BIG NBDHE BOARDS REVIEW 2023 634 QUESTIONS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS 2024/2025, Exams of Nursing

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BIG NBDHE BOARDS REVIEW 2023| 634 QUESTIONS| WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS medical emergency: - sudden transient loss of conciousness - stress Correct Answer: syncope medical emergency: sudden drop in systolic blood pressure caused by change in body position Correct Answer: orthostatic hypotension medical emergency: reversible, chronic inflammatory disease of airway Correct Answer: asthma medical emergency: irreversible destruction of alveoli (smoking) Correct Answer: emphysema medical emergency: rapid breathing, usually stress Correct Answer: hyperventilation medical emergency: - transient ischemia of myocardium - occurs because heart requires more o2 than amount produced - exertion or acute stress Correct Answer: angina pectoris medical emergency: - interrupted supply of oxygenated blood to heart - causes death of part of the heart muscle - leads to heart function impairment, diminished CO Correct Answer: myocardial infarction medical emergency: heart is unable to pump an adequate amount of blood to meet the body's demand Correct Answer: congestive heart failure medical emergency: reaction to drugs, pollen, food, chemicals Correct Answer: allergic reaction medical emergency: when supply of o2 to the brain cell is disrupted; ischemia, infarction, hemorrhage Correct Answer: cardiovascular accident medical emergency: result of changes in brain function Correct Answer: - generalized tonic-clonic seizure - nonconvulsive absence seizure - complex partial seizure medical emergency: - low blood sugar level - under 50 mg/dL - can lead to insulin shock Correct Answer: hypoglycemia medical emergency: - high blood glucose levels - over 250 mg/dL - usually missed insulin Correct Answer: hyperglycemia medical emergency: when adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol for the body to respond to stressful situation (physical or psychological) Correct Answer: adrenal crisis signs and symptoms of syncope Correct Answer: - sweating - clammy - pallor vitals during syncope emergency Correct Answer: - bp decreases - hr increases then decreases treatment of syncope Correct Answer: - check responsiveness - give o2 - supine position - vitals - aromatic ammonia signs and symptoms of orthostatic hypotension Correct Answer: - lightheadedness, blurred or darkened vision, nausea vitals during orthostatic hypotension emergency Correct Answer: - bp decreases - hr increases treatment for orthostatic hypotension Correct Answer: - check for responsiveness - give o2 - supine position - vitals - raise pt up slowly and provide assistance signs and symptoms of asthma Correct Answer: - dyspnea (difficulty breathing) - wheezing, coughing vitals during asthma emergency Correct Answer: bp, hr, and respiratory rate increase treatment for asthma Correct Answer: - upright position signs and symptoms of adrenal crisis Correct Answer: - weakness - fatigue - abdominal, lower back and leg pain - clammy skin, headache, nausea, vomiting vitals during congestive heart failure Correct Answer: - increased hr, bp, and respiratory rate vitals during allergic reaction Correct Answer: - increased bp and hr vitals during cardiovascular accident Correct Answer: - increased bp - decreased respiratory rate - hr variable tx during generalized tonic-clonic seizure Correct Answer: - supine (conscious) - flat (unconscious) - remove all objects that could harm pt - consider ems - monitor vitals - status epilepticus (over 5 min- call ems, give benzo) vitals during hypoglycemia emergency Correct Answer: - increased bp and hr - decreased respiratory rate - vitals during hyperglycemia emergency Correct Answer: - decreased bp - increased hr and respiratory rate vitals during adrenal crisis emergency Correct Answer: - rapid and weak hr - decreased bp tx for congestive heart failure emergency Correct Answer: - activate ems - upright position - calm pt - o2 with high flow rate - monitor vitals tx for allergic reaction emergency Correct Answer: - antihistamine - if severe o2, epi, ems tx for cardiovascular accident emergency Correct Answer: - upright position (consious) - supine position with head up (unconsious) - ems - monitor vitals - o2 tx for hypoglycemia emergency Correct Answer: - conscious (oral glucose) - unconscious (glucose on buccal - ems tx for hyperglycemia emergency Correct Answer: - supine - ems - insulin - monitor vitals tx for adrenal crisis emergency Correct Answer: - ems - supine with feet slightly elevated - maintain airway - vitals - o2 - 100 mg glucocorticosteroid or 4mg dexamethasone IV - epi if pt unconscious cutting edges area specific curets have per working end Correct Answer: 1 the face of the blade of an area-specific curet