Surgical Procedures and Medical Supplies: A Quiz, Exams of Nursing

Download Surgical Procedures and Medical Supplies: A Quiz and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 AST Certification Exam Questions and Answers 2024 What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the dermatome? A. Bacitracin ointment B. Iodophor solution C. Petrolatum gel D. Mineral oil - D. Mineral oil Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique when performing the prep for a split thickness skin graft? A. Donor site first B. Recipient site first C. Donor site only D. Recipient site only - A. Donor site first What is the recommend range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using an insufflator during a laparoscopic procedure? A. 8-11 mm Hg B. 12-15 mm Hg C. 16-19 mm Hg D. 20-23 mm Hg - B. 12-15 mm Hg Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object? A. Strabismus B. Chalazion C. Glaucoma D. Cataract - A. Strabismus Which procedure is performed to correct chronic cerebral ischemia? A. Rhizotomy B. Cranioplasty C. Arteriography D. Endarterectomy - D. Endarterectomy According to the rule of nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk? A. 27% B. 18% C. 4 1/2% D. 1% - B. 18% Which term refers to abnormal increase inn the number of cells? A. Atrophy B. Dysplasia C. Hyperplasia D. Hypertrophy - C. Hyperplasia A second intention wound heals by: 2 A. Granulation B. Evisceration C. Primary union D. Delayed suturing - A. Granulation Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with: A. Lidocaine B. Digitoxin C. Prostigmin D. Furosemide - A. Lidocaine (Lidocaine hydrochloride, trade name Xylocaine ,is used as an emergency medication during surgery to treat cardiac arrest or ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. In which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia? A. Left lateral B. Right lateral C. Trendelenburg D. Reverse Trendelenburg - C. Trendelenburg (Hypovolemia is low blood volume, patient's are placed in Trendelenburg to increase blood flow to the upper body) Which of the following type of suture create the least tissue trauma and drag? A. Swaged multifilament B. Swaged monofilament C. Threaded multifilament D. Threaded monofilament - B. Swaged monofilament (monofilament suture Swaged on a needle is best for minimizing tissue trauma and drag) Which organization has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place? A. EPA B. CDC C. OSHA D. NIOSH - C. OSHA ( Occupational Safety and Health Administration) Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most applicable to the surgical patient? A. Esteem and prestige B. Love and belonging C. Safety and secure D. Physiological and survival - D. Physiological and survival (the most applicable to the surgical patient) Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves? A. Circulator unties gown B. Gown removed inside out C. Gloves removed inside out 5 Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection? A. Topical thrombin B. Oxidized cellulose C. Absorbable gelatin D. Absorbable collagen - D. Absorbable collagen Which of the following must be tested prior to the use of fiber optic bronchoscope? A. Light source B. Laser fiber C. Nitrogen level D. Magnification lens - A. Light source Excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct: A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Coarctation of the aorta C. Aortic aneurysm D. Transposition of the great vessels - B. Coarctation of the aorta For which of the following diagnosis would a patient undergo endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography? A. Cholecystitis B. Choledocholithiasis C. Pancreatitis D. Pancreatolithiasis - B. Choledocholithiasis (ERCP is performed to visualize the biliary and pancreatic tract so the patient would have the diagnosis of choledocholithiasis) The high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a/an: A. Spermatocelectomy B. Varicocelectomy C. Epididmectomy D. Vasovasostomy - B. Varicocelectomy (high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes done to reduce venous plexus congestion is a Varicocelectomy) Trauma to which two of the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision? A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. II and IV - A. I and II Which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy? A. Culdocentesis 