Which of the following is the normal range of creatinine clearance? 20-64 mL/min. 80-104 mL/min. 80-134 mL/min. 95-132 mL/min. 80-134 mL/min The normal range for creatinine clearance (ClCr) is 80-134 mL/min. Knowledge of normal lab values is essential to radiographic professionalism. Sigmoid artery. Superior rectal artery Left gastric artery The inferior mesenteric artery has four branches. These are the left colic artery, the sigmoid artery, the superior rectal artery, and the marginal artery After passing through the renal tubule, where does the filtrate continue to? Juxtaglomerular apparatus. Aorta. Collecting duct system. Inferior vena cava. Collecting duct system After passing through the renal tubule, the filtrate continues on the collecting duct system. This system is not part of the nephron. The peroneal artery is a major branch of which of the following vessels? Posterior tibial artery. Anterior tibial artery. Popliteal artery. Dorsalis pedis. Posterior tibial artery The peroneal artery is a major branch of the posterior tibial artery and supplies blood to the posterior and lateral compartments of the leg. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers A rare condition, often resulting from vascular occlusion, in which a person flings one arm or leg violently and involuntarily, is known as which of the following? Hemiplegia. Ataxia. Aphasia. Hemiballismus. Hemiballismus Hemiballismus is a condition in which a person involuntarily and violently swings one arm or leg. It is often a result of occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery. The superficial femoral artery becomes which of the following vessels? Perforating arteries. Popliteal artery. External circumflex arteries. Sural artery. Popliteal artery The popliteal artery is the extension of the superficial femoral artery after it passes through the adductor canal and hiatus above the knee. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer. Which vessel transcends from the diaphragm, anterior to the vertebral column, by passing through the aortic hiatus on the left side of the body? Thoracic aorta. Bronchial arteries. The deep Palmar arch. Abdominal aorta. The abdominal aorta transcends from the diaphragm, anterior to the vertebral column, by passing through the aortic hiatus on the left side of the body. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer. A PICC line sits in which of the following blood vessels? Cephalic vein. Aorta. Brachial artery. Femoral vein. Cephalic vein A PICC line sits in the cephalic vein. This vein pushes blood back to the heart. What is the average diameter for a ureteral stent? 4-5 cm. 2-3 cm. 6-12mm. 1.5-6mm. A ureteral stent is a tube that is thin and flexible. It is threaded into the ureter. It is used to help the kidneys drain urine to the bladder. The material, shape, and size is dependent on the patient's anatomy. Most stents are between 5 and 12 inches long. The diameter is between 1.5-6mm. Which branch of the abdominal aorta arises below or up to 2 cm distal to the celiac trunk? Inferior mesenteric artery. Middle adrenal arteries. Renal arteries. Superior mesenteric artery. Superior mesenteric artery The superior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta below or up to 2 cm distal to the celiac trunk. It supplies blood to the small bowel, right colon, and middle colon. The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of which of the following? Common hepatic artery. Splenic artery. Left gastric artery. Right gastroepiplotic artery. Common hepatic artery The gastoduodenal artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery. The ability to locate and identify the key blood vessels of the body is a vital skill for radiographic professionals, including those performing vascular interventions You review a patient's laboratory report. The values for the arterial blood gases (ABG) are listed. Which of the following is a component that is measured as part of this laboratory test? Oxygen saturation Helium saturation Diode saturation Water saturation Arterial blood gases (ABG) is a test that measures the amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood and identifies the acidity or pH of the blood. The following are elements measured in the ABG test: oxygen saturation (SaO2), partial pressure of In digital subtraction imaging if you add a small amount of the mask back into the subtracted image, but not enough to affect the image this is: image re-masking land marking road mapping temporal subtraction land marking Land marking is adding a small amount of the mask back into the subtracted image, but not enough to affect the image. This aids in allowing bony landmarks to be added back into the field of view as to better ascertain position in relation to the visualized contrast overlying the body anatomy. Selective catheters are thinner walled and are used for all of the following EXCEPT: to seek branches off the main vessel for high-pressure injections for lower volume injections for easier advancement into the branch vessel for high-pressure injections Selective catheters are not used for large-volume, high-pressure injections. Catheters for aortography are thick walled to handle large-volume, high-pressure injections, and are often curled at the tip, which keeps the tip of the catheter away from the vessel wall. For patients who have heparin-induced thrombocytopenia which of the following medications might be given? Plavix Diltiazem Angiomax magnesium sulfate Angiomax Angiomax is given (according to a weight-based dosage) to patient who have heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. It is the development of thrombocytopenia (a low platelet count) due to the administration of various forms of heparin. If fentanyl is used as a narcotic agent, you must be sure that MAOIs have not been used within how many days of the procedure? 14 10 5 2 14 Fentanyl should not be used within 14 days of a MAOI. MAOIs are monoamine oxidase inhibiters. You would also not use fentanyl for a patient with myasthenia gravis and pregnant patients. Informed consent is which of the following? Involuntary. Voluntary. Never necessary. Only needed for patients under 18 years old. Voluntary Informed consent occurs when a medical professional gives all necessary information for a patient to decide whether they should have the procedure performed or not. Informed consent includes gaining an understanding of both the benefits and risks of the procedure. Informed consent is given by patients. It is considered voluntary for a ventricular radiography The occurrence of death from a non-ionic contrast reaction is: 1: 40,000 1: 100,000 1: 130,000 1: 170,000 1: 170,000 The occurrence of death from a non-ionic contrast reaction is 1:170,000. For ionic contrast it is 1:40,000. Another name for a defecography is: Percutaneous Transhepatic Cholangiography Fistula Evacuative proctography T-tube cholangiography Evacuative proctography A defecography is also called an evacuative proctography. This is a radiographic x-ray study of the lower gastrointestinal tract and is a specialized study associated with evaluating bowel movement. With this x- ray, a high density barium-sulfate mixed with other substances such as potato starch is introduced into the body through an applicator that a place to insert a syringe and a rectal tube where the enema tip is placed. The enema tip is the device inserted into the rectum. The syringe is used to draw the material and inject it into the tube. A gastrointestinal fistula is defined as an opening where the stomach or intestinal content leaks out. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography is an x-ray demonstrating the presence of a blockage in the liver. Then, T-tube cholangiography is a test used to identify stones in the biliary ducts. Diazepam (Valium) is contraindicated for patients with: Fatigue Ataxia Drowsiness Untreated open-angle glaucoma Untreated open-angle glaucoma Diazepam (Valium) is an antianxiety medication. The drug's mode of action provokes the gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) activity on the brain receptors and works on the central nervous system as a depressant. As a result, the drug is prescribed as a sedative to a patient before a radiologic procedure, for sleep when a patient has insomnia, as a muscle relaxant, for anxiety management and seizures, to name a few indications. Cephalic vein. Superior vena cava. Basilic vein A PICC line is a form of intravenous access that can be used for a prolonged period of time to administer medications or fluids and to withdraw blood samples. The line is inserted into a peripheral vein in the patient's arm and then advanced to the superior vena cava. The preferred insertion site for a PICC line is the basilic vein, but the cephalic and brachial veins may also be used for an insertion site if the basilic vein cannot be used for some reason The medical record has many types of documentation. Which of the following is one form of documentation that is retained in a patient's medical record? A SOAP note SOAP stands for Subjective, Objective, Assessment and Plan. The SOAP note is a recording of the patient's encounter in a systematic way with logical sequential steps that records the details of a patient's hospital (inpatient) and outpatient (physician office encounters). Other forms of documentation retained in the patient's medical record are: • The patient's demographic information - ( i.e., patient's name, address, date of birth, telephone number) • Billing information - (i.e. copying the patient's insurance card and putting it in the medical record) • Problem list • A list of medication - (the medication list is a reference to the prescription medication and over the counter medication the patient is taking. The medication list can help facilities and health care professionals to identify any drug to drug interactions or patient's allergies to medication or foods). • Flow sheet • Noncompliance note • Laboratory results • Diagnostic studies results • Provider communication • Advance directives • Telephone calls and emails associated with the patient's care Which of the following is only performed as a post processing function during digital subtraction angiography? Windowing Zoom Annotation Pixel shifting Pixel shifting Post processing during digital subtraction angiography involves pixel shifting, remasking, view tracing and edge enhancement. The remaining answer choices, windowing, zoom, annotation, along with analytic functions, are not limited to the digital subtraction angiography post processing functions. These functions can happen with any form of digital imaging. Which of the following are branches of the ascending aorta? Coronary arteries. Common carotid arteries. Internal carotid arteries. External carotid arteries. Coronary arteries The left and right coronary arteries are branches of the ascending aorta. They supply the myocardium Which of the following supplies blood to the brain and eyes? Basilar artery. Internal carotid artery. Vertebral artery. External carotid artery. Internal carotid artery The internal carotid artery supplies blood to the brain, eyes, and some internal parts of the head. Knowledge of the vessels of the body part being imaged or treated is key for radiographic professionals Which of the following connects the posterior cerebral artery with the middle cerebral artery? Anterior communicating artery. Anterior cerebral artery. Internal carotid artery. Posterior communicating artery Posterior communicating artery The posterior communicating artery connects the posterior cerebral artery and the middle cerebral artery. This connection forms part of the Circle of Willis. A condition, often related to vascular occlusion, in which a person has weakness on one side of his or her body, is known as which of the following? Hemiparesis. Hemiplegia. Hemiballismus. Ataxia. Hemiparesis Hemiparesis is a condition in which the person experiences weakness on one side of the body. It is associated with occlusion of the middle cerebral artery. Where should the catheter be positioned when studying the brachial vessels? Tip just past vertebral origin. Tip in midaxillary. Tip proximal to bifurcation. Tip in distal brachial. Tip in midaxillary When studying the brachial vessels, the tip of the catheter should be positioned in the midaxillary. A H1H, Berenstein, and Simmons 1 or 2 catheters are appropriate for these procedures Which of the following is true about ureteral stents? The material, shape, and size is one standard size. The material, shape, and size is dependent on the patient's anatomy. The older the patient the harder the stent is. The younger the patient the harder the stent is. The material, shape, and size is dependent on the patient's anatomy A ureteral stent is a tube that is thin and flexible. It is threaded into the ureter. It is used to help the kidneys drain urine to the bladder. The material, shape, and size is dependent on the patient's anatomy. Most stents are between 5 and 12 inches long. In terms of out-of-hospital penetrating injuries to the abdominal aorta, which of the following statements is least accurate? Only 15% of patients are thought to survive long enough to undergo emergency surgery. Most patients die immediately of exsanguination. When this damage occurs, the blood may not flow properly out of the vessel and through connecting vessels. This can cause bleeding problems in other locations of the body, such as the heart, lungs and the brain. Which of the following statements about the inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is least accurate The IMA arises from the left side of the anterior distal abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebral body. The IMA is much smaller than the SMA in diameter. The first branch of the IMA is the superior hemorrhoidal artery to the superior rectum. The IMA has a sharply caudal course through the sigmoid mesentery. Correct Answer: The first branch of the IMA is the superior hemorrhoidal artery to the superior rectum. The first branch of the IMA is the left colic artery, from which a large branch ascends through the mesentery to meet the left branch of the middle colic artery at the splenic flexure. The terminal branch of the IMA is the superior hemorrhoidal artery to the superior rectum. Embolization of lower digestive tract bleeding generally achieves an outcome on average 95% hemostasis 75% hemostasis 60% hemostasis 50% hemostasis 95% hemostasis Embolization of lower digestive tract bleeding generally achieves an outcome on average of 95% hemostasis. The main problem is early rebleeding, which affects some patients, whereas major ischemic complications occur in only 2% of cases In the lyse-and-wait technique for dialysis access declot, how long would you wait after injection urokinase as the thrombolytic agent? 10 - 15 minutes 15 - 30 minutes 15 - 45 minutes 30 - 60 minutes Correct Answer: 30 - 60 minutes For the lyse-and-wait technique in dialysis access declot you should wait 30 - 60 minutes after injection of urokinase as the thrombolytic agent. This agent is injected slowly. Symptomatic extrinsic compression of the neurovascular structures of the upper extremity as they exit the bony thorax is termed: thoracic dissection syndrome vasculitis of the thoracic aorta thoracic outlet syndrome thoracic outlet syndrome Thoracic outlet syndrome is a symptomatic extrinsic compression of the neurovascular structures of the upper extremity as they exit the bony thorax. It is unusual, comprising roughly 1% of cases. The usual patient with this syndrome is a young, athletic male. Which of the following is the result of unroofing of an atherosclerotic aortic intimal plaque? traumatic transection intramural hematoma penetrating aortic ulcer vasculitis penetrating aortic ulcer Penetrating aortic ulcers (PAUs) are the result of unroofing of an atherosclerotic aortic intimal plaque,. This results in a focal partial or full thickness defect in the aortic wall. About 6-10% of patients with suspected acute aortic dissection are found to have PAU. Pancreatic neoplasms are almost always diagnosed and staged by which of the following? CT ultrasound MRI all of the above all of the above Pancreatic neoplasms are almost always diagnosed and staged by all of the first three choices. Resectability is predicted from CT in almost all cases. The most common lesions are adenocarcinomas, although a variety of other primary and metastatic lesions can involve the pancreas. There has been an explosion in the number of prostate biopsies performed as a result of which of the following? increased life expectancy in males cutting edge detection techniques introduction of PSA test environmental consequences introduction of PSA test There has been an explosion in the number of prostate biopsies performed as a result of the introduction of the PSA (prostate-specific antigen) test in the late 1980s. Whereas a level of up to 4 ng/mL is considered within normal limits, a level greater than 4 ng/mL does not specifically imply cancer. The PSA level rises with benign prostatic hyperplasia as well Documented objective information is: Observable Told in the patient's own words Information retrieved from the patient's family A patient's opinion Correct Answer: Observable Subjective and objective information is often recorded in a Subjective, Objective, Assessment and Plan (SOAP) note and a history and physical examination.