is offset at Correct Answer: 60-70 degrees to the terminal shank where is the gracey 1/2 used Correct Answer: all ant teeth where is the gracey 5/6 used Correct Answer: ant and premolars - buccal/lingual of posterior teeth where is the gracey 7/8 used Correct Answer: direct buccal & lingual of posterior teeth where is the gracey 9/10 used Correct Answer: - buccal/ lingual surfaces of molars where is gracey 11/12 used Correct Answer: Mesial, facial, and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth where is gracey 13/14 used Correct Answer: distal surfaces of posterior teeth where is the G15/16 used Correct Answer: mesial surface of posterior teeth where is the G17/18 used Correct Answer: distal surfaces of posterior teeth instruments safe for implants Correct Answer: plastic, nylon, graphite, gold-tipped ultrasonic magnetostrictive (cavitron) operate at Correct Answer: 18k- 45k cycles per second how do ultrasonic magnetostrictive scalers get energy Correct Answer: - use stack of metal strips in insert to convert energy from handpiece to insert tip - work through cavitation types of strokes produced by ultrasonic magnetostrictive scalers Correct Answer: - elliptical or orbital strokes what sides of ultrasonic magnetostrictive scaler are active? what sides are most active in order from greatest to least Correct Answer: - all sides are active - tip-concave face- convex back- lateral sides ultrasonic piezoelectric operate at Correct Answer: 25k- 50k cycles per second how do ultrasonic piezo scalers get energy Correct Answer: - uses ceramic rod to produce mechanical vibrations type of strokes produced by ultrasonic piezoelectric scalers Correct Answer: rapid linear strokes - newer piezos have elliptical/linear motion sides of the ultrasonic piezo tip that are active Correct Answer: lateral sides of the tip sonic scalers operate at Correct Answer: 2500- 7000 cycles per second how do sonic scalers get energy Correct Answer: uses compressed air to create vibrations - less power strokes produced by sonic scalers Correct Answer: - elliptical or orbital strokes sides of the sonic scalers active Correct Answer: - all sides of the tip are active oral contraindications of scalers Correct Answer: - demineralized areas - exposed dentinal surfaces - titanium implants (unless tip is for implants or plastic - restorations (composite, amalgam, porcelain) - children with primary and newly erupted permanent teeth - dentures systemic contraindications of scalers Correct Answer: - communicable disease - respiratory conditions (cystic fibrosis, asthma, emphysema) - difficulty swallowing - susceptible to infection (chemo, organ transplant, immunocompromised) is there a risk of sonic scalers Correct Answer: no, all pacemakers are shielded t/f: you should contact the pt's physician for medical clearance for ultrasonic Correct Answer: true contraindications for rubber cup polishing Correct Answer: - xerostomia - demineralized areas what occurs to the photons when increase the distance Correct Answer: number of photons decrease as beam spreads what affects penetration (quality) Correct Answer: kVp what happens to the density when there are more photons Correct Answer: more density= darker what happens to the film when there is increased energy Correct Answer: increase blackness what colors are present when there is a short scale of contrast Correct Answer: mostly black and whites - high visual contrast (difference in color is high) what colors are present when there is a long scale of contrast Correct Answer: many shades of gray - low visual contrast (difference in color low) what does a short scale of contrast result from Correct Answer: - less kVp and aluminum what does a long scale of contrast result from Correct Answer: more kVp and aluminum what affect contrast Correct Answer: kVp and aluminum filtration how does an increase in mA impact the number of photons (tubehead) and film density Correct Answer: increases the number of photons, increases density how does an increase in exposure time impact the number of photons and film density Correct Answer: increases the number of photons and increases density how does the increase in kVp impact the number of photons (tubehead), film density, and film contrast Correct Answer: increases number of photons, increases density, long scale (low visual contrast: many shades of grays) how does aluminum impact the number of photons, film density, and film contrast Correct Answer: -decrease number of photons (removes soft photons, increases % of hard/soft safer beam) - decrease density - long scale (low visual contrast: many shades of gray) - increase kVp how does an increase in distance impact the number of photons (tubehead) and film density Correct Answer: decrease number of photons, decreases density what 5 things can ensure that the image is the sharpest with the least magnification Correct Answer: - small focal spot - short object to film distance - large target to film distance - film and tooth parallel - beam perpendicular to film area of unsharpness Correct Answer: penumbra slob rule is Correct Answer: same lingual, opposit3e buccal - lingual objects move in the same direction as the head - buccal objects move in the opposite direction as the tubehead error occurs on a pan when the anterior teeth are blurred and thin Correct Answer: too far anterior error occurs on a pan when the ant teeth are blurred and wide Correct Answer: too far posterior error occurs on a pan when there is reverse curve of occlusion, palate is superimposed over the max incisors, and condyles go off the side of the image Correct Answer: chin too high error occurs on a pan when there is a steep curve of occlusion, roots are shortened on a mandibular incisors, and the condyles are off the top of the image Correct Answer: chin too low error occurs on a pan when there is air space is too dark Correct Answer: tongue wasn't placed against palate error occurs on a pan when there is a spinal shadow (anterior area is radiopaque) Correct Answer: pt is slumped forward at an angle causes film emulsion Correct Answer: silver halide (bromide) crystals on both sides of film substances that reduce the halides in the film emulsion to metallic silver Correct Answer: elon and hydroquinone elon/ hydroquinone: brings out the details Correct Answer: elon elon/hydroquinone: brings out the contrast in the film Correct Answer: hydroquinone reducing agent that converts exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver Correct Answer: developer cause discolored film Correct Answer: - exhausted fixer or poor replenishment, poor wash t/f: digital radiography systems are slower than film Correct Answer: false the most common mechanism of damage in humans Correct Answer: Hydrolysis, free radicals of water what occurs when there is a rapid turnover of mitosis rate Correct Answer: increase tissue damage undifferentiated cells have increased/decrease damage Correct Answer: increased why are children more sensitive to radiation compared to adults Correct Answer: rapid cell mitosis associated with child's growth time between x-ray exposure and appearance of symptoms Correct Answer: latent period difference between somatic and genetic Correct Answer: genetics- affect only those that can be passed down to future generation - somatic- doesn't involve future generations 5 types of tissue that has high sensitivity to radiation Correct Answer: - reproductive (highest) - lymphoid tissue - bone marrow (hematopoietic) - intestines - mucous membrane what 7 types of tissue have a medium sensitivity to radiation Correct Answer: - growing cartilage - growing bone - salivary glands - fine blood vessels - lungs - kidneys - liver what 6 types of tissues have a low sensitivity to radiation Correct Answer: - nerve tissue (lowest) - skeletal muscle - heart - optic lens - mature bone - mature cartilage t/f: adverse reactions of the body to radiation never return exactly to original state - accumulating to some degree over a lifetime Correct Answer: true occupational maximum permissible dose in old unit Correct Answer: - 5 rem/year - 5000 mrem abbreviations: stat Correct Answer: immediately abbreviations: tab Correct Answer: tablet abbreviations: ud Correct Answer: as directed controlled substance act: highest abuse potential, no accepted medical use Correct Answer: schedule I controlled substance act: high abuse potential, written prescription with signature only no refills Correct Answer: class II controlled substance act: moderate abuse potential, may phone in, five Rx in six months Correct Answer: schedule III controlled substance act: lower abuse potential, may phone in, Rx in six months Correct Answer: schedule IV controlled substance act: lowest abuse potential, some may be available OTC Correct Answer: schedule V example of schedule I drugs Correct Answer: heroin, LSD, marijuana example of schedule II drugs Correct Answer: opium, morphine, codeine example of schedule III drugs Correct Answer: Tylenol #3 example of schedule IV drugs Correct Answer: valium and darvon, diazepam example of schedule V drugs Correct Answer: codeine containing cough medications a graph of the relationship between dose of drug and response Correct Answer: log dose- response curve where the dose is increasing sharply Correct Answer: therapeutic range measures the safety of a drug Correct Answer: therapeutic index dose that kills 50% of subjects that take the drug Correct Answer: lethal dose maximum intensity of effect or response that can be produced by a drug Correct Answer: efficacy amount of drug needed to produce an effect Correct Answer: potency t/f: the more potent an agent is, the lower the dose needed to produce an effect Correct Answer: ture time it takes for the drug to have an effect Correct Answer: onset length of time that a drug has an effect Correct Answer: duration amount of time necessary for a drug to fall to 1/2 of its original blood level Correct Answer: half-lif3e physiologic response to the same dose produces less effect or higher dose is required to achieve the same effect Correct Answer: tolerance two major groups of routes of drug administration Correct Answer: enteral and parenteral route of administration directly into the GI tract Correct Answer: enteral two routes of enteral administration Correct Answer: oral and rectal which route of administration bypasses the GI tract Correct Answer: parenteral examples of parenteral route of administration Correct Answer: - IV, IM, subcutaneous, intradermal, inhalation, topical, sublingual where does absorption occur in oral route of adminsitration Correct Answer: small intestines oral route of administration is (more/less) predictable blood levels Correct Answer: less occurs when orally administered drugs initially pass through the hepatic portal circulation, which reduces the amount of effective drug Correct Answer: first-pass effect t/f: drugs with a high first-pass effect have a large oral parenteral dose ration Correct Answer: true t/f: oral doses require a larger oral dose than parenteral Correct Answer: true examples of rectal route administration Correct Answer: suppository/enema produces the most rapid drug response and is best for emergency situations Correct Answer: IV disadvantages of intravascular Correct Answer: - higher risk of adverse events compared to oral (anaphylaxis) - possibility of infection or phlebitis (inflammation of vein) common IM injection site Correct Answer: muscle, butt, arm route of administration: used to administer protein products Correct Answer: subcutaneously route of administration: injected into the dermis Correct Answer: intradermal example of intradermal route of administration Correct Answer: tb skin test ex of subcutaneous route of administration Correct Answer: local anesthesia route of administration: provides rapid delivery across large surface area of respiratory mucosa Correct Answer: inhalation ex of inhalation drugs Correct Answer: nitrous and asthma meds route of administration: drugs applied to a body surface Correct Answer: topical what skin is topical most effective on Correct Answer: - mucous membranes/ skin/ nonkeratinized tissue do topical drugs require a lower or higher concentration of drugs Correct Answer: higher what variables may impact the dose of a drug given to a pt Correct Answer: - age - weight - disease - route of administration effects on nontarget organs dose related reaction that is not a part of the desired therapeutic action Correct Answer: side effects predictable and dose related effect on target organ occurs when the desired effect is excessive Correct Answer: toxic effect hypersensitivity response to a drug to which the pt was previously exposed - involves antibody-antigen reaction - not dose related Correct Answer: allergic reaction an abnormal drug response that is usually genetically determined Correct Answer: idiosyncrasy drugs effects that mimic the sympathetic nervous system Correct Answer: sympathomimetic indications for adrenergic drugs Correct Answer: - asthma - tx for shock - nasal congestion - ADD/ADHD - cardiac arrest - glaucoma ex of adrenergic drugs Correct Answer: - epi - dopamine - albuterol - diet pills - ritalin contraindications for adrenergic drugs Correct Answer: - angina - uncontrolled hypertension - uncontrolled hyperthyroidism drugs that interact with adrenergic drugs Correct Answer: - tricyclic antidepressants - nonselective beta blockers - cocaine and epi how does tricyclic antidepressants interact with adrenergic agents Correct Answer: block the reuptake of catecholamines and may increase the hypertensive effects of epi how does nonselective beta blockers interact with adrenergic agents Correct Answer: block the beta2 vasodilatory effects of epi - the amount of epi should be limited to 0.04mg how does cocaine and epi interact with adrenergic agents Correct Answer: severe hypertensive reaction can occur and even result in death indications for adrenergic blocking agents Correct Answer: - cardiac arrythmias - hypertension - angina - glaucoma - myocardial infarction receptors: stimulates constriction of arteries, leading to increase in bp Correct Answer: alpha stimulates the heart's cardiac output, increasing bp Correct Answer: beta 1 increase bp, dilates smooth muscle Correct Answer: beta 2 indication for beta blockers Correct Answer: - anxiety - congestive heart failure - migraines - myocardial infarction - glaucoma - angina - urinary retention alpha adrenergic blocker that treats hypertension Correct Answer: doxazosin (cardura) nonselective beta blocker that treats hypertension Correct Answer: propranolol selective beta blocker that treats hypertension Correct Answer: - atenolol - metoprolol selective beta blocker that treats glaucoma Correct Answer: timolol drugs effects that mimic the parasympathetic nervous system Correct Answer: parasympathetic/cholinergic indications for cholinergic drugs Correct Answer: - urinary retention - xerostomia - glaucoma - alzheimer's - myasthenia gravis cholinergic drugs that treats glaucoma, reverse dilation of the eyes, and xerostomia Correct Answer: pilocarpine cholinergic drugs that treats urinary retention and myasthenia gravis Correct Answer: neostigmine cholinergic drugs that treat glaucoma Correct Answer: physostigmine cholinergic drug that treat alzheimers disease Correct Answer: tacrine toxic effects of cholinergic medications Correct Answer: - salivation - lacrimation - urination - defecation - neuromuscular paralysis contraindications for cholinergic drugs Correct Answer: - asthma - hyperthyroidism - GI/urinary obstruction - severe cardiac disease - reflex tachycardia - peptic ulcers drugs that block the parasympathetic nervous system Correct Answer: anticholinergic drugs examples of anticholinergic drugs Correct Answer: - Imodium - atropine - dicyclomine - scopolamine - tropicamide - oxybutynin anticholinergic drug that treats motion sickness Correct Answer: scopolamine anticholinergic drug that treats mydriasis for eye exams Correct Answer: tropicamide anticholinergic drug treats bladder spasms Correct Answer: oxybutynin indications for anticholinergic agents Correct Answer: - preop med - GI disorders - ophthalmologic examination: mydriasis enables one to see retina - decreases salivation - Parkinson's - motion sickness adverse reaction of anticholinergic agents Correct Answer: - xerostomia - blurred vision - tachycardia - urinary/GI stasis base/acid: local anesthesia Correct Answer: weak base mechanism of action for local anesthesia Correct Answer: blocks peripheral nerve conduction by decreasing the sodium ion permeability of the nerve membrane major families of local anesthesia Correct Answer: amides and esters amides/esters: metabolized in the liver Correct Answer: amides amides/esters: metabolized in the plasma Correct Answer: esters amides/esters: adverse effects of opiods Correct Answer: respiratory depression/sedation - nausea/vomiting - constipation - addiction opiod antagonist that reverses the effects of opiod drugs Correct Answer: narcan/naloxone used in tx of narcotic dependence and withdrawal and used to treat opiod overdose (heroin) Correct Answer: methadone kills bacteria Correct Answer: bactericidal inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria Correct Answer: bacteriostatic most commonly prescribed antibiotic prescribed in dentistry Correct Answer: penicillin is penicillin bactericidal or static Correct Answer: bactericidal most common side effect of penicillin Correct Answer: rash t/f: penicillin is safe for pregnant patients Correct Answer: true antibiotic most likely to produce and anaphylactic allergic reaction Correct Answer: penicillin examples of penicillin Correct Answer: - pen VK - amoxicillin -ampicillin -augmentin tetracycline is (broad/narrow) spectrum Correct Answer: broad tetracycline is (bactericial/static) Correct Answer: bacteriostatic t/f: tetracycline can be taken during birth Correct Answer: false where is tetracycline concentrated Correct Answer: in the gingival crevicular fluid examples of tetracycline Correct Answer: - doxycycline - minocycline examples of cephalosporins Correct Answer: - cephalexin (Keflex) - cefaclor - cefixime first alternative for premedication if pt is allergic to amoxicillin Correct Answer: clindamycin GI adverse effect of clindamycin Correct Answer: pseudomembranous colitis metronidazole is used to treat Correct Answer: anaerobic infections - nug can not be used with metronidazole Correct Answer: alcohol anitbiotics used to treat tuberculosis Correct Answer: - rifampin - isoniazid - pyrazinamide - ethambutol conditions requiere premed for dental procedures Correct Answer: - artificial heart valves - infective endocarditis - congenital heart defects - cardiac transplant with valve problems - renal dialysis shunt - consult with orthopedic surgeion for joint replacements recommended drug r3egimens for premed Correct Answer: - amox 200mg - cephalexin 2000 mg - clindamycin 600mg - azithromycin or clarithromycin 500 mg medication used for tx of oral candidiasis Correct Answer: nystatin (tablets, suspension) antifungal meds Correct Answer: - nystatin - clotrimazole - ketoconazole - fluconazole T/F: ketoconazole can not be used with H2 blocker and needs to be in acidic environment Correct Answer: true indications for antiviral med Correct Answer: - HSV1 - HSV2 - cytomegalovirus - HIV/AIDS example of antiviral meds used to treat oral herpes Correct Answer: acyclovir - penciclovir - valacyclovir antiviral that treats HIV/AIDS Correct Answer: - zidovudine - didanosine - zalcitabline adverse effects of antiviral drugs used to treat HIV/AIDS Correct Answer: - bleeding gingiva - ulcers - bone marrow depression (leading to anemia and thrombocytopenia drug of choice for angina pectoris Correct Answer: nitroglycerin mechanism of action of nitroglycerin Correct Answer: vasodilator - open vessels to increase blood supply to the heart how is nitroglycerin administered Correct Answer: sublingually main family of drugs used to treat congestive heart failure Correct Answer: cardiac glycosides mechanism of action of cardiac glycosides Correct Answer: increase force and strength of heart contractions (positive inotropic effect) example of cardiac glycosides Correct Answer: - digitalis and digoxin max amount of epi that can be used for a pt with angina pectoris Correct Answer: 0.04 mg blood thinners are used to prevent... Correct Answer: myocardial infarction and stroke pts taking blood thinners are at increased risk for ... Correct Answer: bleeding examples of blood thinners Correct Answer: - warfarin - aspirin - plavix - heparin coumadin prevent the formation of... Correct Answer: active form of vitamin K blood thinner that is administered to hospitalized patients through injection Correct Answer: heparin drug classes used to treat hypertension Correct Answer: - diuretics - beta adrenergic blockers - calcium channel blockers - ace inhibitors purpose of diuretics Correct Answer: excretion of sodium and water to decrease bp examples of benzos Correct Answer: - diazepam (valium) - lorazepam (Ativan) - alprazolam (Xanax) what is nitrous used for Correct Answer: conscious sedation and anxiety system affected by nitrous Correct Answer: CNS nitrous is excreted through Correct Answer: exhalation is nitrous metabolized in the body Correct Answer: no nitrous tanks are Correct Answer: blue oxygen tanks are Correct Answer: green most common side effect of nitrous Correct Answer: nausea/ vomiting contraindications for nitrous Correct Answer: - COPD - pregnancy (first trimester) - emotional and behavioral instability - communication barriers - abuse potential prolonged exposure to nitrous leads to what Correct Answer: - tremors - spontaneous miscarriage - megaloblastic anemia estrogen is a .. Correct Answer: steroid hormone indications for estrogen Correct Answer: - contraception - menopause therapy - menstrual disturbances adverse effects of estrogen Correct Answer: - increase gingival inflammation - nausea/ vomiting - may promote endometrial cancer and breast cancer examples of estrogen Correct Answer: - premarin - estraderm prednisone is what type of steroid Correct Answer: intermediate-acting glucocorticoid prednisone treats... Correct Answer: - a variety of inflammatory and allergic conditions - addison's disease adverse effects of prednisone Correct Answer: - suppress immune system - edema - buffalo hump - moon face - peptic ulcers - mental distrubances - increases in body hair - acne - insomnia - adrenal crisis under stress insulin is used to treat Correct Answer: type I diabetes how is insulin administered Correct Answer: subcutaneous injection most common side effect of insulin Correct Answer: hypoglycemia what oral hypoglycemic drugs increases the body's sensitivity to insulin Correct Answer: metformin what type of drug stimulates the release of insulin from B-cells of pancreas Correct Answer: sulfonylureas examples of sulfonylureas Correct Answer: Glyburide Glipizide Glimepiride two important mechanisms to treat asthma Correct Answer: - open air passages - reduce inflammation what should be avoided in asthma patients Correct Answer: - aspirin and NSAIDS what kind of drug is albuterol Correct Answer: adrenergic drugs (beta receptor antagonist): short-acting bronchodilator/bronchoconstriction: albuterol is a Correct Answer: bronchodilator adverse effects of albuterol Correct Answer: - increase hr, bp insomnia examples of corticosteroids Correct Answer: - fluticasone - triamcinolone acetonide what is Advair diskus a combination of Correct Answer: corticosteroid and long acting beta 2 receptor agonist sodium bicarbonate (antacid) is contraindicated in pts with Correct Answer: cardiovascular problems due to sodium content t/f: sodium bicarbonate is systemic antacid Correct Answer: true histamine blocking drugs block and reduce what Correct Answer: block histamine receptors and reduce acid secretion example of histamine blockers Correct Answer: - Tagamet - Pepcid proton pump inhibitors inhibit what Correct Answer: gastric acid secretion PPI are used to treat Correct Answer: GERD and ulcers examples of PPI Correct Answer: - omeprazole - lansoprazole - esomeprazole GI drugs Correct Answer: - sodium bicarbonate (antacids) - H2 blockers - proton pump inhibitors antihistamine (benadryl) most commonly used for Correct Answer: mild allergic reaction side effects of benedryl Correct Answer: sedation/xerostomia Benadryl works by Correct Answer: blocking histamine receptors H1 receptors cause what when stimulated Correct Answer: - vasodilation - bronchoconstriction - pain - itching H2 receptors cause what when stimulated Correct Answer: gastric acid secretion examples of non sedating histamines Correct Answer: - Claritin - Zyrtec bisphosphonate drugs treat Correct Answer: osteoporosis and cancer (IV) what could bisphosphonates cause Correct Answer: osteonecrosis of the jaw how often should a mask be changed Correct Answer: - when it becomes wet/moist - with every patient - typically every hour wearing PPE minimizes exposure to Correct Answer: - aerosol - spatter - direct transmission - indirect transmission invisible droplets of airborne particles that can remain in the air for awhile Correct Answer: aerosol visible airborne particles of blood and saliva - drop quickly to the floor, counter, etc Correct Answer: spatter transmission through direct touching of an infectious agent, saliva, or blood Correct Answer: direct transmission transmission through a contaminated object Correct Answer: indirect transmission kills or inactivate most pathogenic microbes, not spores Correct Answer: disinfection qualities of a disinfectant Correct Answer: - rapid, broad, spectrum antimicrobial, bacteriocidal, fungicidal, tuberculocidal, virucidal - odorless, easy to use, fast acting, and economical - compatible to environment and surfaces - residual effect- continues to work after it is dried - cleans and disinfects agency regulates disinfectants Correct Answer: EPA examples of disinfectants Correct Answer: - chlorine based compounds - iodophors - phenols - quaternary compounds disinfectants: corrosive to metals; strong odor Correct Answer: chlorine based compounds disinfectants: not corrosive, but have a lower kill spectrum; limited efficacy Correct Answer: quaternary compounds disinfectants: may leave a film or residue on surfaces Correct Answer: phenols disinfectants: can discolor some surfaces yellow Correct Answer: idophors why is glutaraldehyde not recommended as a surface disinfectant Correct Answer: bc of toxic effects of fumes; also corrosive disinfectants: used in dental offices; must kill TB organism Correct Answer: intermediate disinfectant disinfectants: generally used at home - not acceptable for use in a dental office (simple phenols) Correct Answer: low disinfectant disinfection used in surgical areas Correct Answer: high disinfectant kills all pathogenic microbes, including spores Correct Answer: sterilization two methods of sterilization that kills all microbes including spores Correct Answer: heat or chemical sterilization: recommended minimum temperature of 273 degrees for 20 minutes with a pressure of kPa/25 psi Correct Answer: chemical sterilization conditions needed for dry heat sterilization Correct Answer: 340 degrees for 1 hr or 320 for 2 hours conditions needed for steam sterilization Correct Answer: minimum- 250 with 15-20 pounds per square inch for 30 min sterilization methods: may damage rubber and plastic items Correct Answer: chemical and dry heat sterilization methods: dulls instruments and burs Correct Answer: steam sterilization methods: ventilation is necessary Correct Answer: chemical sterilization methods: not recommended for handpieces Correct Answer: dry heat sterilization methods: spore test= Geobacillus (formerly bacillus) stearothermophilus Correct Answer: chemical and steam sterilization methods: packages come out wet and tear Correct Answer: steam sterilization methods: spore test= bacillus atrophaues Correct Answer: steam sterilization methods: recommended for metal instruments Correct Answer: dry heat sterilization methods: corrodes non-stainless (carbon) steel instruments Correct Answer: steam sterilization methods: ok for some pastics; cotton roll/gauze (cloth goods) Correct Answer: steam indicators including tape or printed on packaging materials that change color Correct Answer: external indicators t/f: instruments that change color indicate that instruments have been sterilized Correct Answer: false, it indicates instruments have been heat processed how often should biological indicators (spore testing) be performed Correct Answer: weekly what should biological indicators determine Correct Answer: if the sterilization cycle is reaching proper temp, time, and pressure to kill all microorganisms GV Classification: cervical 1/3 of the facial or lingual surfaces of any tooth (root caries) Correct Answer: class V GV Classification: proximal surfaces of posterior teeth; commonly involves occlusal surface Correct Answer: II GV Classification: proximal surface of anterior teeth; involves incisal edge Correct Answer: IV GV Classification: pits and fissures on lingual surfaces of ant and on occlusal, buccal, and lingual surfaces of post teeth Correct Answer: I GV Classification: proximal surfaces of ant teeth; does not involve the incisal edge Correct Answer: III GV Classification: incisal edge of ant and/or cusp tips of post teeth Correct Answer: VI demineralization occurs when pH drops below (critical pH levels) Correct Answer: 4.5-5.5 for enamel demineralization occurs when the pH drops below (critical pH levels) Correct Answer: 6- 6.7 for cementum fluoride that destroys bacteria Correct Answer: bactericidal fluoride that is given in lower concentration Correct Answer: bacteriostatic the ability to bind to pellicle, plaque, and tooth surface and be released over a period of time with retention of potency Correct Answer: substantivity is it necessary to polish teeth prior to application of fluoride? why? Correct Answer: no, because it penetrates through pellicle and plaque ways in which fluoride is placed topically Correct Answer: - water - toothpaste - rinses - fluoride treatment ways that fluoride is delivered systemically Correct Answer: - water - supplements - food how does fluoride impact teeth when it is given systemically Correct Answer: it circulates in the bloodstream and is incorporated into the enamel of delevloping teeth fluoride is absorbed in the Correct Answer: stomach and small intestines range of cost for water fluoridation per person depending on the community Correct Answer: .0.13- 5.48 per person per year optimal fluoride level in fluoridated water Correct Answer: 0.7 before warmer climate 0.7 colder climate 1.2 agency that monitors the concentration level in community drinking water Correct Answer: EPA agency set limits in bottled water Correct Answer: FDA what is used to fluoridate water Correct Answer: - sodium fluoride - sodium silicofluoride - hydrofluorosilic acid t/f: fluoride is not recommended for pregnant women Correct Answer: true recommendation for fluoride supplementation: less than 6 months Correct Answer: 0.3=none 0.3-0.6= none greater than 0.6= none recommendation for fluoride supplementation: 6 months - 3 years Correct Answer: 0.3=0.25 mg 0.6=0.6- none greater than 0.6= none recommendation for fluoride supplementation: 3-6 years Correct Answer: 0.3= 0.5 mg 0.6= 0.35 mg greater than 0.6 = none recommendation for fluoride supplementation: 6-16 years Correct Answer: 0.3= 1 mg 0.3-0.6= 0.5 mg greater than 0.6= none what type of drink contains a large amount of fluoride Correct Answer: Tea what type of food contain a large amount of fluoride Correct Answer: fish 3 types of professionally applied fluoride Correct Answer: - sodium fluoride - acidulated phosphate - stannous fluoride fluorides: unstable solution; must be mixed right before use Correct Answer: stannous fluoride fluorides: contraindicated in the presence of tooth-colored restorations and porcelain Correct Answer: acidulated fluoride fluorides: unpleasant taste- metallic due to tin ion in compound Correct Answer: stannous fluoride fluorides: preferred with tooth colored and porcelain restorations present Correct Answer: sodium fluoride fluorides: most effective for rampant caries when a tray is used for 4 minutes gives maximum efficacy but it can be used for 1 minutes Correct Answer: sodium fluoride fluorides: can etch glass components in restorations, causing surface roughening or pitting over time Correct Answer: acidulated fluoride fluorides: stains demineralization areas and margins of tooth-colored restoration due to the reaction of the fluoride tin ion in the compound Correct Answer: stannous fluoride fluorides: 2.5 ml for adults is the dosage used for this type of fluoride or by painting with cotton-tip applicator Correct Answer: acidulated fluoride fluorides: causes possible gingival sloughing Correct Answer: stannous fluoride fluorides: available in foams or thixotropic (gel-like) form Correct Answer: acidulated fluoride sodium fluoride varnished contain ... sodium fluoride Correct Answer: 5% what is sodium fluoride varnish used for Correct Answer: desensitizing exposed roots and caries prevention how many mL/application is used for sodium fluoride varnish Correct Answer: .2-.5 mL/ application small volume/low dose length sodium fluoride varnish is released Correct Answer: 24-48 hours how much more effective is sodium fluoride varnish than topical gels Correct Answer: 14% more effective how much fluoride is in sodium fluoride Correct Answer: 2% how much fluoride is in sodium varnish Correct Answer: 5% how much fluoride is in acidulated fluoride Correct Answer: 1.23% how much fluoride is in stannous fluoride Correct Answer: 8% what is the ppm of fluoride in sodium fluoride Correct Answer: 9050 what is the ppm of fluoride in sodium varnish Correct Answer: 22600 what is the ppm of fluoride in acidulated fluoride Correct Answer: 12300