6 B. Colposcopy C. Culdotomy D. Colporrhapy - A. Culdocentesis Which of the following is performed for treatment of glaucoma? A. Vitrectomy B. Iridectomy C. Enucleation D. Keratoplasty - B. Iridectomy What procedure is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture? A. Arch bar application B. TMJ osteotomy C. LeFort I D. LeFort II - A. Arch bar application Which of the following total arthroplasty procedure would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint? A. Hip B. Knee C. Ankle D. Shoulder - A. Hip Untreated acute otitis media may result in: A. Tonsillitis B. Mastoiditis C. Adenoiditis D. Ethmoiditis - B. Mastoiditis Which of the following is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency? A. Positron emission tomography B. Magnetic resonance imaging C. Computed tomography D. Doppler ultrasound - D. Doppler ultrasound Which of the following is the body's primary source of energy? A. Carbohydrates B. Vitamins C. Proteins D. Fats - A. Carbohydrates What is compressed during rapid sequence induction and intubation? A. Hyoid B. Manubrium C. Thyroid gland D. Cricoid cartilage - D. Cricoid cartilage 7 What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to the other parts of the body? A. In situ B. In-vivo C. Metastasis D. Encapsulation - C. Metastasis The shared passageway for food and air is the: A. Trachea B. Larynx C. Pharynx D. Bronchus - C. Pharynx The structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the: A. Prostate B. Epididymis C. Tunica vaginalis D. Ejaculatory duct - B. Epididymis The value between the left atrium and the ventricle is the: A. Bicuspid B. Tricuspid C. Aortic semilunar D. Pulmonary semilunar - A. Bicuspid Which characteristic describes an amphiarthrosis? A. Hinge B. Immobile C. Slightly movable D. Freely movable - C. Slightly movable What is the most abundant ion in the body? A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Magnesium - A. Calcium Which of the following is a method of bacterial survival when environmental conditions are not conducive to growth and viability? A. Conjugation B. Transduction C. Spore formation D. Genetic mutation - C. Spore formation What organ detects changes in the level of insulin and releases chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose? 10 C. Ho:YAG D. Carbon dioxide - d. carbon dioxide In which structure of the heart are the leads for a permanent pacemaker paced? A. Right ventricle B. Left ventricle C. Septum D. Aorta - A. Right ventricle (endocardia electrode is placed in right ventricle or atrium) For which of the following diagnoses would a patient require pancreaticojejunostomy? A. Gastroschisis B. Morbid obesity C. Neonatal jaundice D. Alcoholic pancreatitis - D. Alcoholic pancreatitis In which procedure would a book Walter retractor be used? A. Cystectomy B. Nephrectomy C. Retropubic prostatectomy D. Transurethral prostatectomy - C. Retropubic prostatectomy Which cranial nerve is severed as a last resort treatment of Ménière's disease? A. VII B. VIII C. IX D. X - B. VIII Brachytherapy is performed to treat: A. Uterine prolapse B. Endometriosis C. Cervical cancer D. Menorrhagia - C. Cervical cancer. The facial fracture that involves the complete separation of the maxilla from the cranial base is a/an: A. Orbital floor B. Zygomatic C. LeFort I D. Frontal sinus - C. LeFort I Where is the incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure made? A. Canine fossa B. Frontal sinus C. Eyebrow D. Tear duct - A. Caine fossa 11 What is the name of this retractor ? A. Charnley B. Bennett C. Harrington D. Richardson - B. Bennett The device used for real time intraoperative assessment of blood flow is a/an: A. Caliper B. Doppler C. Pacemaker D. Manometer - B. Doppler A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food is: A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Metabolism D. Commensalism - B. Catabolism Which structure of the ear is responsible for equilibrium? A. Semicircular B. Cranial nerve V C. Labyrinth D. Cochlea - A. Semicircular The first step of urine production when fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called: A. Tubular section B. Tubular reabsorption C. Glomerular filtration D. Glomerular absorption - C. Glomerular filtration The adipose tissue overlying the symphysis is the : A. Labia Majora B. Mons pubis