Surgical Instruments and Procedures in Various Medical Procedures, Exams of Nursing

Download Surgical Instruments and Procedures in Various Medical Procedures and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Association of Surgical Technologist Practice Exam #4. B What is used to retract the spermatic cord during an inguinal herniorraphy? A. Skin hook B. Penrose drain C. Vessel loops D. Umbilical tapes B Why is an indwelling Foley catheter placed prior to a hysterectomy? A. Record fluid intake B. Avoid injury to bladder C. Distend bladder D. Demonstrate ureteral patency Brainpower Read More D Which of the following scissors is the best choice for extending an arterial incision? A. Metzenbaum B. Jorgenson C. Iris D. Potts-Smith A Which of the following is used to stain the cervix for a Schiller's test? A. Lugol's solution B. Indigo carmine C. Methylene blue D. Acetic acid A Which of the following arises from the left ventricle of the heart? A. Ascending aorta B. Pulmonary vein C. Descending aorta D. Pulmonary artery C What method is used to confirm that items have been exposed to the sterilization process, but sterility is not guaranteed? A. Mechanical B. Biological C. Chemical D. Bowie-Dick C Why would the hair of a patient undergoing craniotomy be bagged, labeled, and saved? A. To donate to cancer patients B. In case of need for future genetic testing C. It is patient property D. Prevent post-op surgical site infection A When preparing a double basin for sterilization, the: A. Basins should be separated by a porous, absorbent towel B. Sponges should be placed in the top basin C. Wrapped package should be laid flat on the shelf of the sterilizing chart D. Bottom basin should contain a residual of distilled water A Which structure, during a total hip arthroplasty, requires intramedullary reaming prior to placement of prosthesis? A. Femoral canal B. Tibial plateau C. Acetabular fossa D. Greater trochanter C Which of the following is the least restrictive form of credentialing? A. Certification B. Licensure C. Registration D. Accreditation B What drug classification is Demerol? A. Dilator B. Analgesic C. Sedative D. Vasoconstrictor A What should be transported to the PACU with a patient who underwent a thyroidectomy? A. Tracheotomy tray C. CSF D. RBC A Where should the grounding pad be placed on a patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has a right hip prosthesis? A. Left anterior thigh B. Right posterior thigh C. Lower back D. Upper abdomen B The instrument below is used during a: A. Tuboplasty B. Vaginal hysterectomy C. Laparoscopy D. Simple vulvectomy B The Trendelenburg position is often used for surgery on the: A. Head and neck B. Lower abdomen and pelvis C. Lower back and hips D. Knee or thigh C The large artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm is the: A. Brachiocephalic B. Coronary C. Subclavian D. Axillary C Lesions in which part of the brain may affect balance and coordination? A. Limbic system B. Cerebral cortex C. Cerebellum D. Medulla B Which of the following utilizes the process of cavitation? A. Washer-sterilizer B. Ultrasonic cleaner C. Washer-decontaminator D. Steam sterilizer C Which of the following is the name for a dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius? A. Smith's B. Pott's C. Colles' D. Bennett's D During which procedure would the instrument shown below be used? A. Pancreatectomy B. Gastrectomy C. Splenectomy D. Cholecystectomy A Which ligament is transected during surgery for De Quervain's disease? A. Dorsal carpal B. Adductor pollicis C. Transverse carpal D. Extensor retinaculum B In order to minimize mucosal irritation during urinary catheterization, the tip of the catheter is dipped in which of the following? A. Vaseline B. K-Y jelly C. Chlorhexidine D. Sterile saline A How often is a medication prescribed as QID to be taken per day? A. 4 times B. 2 times C. 3 times D. 1 time D What type of external dressing would be used to eliminate dead space? A. Immobilizing B. Bulky C. Packing D. Pressure C In the prone position, patients are placed on chest rolls to prevent: A. Decubitis ulcers B. Lumbar strain C. Compromised ventilation D. Foot drop D Which of the following positions would be used for an LAVH? A. Lateral B. Prone C. Sitting D. Lithotomy B A left subcostal incision would be used to expose the: A. Descending colon B. Spleen C. Ovary D. Gallbladder B Intraoperatively, lidocaine with epinephrine may be contraindicated in patients who are: A. Immunocompromised B. Hypertensive C. Dehydrated D. Diabetic B What approach is used for the removal of a small acoustic neuroma this is located in the internal auditory canal? A. Suboccipital B. Middle fossa C. Translabyrinthine D. Posterior fossa C A. Cottonball B. Sponge stick C. Non-dominant hand D. Dominant hand A Which of the following is the second phase of wound healing? A. Proliferation B. Maturation C. Contraction D. Lag D What muscle is commonly used TRAM reconstruction in a mammoplasty? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Transverse abdominis C. Internal oblique D. Rectus abdominis D The patient is never positioned until the: A. Surgical technologist is scrubbed B. Surgeon gives permission C. Circulator has finished all preparatory duties D. Anesthesia provider gives permission C What term refers to cell "drinking"? A. Osmosis B. Phagocytosis C. Pinocytosis D. Filtration A What does hypertension mean? A. High blood pressure B. Normal blood pressure C. No blood pressure D. Low blood pressure C Which type of fire extinguisher should be available when using a laser? A. Water B. Carbon dioxide C. Halon D. Dry chemical B What is the major side effect of thrombolytics? A. Infection B. Hemorrhage C. Nausea D. Clotting C If a sterile glove becomes contaminated during a procedure, what action should the surgical technologist take? A. Surgical technologist pulls off glove covering hand with gown cuff; regloves using closed technique B. Circulator pulls of glove covering hand with gown cuff surgical technologist regloves using closed technique C. Circulator pulls off glove; surgical technologist is regloved by another sterile team member D. Surgical technologist pulls off glove regloves using open technique A What type of suture technique is used to invert the stump of the appendix during an appendectomy? A. Purse-string B. Continuous C. Horizontal D. Interrupted D Which of the following is the proper procedure for removing a laparotomy drape? A. Circulator holds dressing in place and removes drape B. ST holds dressing in place; rolls drape one side to other C. Circulator holds dressing in place; ST rolls drape head to feet D. Surgical technologist (ST) holds dressing in place; rolls drape head to feet A Gerota's fascia is located: A. Around the kidney B. Within the kidney C. Within the bladder D. Around the bladder C What activity can aggravate the symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia? A. Typing B. Walking C. Chewing D. Sitting C What is the purpose of maintaining 23% to 60% relative humidity in the OR? A. Eliminate microbial count B. Provide comfortable environment C. Decreases static electricity D. Reduce room temperature A What surgical instrument is used to thread the drilled hole for the screw during ORIF? A. Tap B. Depth gauge C. Osteotome D. Drill bit A Which of the following pathology would be treated by transphenoidal hypophysectomy procedure? A. Pituitary neoplasm B. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Carotid stenosis D. Communicating hydrocephalus D The muscles that cause strabismus are the: A. Orbicularis Oculi B. Ciliary C. Tarsal plates D. Extrinsic C What is the minimum required number of people to transfer a patient from the OR table to the stretcher? A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3 C In large abdominal wounds that require frequent dressing changes, which of the following will minimize the skin breakdown? A. Steri-Strips B. Petrolatum gauze C. Liquid collodion D. Montgomery straps C Which of the following positioning devices would be used for a LAVH? A. Padded footboard B. Mayfield headrest C. Allen stirrups D. Kidney brace D The term mentoplasty refers to surgery of the: A. Lip B. Eyelid C. Palate D. Chin D Which of the following situations could cause a patient's signature on a surgical informed consent to be challenged in court? A. Patient is of legal age B. Patient advised of alternative treatments C. Patient is emancipated minor D. Patient received preoperative medications B What is the importance of humidity when using EtO sterilization? A. Remove chlorofluorocarbons B. Hydrate spores and bacteria C. Reduce flammability of gas D. Prevent instruments from drying B What is the purpose of polymethyl methacrylate during a cranioplasty? A. Reducing vascular spasm B. Filling cranial defects C. Adhesive skin closure D. Subarachnoid space dye D The appropriate location when placing the grounding pad is over a: A. Keloid scar B. Bony prominence C. Metal prosthesis D. Fleshy area C Which catheter is used for an angioplasty? A. Gruntzig B. Robinson C. Fogarty D. Swan-Ganz B A hernia that presents through Hesselbach's triangle is a/an: A. Pantaloon B. Direct C. Hypogastric D. Indirect A The medial malleolus is part of which bone? A. Tibia B. Talus C. Calcaneous D. Fibula B What is performed prior to implantation of a Dacron knit polyester graft? A. Soak in thrombin B. Preclotting C. Heparinization D. Immerse in antibiotics C Which structure articulates with the head of the femur? A. Ilium B. Pubis C. Acetabulum D. Ischium D An abnormal bending backward of the uterus is called: A. Cephalic version B. Anteversion C. Retroperitoneal D. Retroflexion A What type of clip is a Raney? A. Scalp B. Nerve C. Aneurysm D. Vessel D The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye? A. Lens B. Fibrous C. Nervous D. Vascular C Which of these drugs is a miotic? A. Tropicamide B. Atropine C. Pilocarpine D. Phenylephrine D Which of the following is a violation of Standard Precautions during postoperative case management? A. Sterile gloves removed one layer at a time B. Linen items not thrown into hamper C. use of bags with biohazard symbol D. Retrieve reusable trocar from sharps container C Which type of monitoring equipment is a noninvasive assessment of oxygen saturation of arterial blood? A. Electrocardiogram B. Bispectral index C. Pulse oximetry D. capnography