C. Perineum D. Vestibule - B. mons pubis The cranial nerve that regulates secretions of gastric juice: A. III B. V C. VII D. X - D. X Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of which line of defense? A. First B. Second 12 C. Third D. Fourth - B. Second Which of the following is the least inert of the synthetic meshes? A. PTFE B. Polypropylene C. Polyester fiber D. Polyglactin 910 - c. Polyester fiber When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first corner: A. Away from self B. Toward self C. To the right D. To the left - A. Away from self What radiopaque contrast medium is used intraoperatively when the patient is allergic to iodine? A. Isovue B. Renografin C. Methylene blue D. Indigo carmine - B. Renografin Which of the following legal terms would apply to a case when a non English speaking patient signs a surgical consent in English, but does not fully understand it? A. Assault and battery B. Res ipsa loquitur C. Respondeat superior D. Negligence - A. assault and battery When breaking down the sterile field, the surgical technologist should place the grossly contaminated instruments in which of the following? A. Biohazard bag B. Mesh bottomed flash pan C. Basin with sterile saline D. Basin with sterile water - D. Basin with sterile water How many minutes are unwrapped instruments with no lumen sterilized at 270 degrees F? A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12 - A. 3 Which of the following must be in the chart prior to he patient being taken to the OR per The Joint Commission? A. Incident report 15 Which of the following procedures is performed for cervical incompetence? A. Culdocentesis B. Colporrhaphy C. Wertheim D. Shirodkar - D. Shirodkar (prevents spontaneous abortion is called shirodkar procedure) What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove tissue during a TURP? A. Otis urethrotome B. Van Buren sounds C. Resectoscope D. Ureteroscope - C. resectoscope Which of the following facilities exposure for thyroidectomy? A. Interscapular pillow B. Lateral rotation C. Mayfield headholder D. Reverse Trendelenburg - A. Interscapular pillow Which of the following needles would be used for liver biopsy? A. Stamey B. Verres C. Tru-cut D. Interstitial - C. Tru-cut Why is cardioplegia used? A. Inhibit blood vessel spasm B. Cause diastolic arrest C. Increases force of contraction D. Correct acidosis - B. Cause diastolic arrest what is the risk if a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time? A. Tissue necrosis B. Hematoma formation C. Hypotension D. Tetany - A. Tissue necrosis What type of specialty equipment uses liquid nitrogen and is often utilized to repair retinal detachments? A. Nezhat B. CUSA C. Nerve stimulator D. Cryotherapy unit - D. Cryotherapy unit What is done to the umbilicus during the abdominal skin prep? 16 A. Dabbed with first foam sponge only B. Not prepped to prevent contamination C. Prepped separately with cotton applicators D. Filled with prep solution and left pooled - c. Prepped separately with cotton applicators An axillary role is placed for lateral positioning to: A. Aid venous return B. Facilitate respiration C. Create good body alignment D. Allow access to incision site - B. Facilitate respiration Which nerve could be damaged by improperly padded stirrups? A. Tibial B. Sciatic C. Gluteal D. Peroneal - D. Peroneal Frozen sections are sent to pathology: A. Immediately without preservative B. Immediately with preservative C. End of case with preservative D. End of case without preservative - A. Immediately without preservative Which of the following procedures would be performed with the patient in the lateral position? A. Suprapubic prostatectomy B. Vaginal hysterectomy C. Nephrectomy D. Tonsillectomy - C. Nephrectomy Which heat-resistant, spore-forming Bacillus does the steam sterilization biological indicator contain? A. S. Aureus B. B. Tetani C. E. Coli D. G. Stearothermophilus - D. G. stearothermophilus The process by which blood cells are formed is known as: A. Erythropoiesis B. Hemopoiesis C. Diapedesis D. Leukocytosis - B. Hemopoiesis The pacemaker of the heart is/are the : A. SA node 17 B. AV node C. Purkinje fibers D. Bundle of His - A. SA node Thought processes take place in the: A. Midbrain B. Cerebellum C. Cerebral cortex D. Foramen magnum - C. cerebral cortex Kantrex, bacitracin or Ancef mixed with saline for irrigation would do which of the following? A. Minimize vasospasm B. Prevent clot formation C. Reduce adhesions formation D. Inhibit surgical site infection - D. Inhibit surgical site infection Which of the following sterilizers operates with condition, exposure, exhaust and dry cycles? A. Gravity air displacement B. Prevacuum steam C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Activated glutaraldehyde - A. Gravity air displacement Preoperative bladder drainage prior to a D & C would be performed with which of the following catheters? A. 16 Fr. Foley B. 14 Fr. Robinson C. 10 Fr Pezzer D. 8 Fr Malecot - B. 14 Fr. Robinson In the OR, HEPA is a type of: A. Air filter B. Laminar flow C. Suction device D. Gas outlet - A. air filter What precaution is utilized to prevent cardiovascular complications when positioning an anesthetized patient? A. Maintain neutral alignment B. Pad bony prominences C. Move patient slowly D. Uncross legs or ankles - C. Move patient slowly Why is the orientation of the vein graft reversed during a CABG? A. Thickness of tunica intima 20 In what position would a patient be placed following a tonsillectomy? A. Sitting B. Lateral C. Trendelenburg D. Reverse Trendelenburg - B. Lateral What classification of drug reduces tissue inflammation? A. Steroids B. Antibiotics C. Antiemetics D. Sulfonamides - A. steroids What is the result of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic? A. Prevent clotting B. Inhibit infection C. Decrease heart rate D. Prolong anesthetic effect - D. Prolong anesthetic effect Which of the following is not a type of sterilizing agent? A. Cobalt 60 B. Boiling water C. Steam under pressure D. Activated glutaraldehyde - B. Boiling water A diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is known as a: A. Needle biopsy B. TURP C. KUB D. Cystostomy - A. Needle biopsy How many hours is the steam biological indicator incubated? A. 4 B. 6 C. 12 D.24 - D. 24 What agent is used to flush the harvested saphenous vein during a CABG? A. Thrombin B. Bacitracin C. Heparinized saline D. Potassium chloride - C. Heparinized saline In which of the following cases might a surgeon use a gigli saw? A. Craniotomy 21 B. Corpectomy C. Cranioplasty D. Cordotomy - A. Craniotomy Polymethyl methacrylate would most likely be used on which of the following procedures? A. Intramedullary nailing B. Total knee arthroplasty C. Triple arthrodesis D. Percutaneous pinning - B. Total knee arthroplasty Which of the following items should not be sterilized by dry heat? A. Oil B. Powder C. Linen packs D. Petroleum gauze - C. Linen packs (dry heat is a type of sterilization process used for sterilizing oils, powders and petroleum gauze that will be used in surgery) What is a Verres needle used for during a laparoscopy? A. Instill CO2 B. Aspirate fluid C. Collect a specimen D. Assist in Trocar site closure - A. Instill CO2 Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens? A. Diathermy B. Cryotherapy C. Irrigation/ aspiration D. Phacoemulsification - D. Phacoemulsification In which of the following procedures would fine hooks of various angles be used? A. Myringotomy B. Tonsillectomy C. Stapedectomy D. Tympanotomy - C. Stapedectomy Which incisional approach would be used for a splenectomy? A. Pfannenstiel B. Right subcostal C. Left subcostal D. Supraumbilical - C. Left subcostal During a strabismus correction, resection has a greater effect on which muscle? A. Superior rectus B. Inferior rectus C. Medial rectus 22 D. Lateral rectus - D. lateral rectus What is the best site for obtaining cortical bone graft? A. Iliac crest B. Ischial spine C. Femoral head D. Symphysis pubis - A. iliac crest Which of the following is a non-electrolytic and isotonic solution used during a TURP? A. Saline B. Distilled water C. Glycine D. Ringer's lactate - C. Glycine The structure that allows the eardrum to vibrate freely and connects the middle ear and the oropharynx is the : A. External auditory canal B. Eustachian tube C. Semicircular canal D. Internal auditory meatus - B. Eustachian tube Which of the following procedures may require use of a monometer to check CSF pressure? A. Transphenoidal hypophysectomy B. Intracranial aneurysm clipping C. Posterior fossa decompression D. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt - D. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt