BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH QUIZ, Quizzes of Biomedicine

Download BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH QUIZ and more Quizzes Biomedicine in PDF only on Docsity! BASIC COURSE IN BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH Cycle 1,2&3 MCQs with Answers | Assignment 1 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) Which of the following areas can be included in health research? i. Improving the health of the population. ii. Predicting progression of a disease in a patient Prevention of various diseases iv. To explore various societal, community based and programmatic interventions for disease prevention and control a) iandii b) i, ii and iv c) All of the above d) None of the above What is appropriate for sample and sample sizer a) Should be representative of the population {External validity or generalizability] b) Should be adequate [power to draw meaningful inferences] c) Both ‘a' and ‘'b’ d) Neither 'a’ nor 'b' Which of the following statements are correct regarding defining inclusion and exclusion criteria in a study protocol? a) They should be vague because this will allow greater and easy enrollment b) They should be very specific c) They should be very large in number d) It is not important to define exclusion criteria ina clinical trial Which of the following are examined as part of regulatory review? a) Information regarding transfer of funds and utilization of funds b) Shipment of samples and transfer of data outside the country c} Sharing and protection of intellectual property d) All of the above Which of the following statements js not true in case of pilot study? a) They are conducted for developing and testing adequacy of research instruments b) They establish whether the sampling frame and technique are effective 7) c) Ethics committee approves the main study only after successful completion of the pilot study d) They are small scale studies Before initiating a study involving primary data collection, the Principal Investigator must ensure that various approvals are obtained. Which of the following approvals is absolutely mandatory? a) Scientific committee approval b) Ethics committee approval c) Technical committee approval d) Regulatory authority approval Which is the best source of information on ‘effect modifiers’ while exploring cause and effect relationship in a research study? a) Deductive thinking b) Thorough review of literature c) Intelligent guessing d) Discussing with experienced researchers 8) The policy makers want to know whether 3) introduction of pentavalent vaccine in the national program is resulting in reduction in the number of Hemaphilus influenza cases Which of the following studies will they have te conduct to find an answer? a) Case-control study b) Field trial c} Ecological study d) Case series What is true about Confounders? a) They affect both study variable as well as outcome b) Their effect can be minimized by proper study design and through stratified analysis c) Both'a' and 'b' d) None of the above 10) Which of the following is not a type of study design? a) Qualitative study b) Observational study c) Retrospective study d) Pilot study 11) Any systematic error in the design, conduct or analysis of a study that results in an erroneous | Assignment 2 1) 2} 3) 4) 5) 6) Which of the following is an element of cycle of research? a) Identify data needs and spell out the research question b) Formulate the objective and design the study c) Draw conclusion and give recommendation to stakeholders d) Allofthe above Which of the following verbs is preferably used in the statement of objectives of an analytical research study? a) Estimate b) Determine c) Study d) Describe Source(s) of research question is/are a) Published literature b) Being alert to new ideas c) Careful observation and teaching d) Allofthe above Which of the following is stated mainly for statistical purpose? a) Research question b) Objectives c) Research hypothesis d) All of the above If your objective is to estimate the prevalence of a health problem in a community in 2019, Identify the type of research question this study is addressing a) Analytical research question b) Descriptive research question c) Hypothetical research question d) Experimental research question What is the first step in the life cycle of research? a) Spell out the research question b) Formulate the objective of the study c) Identify the data needs 7) 8) 9) d) Choose the study design A clear research question facilitates to do the following a) Choose the most optimal design b} Identify who should be included as study population c) Specify the outcomes that should be measured d) All of the above Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) A good research question should be Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical and Relevant b) A good research question should be in epidemiological terms c) A good research question facilitates to choose optimal design d) A good research question will focus on one issue The verb "estimate" is used in the objective of analytical research studies a) True b) False 10)The process of refining the "ideas" into research questions begins with general uncertainty about a health issue and narrow down to a specific, concrete researchable issue a) True b) False 11)Which of the following statement is incorrect about a good research question? a) Research question should advance scientific knowledge, improve practice, influence policy b) Research question should be approved by the ethics committee c) Research question should confirms, refutes or extends previous findings Assignment 2 d) Feasibility should not be a criterion while developing research question 12) All the following are characteristic of good research hypothesis EXCEPT a) Research hypothesis should be simple b) Research hypothesis should be devoid of any ambiguity about study participants and variables c) Research hypothesis should be focused on primary objective d) Research hypothesis should be written once the study is completed 13) Which of the following verb is used in the Statement of objective of a descriptive research study? a) Estimate b) Determine c) Examine d) Compare 14) A research question states about what the results of the study might ultimately contribute to that particular field of science a) True b) False 15) Purely descriptive research questions do not require a hypothesis a) True b) False 16) Identify the type of research question if the objective of a study is "To determine the effect of tobacco cessation services on tuberculosis treatment outcomes among patients with tuberculosis under National Tuberculosis Elimination Program"? a) Descriptive research question 5) Hypothetical research question c) Analytical research question d) Experimental research question 17) As per the following objectives a hypothesis should be stated for which study? a) To determine the association of maternal smoking during pregnancy with respiratory infectious disease morbidity and mortality in infants b} To estimate the lifetime prevalence of mental health morbidities among elderly people in India c} To describe the pattern of physical activity among school going children aged 6-18 years d) To describe the temporal and spatial trends of mortality due to cardiovascular diseases, by age and sex in India during 2009-2019 18) All the following are components of 'FINER' criteria for a research question EXCEPT a) Feasible b) Reliable c) Novel d) Ethical 19)Which is the last step in the life cycle of research? a) Spell out the research question b} Formulate the objective of the study c) Formulate recommendations d) Choose the study design 20} The following are the steps in framing a research question. |. Review of state-of-art information Il. Define measurable exposures & outcomes I. Raise a question IV. Decide worth investigating by peer- review Choose the correct sequence of framing a research question from below. a} U1 ILIV b) Ui, Iv, UI, 0 c) 1, 0, Iv, I d) UL 1 WIV 21) A clear research question is required in order to facilitate the following: Assignment 2 a) To choose an optimal study design b) To identify the outcomes that need to be measured c) To decide when the outcomes need to be measured d) All the above 22) Characteristics of a good hypothesis are all, EXCEPT: a) There should be no ambiguity about the study variables b) It should be stated ‘a priori’ c) Itcan be revised based on the study findings d) It should specify one exposure and one outcome 23) Which of the following is NOT an ideal source of a research question? a) Reviewing the published literature b) Attending conferences where latest findings are shared c) Observing keenly in the out-patient clinic d) Mining existing datasets for research question 24) Which of the following is TRUE fora ‘Descriptive Research Question’? a) Involves observations to measure a quantity b) Involves comparison groups c) Tests the efficacy of interventions d) Requires hypothesis testing 25) Which of the following characteristics best describe a good research question? a) Feasible, Novel, Ethical b) Feasible, Noble, Ethical c) Ethical, Novel, Intuitive d) Fantastic, Novel, Relevant 26) State whether true or false. A research study Is conducted to estimate the seroprevalence of COVID-19 in Ahmedabad city during April-June 2020. This is an example of analytical research question. a) True b) False 27) Which of the following statement about study objective/s is FALSE? a) b) ‘) q) Objectives are stated in scientific terms Objectives can be primary and secondary Each objective is written using multiple verbs Objectives should be specific 28) In the life cycle of research, ‘spelling aut the research question’ is followed by a) b) c) d) Preparing data collection instrument Formulating study objectives Collecting data Formulating recommendation 29) How can the given study objective be improved? “To understand the anaemia in pregnancy” a) b) c) a) Using appropriate action verb Specifying the outcome measure Specifying the study setting and time period All the above 30) Which of the following is NOT a step in framing an ideal research question? a) b) c) q) Literature review Peer review Broadening the initial question Defining measurable outcomes | Assignment 3 22) Aresearcher conducts a review of literature to identify a set of potentially useful articles and books related to their research topic. This process is known as a) Indexing b) Critical appraisal c) Data management d) Information seeking 23) Literature review is a well thought out and organized search for all literature published on a particular topic in a library or online database. a) True b) False 24)Which of the following search query in PubMed will give relevant articles for the following question? “What is the burden of gastroenteritis among children?” a) Gastroenteritis OR children b) Gastroenteritis AND children c) Gastroenteritis BUT children d) Gastroenteritis NOT children 25) Which of the following Boolean operator will give the highest number of results when used between two given search terms? a) AND b) NOT c) OR d) ALL 26) researcher wants to study the effect of physical activity on reduction of systolic blood pressure among patients with hypertension. The researcher has identified a subset of document which are most relevant to the research question within a large document collection. This process is known as a) Information management b) Critical appraisal c) Information retrieval d) Literature organization 27) The organized collection of articles, abstracts, scientific proceedings, books, and citations used for the purpose of literature review, is known as a) Database b) Data management c) Critical appraisal d) Index 28) Which of the following does not satisfy the ethical principles in conducting a literature review? a) Results of previous studies are presented without distortion b}) Weaknesses of previous studies are highlighted c}) Previous studies are accurately cited d) Reputation of study authors are questioned 29)For which of the following purpose is the Boolean operator ‘OR’ commonly used in literature search? a) Connecting synonyms of one key concept b) Connecting different key concepts c) Connecting keywords which need to be excluded d) Connecting keywords to narrow down the results 30) Medical Subject Headings is a controlled vocabulary thesaurus used for indexing articles in a) PubMed b) Google scholar c}) Scopus d) Health on Net | Assignment 4 1) Which of the following must be considered while measuring occurrence of a disease? a) The number of people affected by the disease b) The population size from which the cases of disease arise c) The length of the time the population is followed d) Allofthe above 2) is most useful for evaluating the impact of prevention programme a} Point prevalence b) Period prevalence c) Case fatality d) Incidence 3) Which one of the following statements is true? a) High cure rate can prevalence of a disease b) Low case fatality can prevalence of a disease c) Both'a' and 'b' are true d) High cure rate and high case fatality can increase the reduce the reduce the prevalence of a disease 4) Measures of disease frequency a} Incidence b) Prevalence c) Birth rate d) ‘a’ and ‘b’ 5) A measure that reflects severity of an acute infectious disease a) Case fatality ratio b) Incidence rate c) Prevalence d) Mortality rate 6) Incidence data can be used to measure the occurrence of disease with gradual onset a) True b) False 7) ‘This measure reflects the impact of a disease on population in terms of death 8) 9) a) Incidence density b) Case fatality c) Disease specific mortality d) Attack rate While measuring the frequency of a chronic disease in a community in terms of Incidence per 1000 persons per year, and point prevalence per 1000 persons, what is the expected pattern of prevalence? a) Low prevalence, high incidence b) High prevalence, low incidence ¢) Both prevalence and incidence will be similar d} None of the above statements are true In a study among 3400 children aged 5-10 years, 16 children were diagnosed with autistic disorder. Calculate the prevalence of autism per 1000 children a) 4.01 b) 5.53 c) 3.35 d) 4.71 incidence and 10) Statistic used to estimate the risk of acquiring adisease a) Prevalence b) Incidence c) Mortality rate d) Allofthe above 11) What is the appropriate measure when a researcher wishes to know the burden of a particular disease in terms of the number of deaths it causes in a specified geographical region and population? a) Incidence density b) Case fatality c) Attack rate d) Disease specific mortality 12) If health policy makers want to evaluate the impact of a prevention program, which is the appropriate measure to be considered? | Assignment 4 a) Period prevalence b) Incidence c) Point prevalence d) Case fatality 13)Select the correct statement among the following a) Prevalence of a disease will increase when it has a high cure rate b) Prevalence of a disease will decrease when it has a low case fatality ratio t) Prevalence of a disease will increase when it has a low cure rate d) Prevalence of a disease will increase when it is acute in nature 14)What is the appropriate epidemiologic measure to determine the severity of an acute disease? a) Incidence rate b) Prevalence c) Mortality rate d) Case fatality ratio 15) Cumulative incidence is otherwise known as. a) Attack rate b) Case fatality rate c) Mortality rate d) Morbidity rate 16) The healthcare professionals working in an intensive care unit were asked whether there has been an increase in the number of new pneumonia cases. Which of the following factor(s) is inappropriate in the calculation of cumulative incidence? a) Number of new cases of pneumonia during a specific period of time b) Total number of people at risk of developing the disease in that population during the same period of time c) Pre-existing cases of pneumonia d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ 17) When measuring the frequency for an acute infectious disease in a community in terms of incidence per 1000 persons per year and point prevalence per 1000 persons, how will the pattern of incidence and prevalence be? a) High prevalence b) Low incidence c) Both prevalence and incidence will be similar d) Low prevalence and high incidence 18) Among 25000 population in a city, 105 residents were identified with Hepatitis B infection. Calculate the prevalence of Hepatitis B per 1000 population, a) 5.2 b) 4.2 c) 3.2 d) 2.2 19) Which of the following condition tends to increase the prevalence of a particular disease? a) High cure rate b) Low case fatality ratio c) Short duration d) Emigration of patients 20)Which of the following is true about incidence density? a) Numerator has number of new cases b) Also called cumulative incidence c) Denominator is number of persons at risk d) Numerator has person-years at risk 21) In a rural block with 1,00,000 population, 250 residents were identified with cardiovascular disease, Calculate the prevalence of cardiovascular disease per 1000 population. a) 0.2 b) 0.5 c) 2.5 d) 25 22)What [Is the appropriate epidemiologic measure to determine the burden of a disease in terms of number of cases present Assignment 5 13. 14, Which of the following study design will be helpful if the department of health wants to know the burden of a particular disease? a) Ecological study b) Cross sectional survey c) Case series d) Case report A clinician comes across an unusual presentation of a particular neurological disorder. If the clinician describes this single case in detail and publishes the same ina journal, then it will be called a) Analytical study b) Case report c) Cross sectional survey d) Ecological study 15. The advantage of an ecological study is 16. Lh that a) It is analytical in nature b) It will cover individual level information on risk factors and disease c) It will be useful to test hypotheses d) it will be useful to generate hypotheses In a tertiary care hospital, a surgeon collected information on quality of life and outcome among a small group of (about 15) post-operative patients after using 2 novel surgical device. But this is not sufficient to establish the efficacy of the surgical device because a) There is no comparison group b) There is no information of risk factors c) We do not have details of the outcome d) We do not have individual level data Population census is a a) Cross sectional survey b) Ecological study 18. 18, 20. 2i. 22, 23. c) Analytical study d) None of the above One of the major limitations of a cross- sectional study is that a) Itis time consuming b) It has lower validity c) It does not establish disease etiology d) Itrequires a large sample size Characteristic of a cross sectional stucly is that a) We can calculate the incidence of a disease b) We can test a hypotheses c) Itis difficult to conduct d) Exposure and outcome are assessed at the same time If a researcher wishes to estimate the incidence of Myocardial infarction cases among a group of women using oral contraceptive pills followed up for 10year, the researcher has to carry out a) Case series b) Cohort study c) Cross sectional study d) Ecological study Case series are useful a) To estimate burden of a disease b) To determine risk factors of a disease ¢c) Todetermine efficacy of a new drug d) Ta describe uncommon clinical manifestation All the following are true about cross- sectional survey, EXCEPT a) Individual is the unit of observation b) Involves only incident cases c) Estimate the burden of a disease d) It can be used to generate hypothesis A detailed presentation of a single case which is rare and unfamiliar, is called a) Case report b) Case series Assignment 5 24. 25. 26. 27. 28, c) Ecological study d) Cross-sectional study Which of the following is INCORRECT about ecological study? a) It relates the rate of disease and frequency of exposure b) Itis an example of observational study c) It uses individual level data d) It helps in generating hypothesis Which of the following is NOT applicable ina case study? a) Clinical features b) Laboratory parameters c) Socio-demographic background d) Incidence To determine the association between air pollution and male infertility, data on air quality index and prevalence of male infertility was collected for 183 countries for the year 2019. What best describes the study? a) Case report b) Case series c) Ecological study d) Cross-sectional study medical journal, 18 cases of Creutzfeldt Jakob disease were reported from a tertiary care hospital in Sikkim. The authors of the paper gave a description of the socio-demographic, In a clinical, and laboratory features of the 18 patients, What best describes this study design? a) Case study b) Case series c) Case control study d) Ecological study Which of the following is FALSE about cross-sectional studies? a) Can be used to generate hypothesis 29. 30. b) Can be used to establish temporality of association c) Can be used to estimate disease burden d) Can be used to identify factors associated with outcome State whether true or false. Descriptive cross-sectional study does not have a comparison group. a) True b) False Which of the following studies can be used to identify the factors associated with an outcome? a) Descriptive cross-sectional study b) Analytical cross-sectional study c) Case study d) Case series Assignment 6 Exposure is not assigned by the investigator in the following study design a) Cohort b) Case-control c) Cross-sectional d) Allofthe above Which of the following statement(s) is true about the cohort study? a) It is not suitable for disease with a long latency period b) Loss to follow up can introduce bias c) Both'a' and 'b' d) None of the above Which of the following study design is better suited to demonstrate a temporal association between exposure and disease? a) Cross-sectional study b) Case-control study ¢) Cohort study d) Ecological study Relative risk of more than 1 indicates a) Incidence in unexposed is higher than exposed b) Incidence in exposed and unexposed are same c) Incidence in exposed is higher than unexposed d) Relative risk is significant If the adds of exposure among cases is lower than the odds of exposure among the controls, the odds ratio will be a) More than 1 b) Less than 1 c) It depends on other factors d) None of the above All babies born in a particular year will form a birth cohort a) True b) False Cohort study is suitable for rare diseases 8. a) True b) False Which of the following is NOT true regarding case-control study? i. Appropriate for study of rare outcome i. More time consuming than cohort Study i. Multiple exposures can be examined iv. Relatively expensive compared to 9. cohort study a) Both (i) and {ii} b) Both (ii) and (iii) c) Both (ii) and (iv) d) Both (iii) and (iv) What is an appropriate measure of statistical association in a cohort study? a) Prevalence ratio b) Risk ratio ¢) Odds ratio d) Pearson's correlation coefficient 10.The entire population of a given 11. community is screened and all those judged as being free of Colon cancer are questioned extensively about their diet. These people are then followed-up for several years to see whether their eating habits will predict their risk of developing Colon cancer - This is an example of a) Case-control study b) Clinical trial c) Cross-sectional study d) Cohort study Exposure is assigned by the investigator in which of the following epidemiological study? a) Case-control b) Cross-sectional c) Experimental d) Cohort Assignment 6 26. 27. 28. 29, d) It participants All the following are limitations of a case control study, EXCEPT a) It can introduce recall bias b) Incidence of disease cannot be determined c) Selection of appropriate control group may be difficult d) It can introduce attrition bias Using medical records from a tertiary care cancer hospital, a researcher collected data on occupational exposure and lung carcinoma on patients admitted between 2000 and 2010. He classified the patients whe had history of working in coal mines involves follow-up of the as exposed and others as unexposed. He then compared the frequency of lung carcinoma among the exposed and the unexposed. What best describes the study design? a) Case control study b) Retrospective cohort study c) Cross-sectional study d) Analytical cross-sectional study A paediatrician recruited 120 children with Crohn's disease and their matched sibling controls. The researcher collected history of exclusive breastfeeding (EBF) fram the mothers, Presence/ absence of EBF was compared between the diseased and the non-diseased children, Identify the study design in this research? a) Case series b) Cross-sectional study c) Case control study d) Cohort study Which of the following is INCORRECT about selection of cases in case control study? 30. a) Cases are study participants who had the disease in the source population b) Selection of cases should be based on the exposure status c) Inclusion of prevalent cases can save time and money d) Inclusion of prevalent cases may introduce survivor bias A multicentric study was conducted to determine the association between diabetes and cataract. The investigators recruited 1000 diabetics and 2500 non- diabetics. The participants were examined to exclude presence of cataract at the time of recruitment. They were followed once yearly for 10 years to document the development of cataract. The study found that the incidence of cataract among diabetics was more when compared with the non-diabetics. Identify the study design in this study? a) Cross-sectional study b) Case control study c) Prospective cohort study d) Experimental study Assignment 7 One of the cornerstones of the randomized controlled trials is a) Recruitment b) Randomization ¢) Blinding d) Placebo Randomized clinical trials can be best described as a) Experimental studies b) Analytic studies c) Descriptive studies d) Observational studies . Which of the following is/are true in a clinical trial? a) Sample size determination b) Approval from regulatory authority c) Agreement between the investigators and sponsors d) All of the above . A pharmacologically inactive agent that investigators administer to participants in the cantrol group of a trial a) Comparator drug b) Placebo c) Conjugate d) Drug under investigation Key methodological components of a Randomized Controlled Trials are a) Use of a control to which the experimental intervention is compared b) Random assignment of participants to intervention ¢) Taking informed consent from all study participants d) All of the above Double-blinding in a clinical trial involves a) Participants before and after study b) Participants and investigators c) Investigators and analysts d) Participants and analysis 10. 11, The purpose of a double-blinding in a clinical trial is to a) Achieve comparability of all arms of a clinical trial b) Avoid observer and participant bias c) Avoid observer bias and sampling variation d) Avoid subject bias and sampling variation What is the purpose of randomization in a clinical trial? a) Get better power for data analysis b) Generalizing the study findings to the population which is not studied c) Achieve balance in characteristics baseline d) Guarantee that the statistical tests have valid significance levels Which phase of a clinical trial is referred to as post-marketing surveillance? a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3 d) Phase 4 Long-term adverse effects and efficacy of a new drug can be tested in which of the following phases of a clinical trial? a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3 d) Phase 4 Which of the following is incorrect in case of a clinical trial? a) Allclinical trials must be blinded b) Randomization is a critically important step in a clinical trial c) All clinical trials must be approved by Institutional Ethics Committee before initiation d) It is mandatory to register clinical trials with Clinical Trials Registry of India Assignment 7 12. Which of the following procedures ensure 16. Ina clinical trial, what is the main purpose of safety of the clinical trial participants? randomization? a. Adverse events reporting a) To get more power for data analysis b. Serious adverse events reporting b) To reduce investigator bias . Periodic follow-up c) Toget groups with comparable baseline d. Review by Data Safety Monitoring Board 1) ‘at, "b', 'c', anda’ 2) ‘a’, 'b' and ‘d' 13. All the following correctly describe a clinical trial, except As characteristics d) To participants in each trial arm Which of the following can eliminate the problem of Co-intervention? ensure optimum number of a) It has all advantages of a cohort study b) It is possible to analyze the confounders ¢) Loss to follow up of study participants a) Random sampling b) Allocation concealment c) Informed consent does not affect the study outcome d) Appropriate implemented — informed consent procedure as well as long-term care and support to trial participants help to overcome several ethical concerns 14, Which of the following can be considered as an advantage of a double blinding in a randomized controlled trial? a) Equally distributes known and unknown confounders in experiment and control arm b) Ensures that participants adhere to the protocol c) Gives benefits of an intervention to some of the study participants d) Prevent bias that arises from researchers being able to influence the data due to knowledge of allocated groups 15. Biased outcome ascertainment results fram: a) Participants reporting symptoms or outcomes differently b) Investigators eliciting symptoms or outcomes following a standardized technique c) None of the above d) Both "a" and "b" 18. 19. d) Blinding Which of the following is not true in case of a clinical trial? a) Clinical trials are planned experiments designed to assess the efficacy of an intervention b) Clinical trials usually involve comparing the outcomes in two or more groups of individuals c) Clinical trials are usually free from selection bias d) Clinical trials are usually prospective in nature Which of the following trials assesses effectiveness of a new vaccine? a) Phase 1 trial done in healthy volunteers b} Phase 2 trial done in a susceptible population c) Phase 3 trial done in healthy volunteers d) Phase 3 trial done in a susceptible 20. population Which of the following is not true about a randomized control trial? a) Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups must be similar b) Investigator bias can be minimized by double blinding Assignment 8 12. Blinding in an epidemiological study is a way to deal with a) Chance b) Selection Bias c) Information Bias d) Sampling Error 13. Better recall of exposure only among the cases ina case control study can result in a) Information bias b) Confounding c) Investigator bias d) Selection bias 14. The ability of a tool to correctly measure what it is supposed to measure is called as a) Precision b) Validity c) Reliability d) Consistency 15. Bias may distort the association between exposure and outcome among the study participants a) True b) False 16. A case control study was conducted to know the effect of smoking on lung cancer among hospitalized patients. The controls were recruited from patients admitted to the respiratory ward for other conditions. What type of bias will be introduced by virtue of recruiting controls from the hospital who are potentially different from the general population? a) Selection bias b) Information bias c) Confounding d) Random error 17.4 researcher studied the effect of coffee drinking on Myocardial Infarction. The effect of coffee drinking on Myocardial Infarction was distorted because of the presence of a 18. 19. 20. 21, 22. Fa third factor, ie. smoking. This phenomenon is called as a) Correlation effect b) Confounding c) Recall bias d) Measurement error Which of the following method is used to address for known confounders at the designing stage of a study a) Matching b) Regression c) Stratification d) Adjusted analysis Systematic distortion of the truth by study subjects is called as a) Plagiarism b) Chance c) Confounding d) Prevarication Crude association in the presence of a confounder is the actual causal association a) True b) False Which of the following is the best method of ensuring that the experimental and control arms in an experimental study are similar with regard to known and unknown confounders at the planning stage? a) Matching b) Randomization c) Stratification d) Multivariate analysis When the study finding is generalizable to the target population, then it is a) Internally valid b) Reliable c) Accurate d) Externally valid Which of the following can introduce selection bias in a case control study? | Assignment 8 24, 25. 26. aT: a) Differential recall about exposure by the cases b) Collecting data differently from the exposed and unexposed c) Inclusion of controls not representative of the target population d) Systematic distortion of the truth by the study participants Which of the following is TRUE about information bias in a cohort study? a) It is caused by higher attrition rate among the exposed group b) It can be caused by selecting controls fram the community ¢) It can be avoided by uniform outcome ascertainment d) It can be minimised by reducing loss to follow-up Which of the following is NOT a systematic error in an epidemiological study? a) Random error b) Confounding c) Selection bias d) Information bias Which of the following measure is related to ensuring the internal validity of a study? a) Using a validated study questionnaire to assess outcomes b) Including an adequate number of study participants c) Complying strictly with the study protocol d) Allthe above Which of the following is FALSE about confounding in epidemiological studies? a) Confounding may simulate an association when it does not exist b) Confounding does decrease the strength of the association c) Confounding may hide an association that not increase or exists 28. 29. 30, d) Confounding may change the direction of an exposure-outcome association Systematic collection of data by an investigator supporting an expected conclusion in an epidemiological study may result in a) Confounding b) Information bias c) Selection bias d) Random error Which of the following is NOT a method of dealing with confounding during the design stage? a) Restriction b) Stratification c) Matching d) Randomization Acohort study was conducted to examine the association between obesity and cardiovascular disease. During analysis, gender was suspected to be a confounder. Which of the following methods will help in examining the confounding effect due to gender? a) Matching b) Restriction c) Randomization d) Multivariate regression Assignment 9 ‘, Which methods in qualitative research use flexible interview guide? a) In depth Interviews and participant observation b) Focus Group Discussions and In-depth interviews c) Participant Observation and focus group discussions d) Structure interviews and surveys Which of the following study designs can be used asa tool a generate ideas/hypotheses? a) Qualitative study b) Case-control study c) Experimental study d) Cohort study The qualitative data analysis method in which investigators code text into categories and build theoretical models a) Content analysis b) Grounded theory c) Schema analysis d) Hermeneutics Open-ended, one-to-one interviews to discover interviewee's own framework of meanings a) In-depth Interviews b) Focus Group Discussions c) Participant observation d) Structured interviews Audio recordings during Focus Discussions Group a) Can be done without any prior informed written consent b) Cannot be done ¢) Should always be done d) Can be done with prior informed consent All of the following are situations in which qualitative research methods can be used, EXCEPT a) Familiar and sufficiently researched matter 10, 11, b) To seek the depth of understanding c) Exploration of behaviors d) View the social phenomenon holistically The main methods used in qualitative research method include all EXCEPT a) In-depth Interviews b) Focus Group Discussions c) Participant observation d) Structured questionnaire interviews The observer becomes a part of the group or event in this method of qualitative study a) In-depth Interviews b) Focus Group Discussions c) Participant observation d) Structured interviews based All the statements regarding Participant Observation is true EXCEPT a) Observer becomes a event/group b) Systematic collection of data is easy ¢) Analytic methods for observation are not well described part of the d) Datais very detailed The qualitative data analysis method which uses theoretical framework as the basis for analysis a) Content analysis b) Grounded theory c}) Schema Analysis d) Hermeneutics Which of the following are characteristics of qualitative research methods? a) Objective, measurable, reliable and repeatable b) Subjective, measurable, credible and repeatable c) Subjective, credible, inductive and interpretation of responses d) Objective, credible, interpretation of responses inductive and Assignment 10 In a study on hypertension, patients are categorized based on their systolic blood pressure as normal, pre-hypertension, stage 1 hypertension and stage 2 hypertension. What type of variable is this? 3a) Qualitative b) Descriptive c) Nominal d) Ordinal Most commonly used measure of central tendency is a) Mode b) Median c) Mean d) Range First (Q1) is percentile quartile equivalent to a) 25th b) 50th ¢) 75th d) 1st Find the median in the following sample of observations: 12, 26, 10, 29, 48 a) 29 b) 48 c) 26 d) 25 The following measure is not influenced by extreme values in a data set a) Arithmetic Mean b) Inter-quartile range c) Range d) ‘b'and'c’ Which of the following statistic does not belong with the others? a) Range b) Variance c) Mode d) Standard deviation ‘Number of children per household' is an example of a continuous variable 10. 11. 12. 13. a) True b) False In a study, researchers are interested in measuring the cholesterol levels of participants. Cholesterol level is a variable a) Ordinal b) Nominal c) Continuous d) Discrete In the following set of data, what is the mean? 4,1,9,7,3,8,2,6 a) 5 b) 4.5 c) 9 d) 3 Difference between the minimum value and the maximum value of the observations a) Variance b) Inter-quartile range c) Range d) Standard Deviation All the following are measures of dispersion except a) Mean b) Variance c) Standard deviation d) Range Which percentile median? a) 25 b) 50 ce) 75. d) 100 All the following are true for standard deviation (SD) EXCEPT a) It is the square root of the average of the squared deviations of the observations from the arithmetic mean is equivalent to the b} It is the most important measure of dispersion | Assignment 10 14. 15, 16. 17. c) It is expressed in the same units of measurement as the observation d) The square of the standard deviation is called mean deviation A researcher measures fasting bload level of glucose of 100 participants. The mean blood sugar level was measured as 110 mg/dl. The standard deviation was 11 mg/dl. Calculate the coefficient of variance. a) 20% b) 14% c) 10% d) 25% A researcher measures the height of 100 school going children for his study. What type of variable is ‘height’? a) Nominal b) Ordinal ¢) Continuous d) Discrete Achest physician observed the distribution of forced expiratory volume (FEV) in 100 Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease (COPD) patients and calculated a median value of 2.0 litres. The value of first and third quartile of the distribution was 1.5 litres and 3.0 litres respectively. Based on this data how many patients in the sample are expected to have a FEV between 1.5 and 3.0 litres? a) 100 b) 50 c) 25 d) 75 The average of the absolute deviations of the observations from the arithmetic mean is known as a) Variance b) Inter-quartile range c) Mean deviation d) Standard deviation 18. ig. 20. 21 22. 23. In a study, a researcher was interested in measuring the hemoglobin levels of 10 participants. The values are 10.0, 8.5, 12.0, 14.0, 11.5, 13.5, 9.0, 12.0, 11.3, 7.5. What is the mode of this distribution? a) 7.5 b) 12.0 c) 10.9 d) 14.0 All the following are examples of a nominal variable EXCEPT a) Gender b) Age c) Place of residence d) Colour of eyes Which of the following is true about inter- quartile range? a) It describes the middle value of the distribution b) It divides the distribution into two halves c) It covers the middle 50% of observations d) |tis affected by the extreme values in the distribution When the data set contains too many extreme values, the most representative average value is a) Mean b} Mode c) Median d) Variance The age of ten pregnant women who visited an ANC clinic is given. What is the mean age of this group? (26, 31, 25, 26, 30, 27, 25, 32, 25 and 33 years}. a) 45 b) 28 c) 25 dj) 32 Which of the following is a relative measure of dispersion when comparing variables which are measured in different units? | Assignment 10 24, 25. 26, 27, 28, a) Inter-quartile range b) Coefficient of variation c) Range d) Standard deviation The following scores were obtained by ten medical students in a quiz: (5, 3, 6, 8, 7, 8, 3, 11, 6, 3) What is the median score of this group? a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 11 ‘Height of the students in a particular class measured in centimeter’ is an example of a continuous variable a) True b) False What is the appropriate measure of dispersion to report when median is reported as the measure of central tendency for a given set of data? a) Standard deviation b) Inter-quartile range c) Variance d) Coefficient of variance In the NCD clinic of a primary health Centre, fasting blood sugar (in g/dL) of 11 patients was measured. The following values were obtained - (85, 93, 104, 108, 105, 120, 129, 202, 160, 400, 410). What is the most appropriate measure of central tendency for this data? a) Mean = 120 b) Median = 120 c) Mean =174.1 d) Median = 174.1 Which of the following about ‘Range’ is TRUE? a) It indicates the way in which values cluster about a particular point 29. 30, b) It gives the number of observations bearing the same value c) It is the difference between the minimum and maximum value d) It shows the degree to which the mean value differs from its expected value, In a survey, socio-economic status (SES) was collected in the following manner — ‘Lower, Lower Middle, Upper Middle and Upper’. What type of variable is SES? a) Ordinal b}) Nominal ¢) Continuous d) Discrete Body weights of 11 children who attended a pediatric OPD was measured. For this group, the first quartile, median, mean and third quartile were 8.5, 12, 11.9 and 16, respectively, Calculate the Interquartile Range. a) 3.5 b) 7.5 c) O12 d) 24.5 | Assignment 11 23. 24, 25, 26. 27. b) Purposive sampling is a type of simple random sample c) It draws units from the target population randomly d) It gives equal chance of selection to every unit in the target population Sampling achieves a) Efficient utilization of resources b) Elimination of random error ¢) Low non-response rate d) Complete enumeration of population In simple random sampling, the probability of selection of each individual is a) Unequal b) Equal c) Unknown d) One Which one of the following biases is prevented by an appropriate sampling technique? a) Volunteer bias b) Interviewer’s bias ¢) Social desirability bias d) Recall bias In a neighborhood with 5000 houses, a researcher wants to obtain a systematic random sample of 50 houses. What will be the sampling interval in this case? a) 1000 b) 100 ce) O01 d) 0.01 Which one of the following statement about cluster sampling is FALSE? a) Units within a cluster are heterogeneous b) Sampling frame of the entire study area is not required c) Variability between clusters is assumed to be high d) Sampling error is difficult to measure 28. 29. 30, Which one of the following statements about multistage sampling is TRUE? a) It saves resources as compared to simple random sampling b) It requires a complete listing of the entire population c) It’s sampling error can be easily measured d) tis not suitable for sampling from a large population Which one of the following about stratified random sampling is FALSE? a) Units within a strata are homogenous b) Sample is taken from every strata c) Precision improves with low numbers sampled in each stratum d) Stratum specific estimates are weighted to obtain the overall estimate State whether True or False: Commonly used statistical inferences have the assumption of a probability sample. a) True b) False Assignment 12 Statistical power is defined as the probability of a) Accepting a null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true c) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false d) Failing to reject a null hypothesis when it is false . Steps in the estimation of sample size included all of the following EXCEPT a) Identify major study variable b) Decide on the desired precision of the estimate c) Adjust for population size d) Adjust for selection bias . Atype-ll error occurs when a) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is false b) The null hypothesis is not rejected when it is false c) The null hypothesis is not rejected when it is true d) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true Exact calculation of design effect for a study parameter can take place you after study completion a) True b) False Population variance can be estimated from a) A pilot study b) Reports of previous studies c) Guessing d) ‘a' and ‘b' . The recommended minimum level of power for an analytical study a) 5% b) 95% c) 80% d) 0.05% 10. 11, 12, In general, sample size formula takes into account the crude association between exposure and outcome as well as the confounders a) True b) False Design effect of 'more than 1' needs to be considered in studies involving a) Cluster sampling b) Simple random sampling c) Stratified random sampling d) Non-probability sampling Which of the following is necessary in sample size determination? a) Desired confidence level b) Desired precision c) Magnitude of the population variance d) All of the above Which one of the following statements is false? a) Design effect is a relative change in the variance due to use of clusters b) As the magnitude of the expected effect increases, the required sample size increases c) The population variance is unknown in general and has to be estimated d) Larger the sample size, smaller the sampling error A type-l error occurs when a) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is false b) The null hypothesis is not rejected when it is false c) The null hypothesis is not rejected when it is true d) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true Which of the following is true about 8 error? a) It is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false | Assignment 12 13. 14, 15. 16. 17, b) Itis the probability of accepting the null hypothesis when it is false c) It is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true d) It is the probability of making a Type | error All the following are essential statistical considerations for sample size calculation EXCEPT a) Desired precision b) Anticipated proportion of factor of interest c) Sampling method d) Allocated budget For each confounder/variable added in the study empirically 10% increase in the sample size should be made. a) True b) False The design effect should be calculated after completion of the study and it, need not be counted at the design stage. a) True b) False When estimating sample size for a cross- sectional study, we need to account for a) Expected proportion of characteristic of interest b) Estimated design effect, in case of cluster sampling c) Population size d) Allthe above . The power of a study a) Does not influence the sample size b) Represented as ‘a’ c) Can be defined as the probability of correctly rejecting null hypothesis when it is false d) Represented as the probability of making a Type | error 18. 19. 20. 21. The following are needed to calculate sample size for analytical studies using simple random sampling method EXCEPT a) Desired value for the probability of a b) Magnitude of the expected effect based on previous studies c) Desired value for the probability of B d) Estimated design effect A researcher to estimate the prevalence of surgical site infection following cesarean section at a tertiary care hospital. What would be the minimum number of sample size to estimate the magnitude of surgical site infection following cesarean section if it is estimated that the proportion of surgical site infection will be 10% in the wants hospital considering 5% absolute precision and 95% confidence level (Z a/2 = 1.96). a) 100 b) 138 c) 148 d) 158 Precision is described as a measure of how close an estimate is to the true value of a population parameter. a) True b) False In a cross-sectional study, a group of researchers wanted to estimate the prevalence of cephalosporin-resistant E.cali among adult males with urinary tract infections. From previous literature, the prevalence was found to be 6.5%. If the researchers want to estimate the prevalence with a 20% relative precision and 95% significance level, what is the minimum sample size required? a) 1042 b) 1381 c) 6 d) 600 | Assignment 13 12. 13. 14, 15, 16. 17. c) Subset d) Study sample The population defined by geographical and temporal characteristics is called as a) Target population b) Accessible population c) Subset d) Sample size Random errors can be effectively handled by a) Randomisation b) Representativeness ¢) Adequate sample size d) All of the above A researcher found an inference about a particular disease of interest. If he/she wants to generalize the results, itis important to have a) Internal validity b) External validity ¢) Feasibility d) Accuracy Reasons for interference with the success of follow-up in a study may include a) Out-migration of some study participants fram the study area b) Marriage of some of the female study Participants because of which they might move out of the study area c) Refusals for fallow-up d) Allofthe above Less invasive and less sensitive questionnaires will a) Increase the power b) Decrease the power c) Improve the significance d) Reduce the non-response The external validity in a research study means a) The degree to which the observed findings lead to correct inferences about phenomena taking place in the study sample 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. b) The degree to which a test actually measures what it is designed to measure The degree to which the inferences drawn from a study can be generalized to a broader population beyond the study population The degree to which the findings are reliable The degree to which the observed findings lead to correct inferences about phenomena of interest in the study sample is a) Reliability b) Feasibility c) Internal validity d) External validity Which factor is important to consider while ¢) d) choosing the accessible population and the sampling approach? a) Feasibility b) Sensitivity c) Specificity d) Reliability . The participants may be excluded from the study because of a) Interference with the success of study follow-up Ethical concerns Interference with the quality of data collection d) All ofthe above Which of the following helps to minimize the b) c) random error in a research study? a) Limited study duration b) Adequate sample size c) Adequate budget d) More than six investigators Representativeness of the study participants similar to the population of interest can help in which of the following aspects of a research study? a) Generalizability of the findings | Assignment 13 23. 24. 25, 26, 27. b) Internal validity ¢) Reduce information bias d) Minimize recall bias An investigator intends to estimate the prevalence of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) among circumcised children (<5 years old) in Jaipur city. However, the researcher selects the study participants from one government hospital. Which of the following is the target population in this study? a) All children aged <5 years in the city b) All circumcised children aged <5 years in the city c) All circumcised children aged <5 years attending the government haspital d) All children having UTI in the city Which of the following is the accessible population in the above study? a) All children aged <5 years in the city b) All circumcised children aged <5 years in the city c) All circumcised children aged <5 years attending the government hospital d) All children having UTI in the city State whether true or false. High non-response rate in a study may affect the internal validity. a) True b) False Which of the following is TRUE about study validity? a) An internally valid study result is always generalizable to the target population b) Aninternally valid study result may or may not be generalizable to the target population c) An externally valid study result is not generalizable to the target population d) A study without internal validity can be generalized to the target population Which of the following statements on study populations is TRUE? 28. 28. 30. a) Study sample is a subset of the accessible population b) Target population is a subset of the accessible population c) Accessible population is a subset of the study sample d) Target population is a subset of the study sample State whether true or false. Biases can affect both internal and external validity. a) True b) False In a community based vaccine trial, which aims to compare the 1 year incidence of intussusception in children receiving/not receiving rotavirus vaccine, which of the following can be a likely exclusion criterion? a) Children who may leave the study area within a month b) Children aged O months to 24 manths c) Children without pre-existing anomalies d) Children who have not received rotavirus intestinal vaccine previously In a cohort study planned to estimate the incidence of birth defects among Zika virus infected pregnant women in Chennai city, which of the following CANNOT be an inclusion criterion? a) First trimester pregnant women with lab- confirmed Zika virus infection b) Pregnant women who are permanent residents of Chennai city ce) Pregnant women aged above 18 years d) Pregnant women taking drugs known to cause birth defects Assignment 14 . Which of the following statements regarding study objectives is correct? a) Objectives should be defined at the planning stage of study b) Objectives can be defined at any time of the study c) Objectives can be changed even at the end of the study d) Objectives should be defined before identifying the research question . Which of the following is (are) required to determine the key indicators for planned research study? a) Frame study objectives b) Identify parameters needed for the key indicators c) Choose the right study design d) Allofthe above . Which of the following can efficiency of a research study? a) Time management b) Planning and scheduling activities c) Budgeting d) Allofthe above Which of the following correct sequence in a life cycle of a study? a) Identifying data needs, formulating study objectives, planning analysis, spelling out research question b) Formulating study objectives, planning improve represents the analysis, spelling out research question, identifying data needs ¢) Identifying data needs, spelling out research question, formulating study objectives, planning analysis d) Formulating study objects, spelling out research question, identifying data needs, planning analysis It should be products/deliverables of health projects are delivered within the ensured that research 10. a) Defined timeframe b) Defined budget ¢) Expected quality standards d) All ofthe above Which of the following statements best describes the study objectives? a) They should be minimum, achievable and clear b) They can be primary and / or secondary ¢) Adding objectives during study implementation is a good practice d) ‘a’ and'b’ Principles to be followed while collecting the information elements are a) Use the variables that will best reflect the information element b) Adopt standardize case definitions and laboratory criteria/normal ranges c) Choose the most accurate ways of collecting information on various elements d) Allof the above Study conducted following an ad hoc approach may lead to the following consequences a) Generation of useful data in programs or for policy making b) Efficient utilization of resources c) Serious difficulties in analysis and interpretation d) Allofthe above Common reasons for research study failures a) Poorly defined research question b) Vague timelines c) Lack of supervision d) Allof the above Sample size for a cross-sectional study is decided based on the following a) Assumed/reported prevalence b) Confidence interval c) Acceptable precision Assignment 14 28. 29. 30. A postgraduate wants to do a community based thesis. Which of the following is a part of the planning and program management of the study? a) Calculating sample size b) Arranging transport to community c) Writing thesis d) All the above Which of the following can be used to represent the duration, timeline and sequence of activities and milestones of a research project? a) Bar chart b) Histogram ¢) Gantt chart d) Pie chart Who is primarily responsible for resource allocation and time management in a study? a) Institute where the research is conducted b) Principal investigator c) Funding agency d) Scientific committee Assignment 15 ‘, Which component of the data collection instrument is constituted by open, closed and semi-open items? a) Introduction b) Identifier ¢) Questions d) Concluding statement Self-administered questionnaire can be a) Paper-based or computer-assisted b) Used in face-to-face interviews c) Used in telephonic interviews d) All of the above While formulating the questions, all the following need to be followed, EXCEPT a) Short and clear questions b) Avoid ambiguities c) Avoid words of every-day language d) Avoid negatives and double negatives Structured observation guide a) Is useful to document certain processes b) Use checklist of items c) Can be used for in-depth interviews d) ‘a' and '‘b' The interviewer does not provide options for responses in a) Open-ended questions b) Close-ended questions c) Semi-open questions d) All of the above What is questions with dichotomous options in a the disadvantage of closed study questionnaire? a) Detailed information available b) Oversimplifies the issues ¢) Forces an unclear position d) May not be useful for key well framed issues The about participant's attitudes for behaviors such as wearing information helmets, constitute washing hands before eating, 10. 11. a) Facts b) Knowledge c) Judgments d) Texts The type of questions in which there is a possibility to add other answer in addition to the options suggested a) Open questions b) Semi-open questions c) Closed questions d) Close questions with multiple options The type of questions in a questionnaire which allow creation of continuous variables as responses a) Closed questions with quantitative answers b) Open answers c) Both of the above d) None of the above All are true questions with quantitative regarding the order of questions in a data collection toal EXCEPT a) From intimate to casual b) From general to specific c) From simple to complicate d) In chronological if questions related to sequence of events A question was framed by an ophthalmologist as a part of data collection tool for her research- “Which of the following symptoms you had in the last one order, week?” The options were 1, Fye pain 2. Redness of eye 3. Watering of eye 4. Low vision Given that a study participant may have multiple complaints, which of the follawing best describes the type of question? a) Open question b) Closed questions with dichotomous options c) Closed question with multiple options | Assignment 15 d) Closed answers 12. A researcher has framed a question in the research toal as- “What is the monthly income of the family?” This information constitutes i Facts Knowledge Judgments. iv. Healthy Life styles 13. Which of the following is correct in relation to an open question? a) Answers are suggested b) Stimulate memory c) Easy to code and analysis d) Freedom to respond is compromised question with quantitative 14. Glasgow coma Scale (GCS) is a scoring system to understand the consciousness level of a person. The score varies between 3 and 15. A researcher has included a question in research toal- “What is the GCS score during admission?” This question is an example of: a) Open question b) Closed option c) Closed question with multiple option d) Closed question answers 15. An investigator wanted to study the clinical question with dichotomous with quantitative profile of patients presented with foreign body in nose, attended in the emergency department in the last 2 years in a hospital. Which of the following is the most suitable way to collect data? a) Review of records b) Cohort study c) Randomized trial d) Focus group discussion 16. Order of a question should be all, except a) From simple to complicated 17. 18. 19, 20, 21. a b) From general to specific c) From intimate to casual d) In chronological order Structured observation guide a) Is useful to document certain process b) Uses checklist of items c) Both ‘a’ and'‘b' d) None of the above Which of the following factors related to data collection may lead to study failures? a) Poorly defined research question b) Vague timelines c) Lack of supervision d) All of the above In which of the following type of question the interviewer does not provide options for responses? a) Open-ended questions b) Close-ended questions c) Semi-open questions d) Closed question with multiple options ‘Age in years' is commonly a continuous variable. However, a resident doctor decided to ask age as a closed question with dichotomous options (If age>65 years or <65 years), What is the disadvantage of such type of ques in a study questionnaire? a) Detailed information available b) Oversimplifies the issues c} Forces an unclear position d) It is easy to convert a dichotomous variable to a continuous variable Which one of the following is NOT a component of a data collection tool? a) Informed consent b) Concluding statements c) \dentifiers d) Tabulated results Which of the following is TRUE about a data abstraction form? | Assignment 16 d) None of the above 14. State whether true or false: Piloting a data collection tool should be done under supervision a) True b) False 15. All of the following are true about a ‘question by question guide’, except a) It is adocument for the data collectors b) It helps in maintaining uniformity of the data collection ¢) Ithelps participants on how to respond d) It clarifies doubts on data collection 16, Time pressure during data collection may result in dilution of the data quality a) True b) False 17. Which one of the following is the proper way of validating the data? a) Repetition of full data collection in the same population b) Data collection in a new population c) Repetition of data collection randomly selected subset in the same population in a d) Repeat data collection not required 18. Which of the following statement is true regarding data collection for an epidemiological study? a) Reliability refers to consistency of information b) Accuracy is the ability of a measurement to be correct on an average ) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) None of the above Who is mainly responsible to check the accuracy of data collection instruments before leaving the location? a) Field investigator b) Field supervisor c) Principle investigator 19. 20. 21, 22. 23, 24. d) Study participant All the following statements are true about training of the data collectors, except a) Essential to ensure good quality data b) The investigators should choose the right people c) Communication skill is important for the data collectors d) Onsite training is not essential for data collectors The ability of an instrument to produce similar results on repeated measurement is called a) Validity b) Reliability c) Accuracy d) Sensitivity The mean value of fasting blood sugar among 50 healthy volunteers in a community was found to be 90 g/dL with a standard deviation of 5 mg/dL using a new diagnostic test. In the same volunteers, the gold standard test found a mean of 88 g/dL with standard deviation of 4.7 g/dl. What can be said about the new diagnostic test? a) The new diagnostic test is valid b) The new diagnostic test is reliable c) The new diagnostic test is valid and reliable d) The new diagnostic test is invalid and unreliable Which of the following is NOT used as a to judge the quality of data collected in a study? a) Accuracy b) Repeatability c) Precision d) External validity Which of the following should NOT be done during data collection in a study? a) Referring to the data collection guide criterion | Assignment 16 25, 26, 27. 28. 29. b) Checking the quality of data c) Modifying the study objectives d) Validating the data collection process State whether true or false. Accuracy of an instrument is the ability to measure what it intends to measure. a) True b) False Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps of data collection? i. Preparation of data collection guide i, Checking the collected data for completeness iil. Training of the data collector iv. Validating the collected data b) il, iii, iv, i ¢) i, iii, ii, iv d) ili, i, ty, iii State whether true and false. A data collection guidebook can be revised time to time as issues in the data collection process are identified. a) True b) False Which of the following should NOT be done during training of data collectors? a) Simulating the data collection procedure b) Discussing the study objectives with them ct) Using an early version of the questionnaire for training d) Revising the question guide according to queries . Which of the following does NOT apply in checking the quality of filled forms during data collection? a) Completeness b) Consistency c) Readability d) Statistical significance 30. During data collection in a study, a data collector is faced with a situation where the participant refuses to answer a particular question in the middle of the interview. What is the appropriate action in this situation? a) End the interview and report to the investigator b) Continue the remaining questions c) Seek the answer to that question from family members d) Try to persuade the participant to answer the question somehow interview with the | Assignment 17 ‘, Steps in data management include a) Defining a variable, creating a study database and dictionary b) Enter data, correct errors and create data set for analysis c) Backup and archive data set d) Allofthe above When we are creating variable name, it should be a) Clearly understandable and should refer to the questionnaire b) Long and can have spaces ¢) Consistent and without duplicates d) ‘a'and'c’ In a data management system, each row represents a a) Variable b) Record ¢) Heading d) Appendix What is (are) the specifications that we need to check before doing data entry? a) Minimum and maximum values, legal codes, skip patterns b) Record name and description of record c) Automatic coding, coping data from preceding record and calculations d) ‘a'and'c’ Identifier in the database is (are) a) Unique b) Maintained by a computerized index ¢) Secured by quality assurance procedures d) Allofthe above Key elements of data management a) Data structure and data entry b) Individual and aggregated databases c) Mother and daughter databases d) Allofthe above The design of data collection instrument a) Data entry friendly 10. 11. 2: b) Outline of data collection topics/items ¢) Auto coding function d) All ofthe above When we are coding for data entry, we should a) Prefer numerical coding b) Use highly complex codes c) Decide on the codes for ‘missing values’ and ‘not applicable’ items d) ‘a’and'c’ When information is available at various levels (e.g. at Village, Household, Individual and Illness episode), we can store information at each level in separate databases and link when necessary a) True b) False Which of the following is (are) not true about normalized database? a) Normalized database facilitates further aggregation b) It has only one count by record major c) Normalized database does not facilitate further data aggregation d) ‘a’ and 'b' A post-graduate researcher has completed the data collection for her thesis. Ouring data management, she should do all the following, except a) Applying for the ethics committee clearance b) Create study database c) Create dataset for analysis d) Back-up dataset Data documentation includes information about the following items a) Structure (Name, number of records etc) alone b) Storage information (Media, backup information) location, Assignment 18 ‘, 6. The three stages of data analysis are in the following order a) Descriptive stage, analytical stage and recoding stage b) Recoding stage, descriptive stage and analytical stage c) Analytical stage, descriptive stage and recoding stage d) Descriptive stage, coding stage, recoding stage We need to avoid the following while performing data analysis a) Post hoc analysis b) Data drenching c) Stratified data analysis d) ‘a'and ‘b' In the descriptive stage of analysis, we use logistic regression models a) True b) False "Epi-Info" is a software used for data entry and data analysis a) True b) False In analytical stage of data analysis, we perform the following in order a) Stratified analysis, univariate analysis and multivariate analysis b) Univariate analysis, stratified analysis and multivariate analysis c) Multivariate analysis, univariate analysis and stratified analysis d) Frequency analysis and analysis Among the seven steps of data analysis strategy, the sequence of data analysis is as follaws A. Conduct advanced analysis 8. Identify main variables C. Become familiar with the data D. Identify study type univariate 10. 11, E. Examine outcome/expasure association F. Characterize study population G. Create additional two-way tables a) A,B,C, D,E,F,G b) G,E,F,D, A, B,C c) D,B,C,F,E,G,A d) £,F,G,C,A,B,D In case of descriptive studies, which of the following is wrong? a) We describe the study outcome for 1 group b) We compare the study outcome for 2 groups c) We calculate the incidence for cohort or surveillance data d) We sectional survey If we are doing an analytical study and the study outcome is of acute nature and rare condition what is the appropriate (i) study design and (ii) measure of association? a) Cohort study - Relative risk b) Case-control study - Odds ratio c) Cross-sectional study - Prevalence ratio d) Surveillance - Incidence Analysis plan depends on a) Objectives of the study b) Budget c) Study type (Descriptive or analytical) d) ‘a'and 'c’ Use of spreadsheets, such as Excel, should be avoided for data management and analysis a) True b) False Multivariate regression models are used during the descriptive stage of analysis a) True b) False calculate prevalence for cross Assignment 18 12. “Epi-Info” is a software that can be used to create data collection instrument format a) True b) False 13. In a research study the analysis plan depends on a) Objectives and study type b) Allocated budget c) Availability of the statistician d) Existing time for analysis 14, At the time of data cleaning, which of the following is not done? a) Checking and removing duplicates b) Dealing with missing observations ¢) Calculating strength of association d) Checking range and legal values 15. To describe the study characteristics we need to a) Calculate the frequency distribution b) Calculate measures of association ¢) Look for correlation between variables d) perform multivariable regression While examining the association between population 16, ‘exposure and outcome based on a priori hypotheses, we compare frequency of exposures between cases and controls using appropriate measure of association a) True b) False 17. If we are doing an analytical study and the study outcome is of acute nature and a frequent condition what is the appropriate (i) study design and (ii) association? a) Cohort study - relative risk b) Case-control study = odds ratio c) Crass sectional study - Prevalence d) Surveillance - Incidence 18. Which of the following statements are CORRECT measure of 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. a) Plan for data analysis is made at the end of the study b) Recoding can be done for key variables c) Multivariate analysis is done before doing a univariate analysis d) Data drenching is acceptable Which of the following is the correct sequence for data analysis i Multivariate analysis Recoding iii. Measures of association iv. Frequency distribution iv, i b) i, iii, ivii c) d) ili, iy, i, ii Spreadsheets are ideal tools for data entry and analysis a) True b) False All the following are done to characterize the study population EXCEPT a) Provide frequency distribution of age b) Provide percentages of gender c) Compare baseline characteristics of study groups d) Conduct logistic regression analysis Which of the following is the appropriate measure of association in a case-control study? a) Odds ratio b) Prevalence ratio c) Relative risk d) Incidence State whether true or false. Prevalence ratio is one of the measures of association calculated in an analytical cross-sectional study. a) True b) False Assignment 18 24. State whether true or false. Hypothesis testing is conducted in an analytical epidemiological study. a) True b) False 25. Identify the correct sequence in the steps of data analysis. i. Identify exposure, other variables ii, Check data for consistency, duplicates and missing values ii, Examine — association between outcome and exposure iv. Examine baseline characteristics of the study population outcome and c) ii, iv, d) iii, i, ii, iv 26. Which of the following is NOT done during the analytic stage of data analysis? a) Calculating frequency of the outcome in one group b) Calculating frequency of the outcome by age and gender ¢) Calculating odds exposure and outcome d) Applying logistic regression 27, Relative risk is calculated in which of the following study designs? ratio between a) Cross-sectional study b) Cohort study c) Case study d) Case control study 28, State whether true or false. Risk ratio can be calculated in a descriptive cross- sectional study. a) True b) False 29. In a case-control study to examine the association between mobile phone use and 30. acoustic neuroma, 24 cases of acoustic neuroma and 72 hospital controls were recruited from the ENT department of a medical college in Gilgit. History of mobile phone use (>6 hours/day) was ascertained using was controls, a standard questionnaire. Exposure present among 16 cases and 18 Calculate the measure of association, a) Odds ratio 1.5 b) Relative risk 1.5 c) Odds ratio 6 d) Relative risk G Ina case control conducted taking 100 autism children and 200 normal children in Bhopal city, it was found that 90 autism children and 60 normal children had a history of instrumental delivery. Calculate the measure of association between instrumental delivery and autism. a) 12 b) 21 c) 6 d) 9 Assignment 19 21. 22. 23. 24, 25. addition, informed consent will be required from: a) Parent of adolescent girls b) Institutional Head c) Both d) None of the above State whether true or false. Review of health records for research does NOT require approval of institute ethics committee a) True b) False A participant wants to withdraw from a study before its completion. Which of the following principles of ethics entitles him/her to do so? a) Autonomy b) Justice c) Beneficence d) Non-maleficence . Which of the following does NOT describe ethical principles in research? a) Nuremberg cade b) Helsinki declaration c) Council for International Organization and Medical Sciences d) Bhore report When a research study is planned among adolescents (12-15 years), the following is NOT required? a) Assent from participant b) Consent from participant c) Consent from parent d) Consent representative Non-Maleficence means a) Self-respect b) Dono harm ¢) Fair and correct d) Doing good from legally accepted 26. an 28. 29, 30. State whether true or false. Once a participant has provided informed consent, it cannot be withdrawn. a) True b) False Which of these is NOT a part of informed consent process? a) Confidentiality b) Disclosure of risks and benefits ¢) Compensation for lost wages d) Encouraging the person to consent Which of the following statement is NOT correct? a) Compensation for participants is offered for trial related injury b) Research participants can be paid for travel expenses c) Payment can be offered to encourage Participation d) Wage loss of the participants can be compensated Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Institutional Ethics Committee? a) Evaluate the potential benefit from the study to the community b) Protect the rights of the study participants c) Sanction funding for the study d) Re-evaluate the study if and when modified When a particular ethnic group is excluded from a research study without any valid, scientific reason(s), this is breach of - a) Autonomy b) Justice c) Beneficence d) Non maleficence Assignment 20 ‘, A study design that randomly assigns participants into an experimental group or a control group is call as a) Cohort study b) Case-control study ¢) Randomized controlled trials d) Cross-sectional study Which of the following statements is (are) true in case of adverse events in a clinical trial? a) An unexpected clinical/familial/social problem that occurs during treatment with a drug or other therapy is termed as adverse event b) Adverse events do not have to be caused by the drug or therapy under trial c) Temporal relationship between study product administration and adverse events is critically important d) Allofthe above To ensure that safety and welfare of the research participants is adequately protected, it is important that the clinical trial protocol is critically reviewed for the following a) Scientific content b) Ethical issues c) Regulatory norms d) Allofthe above Informed consent is provided after explanation of a) Allstudy procedures b) Risks c) Benefits d) Allofthe above Bodies like Drug Controller General of India (DCG!) and Health Ministry Screening Committee (HMSC) are concerned with the following a) Regulatory review b) Scientific review c) Ethics review d) Allofthe above Which of the following is (are) monitored in a clinical trial? a) Adherence to Good Clinical Practice (GCP) b) Documentation of informed consent, randomization and study product administration c) Adverse events reporting d) All of the above The primary responsibilities of the Data Safety Monitoring Body (DSMB) are to a) Periodically review and evaluate the accumulated study data for participant safety, study conduct and progress of trial b) Periodically review and evaluate the accumulated study data for participant safety, study conduct and progress and make recommendation concerning the continuation, modification, or termination of the trial c) Periodically make recommendations concerning the continuation, modification, or termination of the trial d) Decide the randomization sequence Which of the following best describes the advantages of conducting a Randomized controlled trial? a) It is only effective design for overcoming selection bias of participants b) The result can be readily generalized c) It is a simple, uncomplicated and nonregulated study design d) It requires small sample size When is the Informed consent obtained from the subjects in a clinical trial? a) Prior to participation in the trial b) Just after the trial has started | Assignment 20 10. il. 12, 13. 14. c) At any point during the conduct of a trial d) At the end of the trial Investigators are required to report adverse events occurring during a clinical trial to which of the following agencies? a) Regulatory authority b) Sponsor ¢) Institutional Ethics Committee d) Allofthe above A method of allocating treatment such that each subject has an equal chance of receiving any of the possible treatments in a clinical trial is known as: a) Blinding b) Randomization ¢) Allocation concealment d) None of the above. Which of the following regarding document storage and archival after the conclusion of a trial; is correct? a) If the data is computerized, there is no need to archive paper based records. b) The investigator has a right to refuse to regulatory statements show the data even to authorities ¢) Archival for a period of 5 - 15 years as per the requirement of the sponsor may be necessary d) Allofthe above Which of the following is not true? a) Data Safety Monitoring Body (DSMB) is an independent entity. b) DSMB is appointed by the Investigators c) DSMB periodically and evaluates the accumulated study data for participants’ safety d) DSMB assures that the integrity of the trial is maintained during the period of interim analysis An unexpected clinical/ familial/ problem that occurs while on treatment reviews scientific social 15, 16. 17. 18. with a drug or other therapy during participation in a clinical trial without any judgment about causality or relationship to the drug is known as: a) Serious adverse event b) Adverse event c) Reportable event d) None of the above Clinical trials require review at various levels as per the in-country guidelines. State whether true or false. a) True b) False The most common method of preventing potential harm to study participants is by adhering to ‘trial stoppage rules’ based on evidence on unacceptable adverse effects rates seen toxicity or during monitoring. State whether true or false, a) True b) False Which of the following is true about screening protocol of a clinical trial? a) Those who are interested in participating in the trial participate in an interview may have to undergo medical examination b) Eligibility of the potential participant is determined in screening c} Information on study related procedures and inclusion and exclusion criteria are provided by the study investigators to the potential participants d) All the above three statements are true e}) None of the above is true f) Only ‘a’ is true Reimbursements for which of the following raise no ethical questions? a) Compensating for the time spent in coming over and the loss of daily wages due to participation Assignment 21 ‘, If there are many study objectives, it may be necessary to differentiate the objectives into primary and secondary or general and specific objectives a) True b) False Which among the following is not a component of concept paper? a) Background and Justification b) Objectives and Methods c) Expected benefits, Key references and Budget d) Conclusion Which of the following is NOT true about references in the concept paper? a) We can cite references in Introduction and Methods section b) It is important to write references following standard guidelines ¢c) Statements should be linked to references d) We can have as many references as possible The "Background and Justification" section in the concept paper should be written in the following sequence a) Known and unknown aspects of the problem, information that needs to be generated to address the problem in an effective manner and statement of objectives b) Known and unknown aspects of the problem, Importance of the study problem and information that needs to be generated to address the problem in an effective manner c) Importance of the study problem, known and unknown aspects of the problem and information that needs to be generated to address the problem in an effective manner d) Information that needs to be generated to address the problem in an effective manner, known and unknown aspects of the prablem and statement of objectives Advantages of writing a concept paper include a) You may be able to organize your ideas b) It gives an opportunity to stand out and receive a positive response from reviewers c) You are sure to get funding d) ‘a’ and'b" . The elements of the methods section in the concept proposal needs to be adopted according to the study design chosen a) True b) False . The ethics section of the concept proposal should include information about a) Key measures taken to protect the study participants b) The ethics committee to which the study will be submitted for approval c) Scientific committee that will review the study d) ‘a’ and ‘b’ Which of the following needs to be spelt out in “Expected benefits" section of the concept proposal? a) Expected outputs that the study will generate with timeline b) Proposed immediate action based on research findings c) How this research may set agenda for further research d) All of the above Budget estimate is not mandatory in the concept proposals. However, it would be very useful to prepare the indicative budget for key items a) True | Assignment 21 10. 11, 12. 13. 14. b) False While writing the concept papers for intervention studies, the methods section must have the following details a) Primary and secondary definitions b) Randomization, sequence allocation and allocation concealment c) Dose, frequency, nature of Intervention d) Allofthe above outcome Immediately after identification of research topic and statement of objectives, it may be preferable to a) Write protocol b) Outline one-page concept paper c) Prepare dummy tables as per the analysis plan d) Seek review by an institutional ethics committee References need to be written following standard guidelines such as International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICIMJE) a) True b) False Which of the following is the guideline that can be used for drafting protocols for a clinical trial? a) SPIRIT b) PRISMA ¢) CARE d) STROBE Why is concept paper necessary for a research project? a) It helps to finish the data collection rapidly b) It helps to organize the ideas c) It helps to get instant approval of ethics committee d) It helps to publish the research quickly 15. 16, 17, 18. 19, 20. Which of the following components are included in the background and justification section of the concept paper a) Context of the study problem b) Operational definitions c) Sampling technique d) Study procedure Which of the following information is not addressed in the ethics section of the concept paper? a) Information about sample and data storage b) Key measures taken to protect the study participants c) The ethics committee to which the study will be submitted for approval d) Budget for salary of the projects staff Which of the following is a component of concept paper? a) Abstract b) Objectives and Methods c) Conclusion d) Discussion What is the basis for writing a one page concept paper? a) Lack of time to draft a complete protocol b) Overcomes inhibitions in drafting a complete protocol c) It is mandatory for scientific committee protocol d) For ethics committee approval The indicative budget in a concept paper includes salaries, per diem, travel, equipment and supplies a) True b) False The concept paper helps agencies for a) Screening the proposal for funding b) Scientific committee approval c) Ethics committee approval d) Publishing the manuscript Assignment 21 21. Which of the following is NOT included in 22, 23, 24. 25, 26. the background section of a concept paper? a) Importance of a health problem b) Known fact about the health problem c) Prior contribution of the researcher in the topic d) Knowledge gap in that topic The methods section of the concept paper contains the following: a) Key operational definitions. b) Conclusions ¢) Context of study d) Novelty of the study Which of the following best describes the ‘Expected Benefits’ section of a concept paper? a) Financial benefit to the funding agency b) Policy changes based on the study findings ¢) Financial benefit to the researcher d) Academic improvement of researchers Which of the following are components of a the concept paper? a) Study title and references. b) Study title, abstract and references c) Abstract and references d) Study title, results and references Sampling strategy is discussed in which of the following section of a concept paper? a) Background b) Objectives ¢) Methodology d) Results Which of the following statement is true about the ‘Reference’ section of a concept paper? a) References must be written following standard guidelines b) Unlimited references are preferred in a concept paper 27. 28. 29. 30. c) Reference section is usually an optional component d) References are usually required for the results section A post graduate has mentioned the estimated budget for her thesis to be 50,000 INR in the concept paper. Which of the following components of the budget may not be justified? a) Salary for data collectors b) Travel cost for data collection c) Equipment cost d) Remuneration for the thesis guide Identify the INCORRECT statement about protecol writing? a) A protocol is a must for obtaining the ethics committee approval b) A well-written protocol is often helpful to draft a one-page concept proposal c) All known facts in a protocol must be supported by appropriate reference d) Peer review helps in improving the quality of a protocol All the followings are recommended while writing a concept paper, EXCEPT a) Preparing a concise document b) Presenting mostly in bullet forms c) Describing the methods section in detail d) Restricting the number of objectives Which of the following is a consideration in framing the objectives of a concept paper? a) Choosing appropriate action verbs b) Calculating sample size based on the secondary objectives c) Stating broad objectives d) Allthe above | Assignment 22 25, 26, 27. 28. 29, c) It should be broad and non-specific d) It may be supported by appropriate references Which of the following component is LEAST appropriate for a project implementation plan? a) Calculating sample size b) Coordinating project activities c) Assigning job responsibilities d) Preparing project timeline Human subjects are protected by all the following mechanisms, EXCEPT a) Obtaining informed consent from the participants b) Reviewing praposal committee c) Incentivizing participation d) Compensating participants for loss of wages Which section of a protacol describes the need to maintain anonymity of study participants while sharing data to others? by the ethics target population for a) Human subject protection b) Data collection methods c) Data analysis plan d) Expected benefits In the methods section of a protocol, a researcher can include all the following, EXCEPT a) Analysis plan b) Supportive reference ) Expected benefits d) Quality assurance The number of study participants required for a research study can be decided by a) Pilot study b) Sample size calculation c) Sampling procedure d) Allthe above 30. State whether true or false. Researchers can amend a research protocol after re- obtaining the ethics committee clearance for the amendments made. a) True b) False | Assignment 23 ‘, All of the following statements regarding research publications are correct, Except a) Publishing paper is important for getting promotion in academic institutions b) Publishing research findings help to identify the research gaps c) Negative findings in a research should not be published d) Publishing research findings improves the credibility of a researcher A senior resident of Psychiatry department of a medical college wrote a manuscript based on his thesis work. He has put his wife's name as a co-author who is working in the Physiology department of the same college. Which of the following statements supports the act of the senior resident in providing authorship to his wife? a) He can give authorship to anyone since it is his research work b) The guide should decide on who should be the authors c) His wife has contributed in designing the residents’ thesis work d) It is not a good practice to include researcher fram different department as authors. Which of the following is incorrect about authorship? a) Authorship confers credit, implies responsibility and accountability of the published work b) International Committee of Medical Journal Editors recommends criteria on authorship c) It is mandatory to contribution of each author d) It is not mandatory that all authors should approve the final version of the manuscript declare the 4, Which of the following is false about plagiarism? a) It can be copying and pasting of contents from a published manuscript b) It can be copying someone's idea c) It is not considered as a_ serious publication misconduct d) 'Urkund! is one of the software used to check plagiarism Which of the following is (are) the consequence(s) of plagiarism of manuscript? a) The journal can retract the manuscript b) Institute can take action on the author/researcher c) The researcher loses professional reputation d) All of the above You have finished writing a manuscript and plan to publish it. Which of the following is the best practice? a) Submit to multiple journals at the same time b) Submit to a journal and wait for the journal's response c) Submit to many journals; once it gets published in one journal, withdraw it from the other journals d) Submit the same manuscript in different languages to different journals A researcher conducted a study to identify risk factors for exacerbation of bronchial asthma. The researcher was due for job promotion. However, the researcher was lacking enough publications to ensure promotion. Hence, in order to have maximum number of publications from the work, the researcher decided to produce three different manuscripts instead of one manuscript comprehensively covering all Assignment 23 10. 11. aspects of the study. What is this act called? a) Plagiarism b) Falsification c) Salami slicing d) Fabrication Which of the following organizations directly deals with publication ethics? a) Indian Medical Association (IMA) b) Committee on Publication Ethics (COPE) c) World Health Organization (WHO) d) Joint National Committee (JNC) A group of researchers submitted a manuscript for publication based on a drug trial. Because they did not register under the clinical trial registry of India (CTRI), one reputed journal rejected the paper. The researcher resubmitted the paper in a different journal and this journal published it without asking any queries. Which of the follawing is the correct statement? a) It is necessary to register all drug trials under CTRI b) The journal which published the paper is likely to be a predatory journal ¢) Both ‘a’ and 'b' are correct d) None of the above Among the following which is the best practice for determining the authorship? a) Authorship can be based on the criteria given by ICMJE b) Authorship should be decided after submission to a journal c) It is necessary to include head of the department/institution as a co-author d) Authorship can be gifted to friends even if they have not contributed to that study Which of the following is incorrect about publishing a research work? 12, 13. 14, 15. a) Publishing paper is important for getting promotion in academic institutions b) Publishing research findings helps to identify the research gaps c) Common people should not read such research findings d) None of the above All clinical trials in India should be registered with Clinical Trial Registry of India. a) True b) False A neonatologist planned to conduct a clinical trial to explore the effect of intervention X on hypothermia of the (Age <7 days) intervention A (The current practice). All the following are true about the trial, except a) Ethics Committee approval is a must to conduct the trial b) The trial should be registered under the Clinical Trial Registry of India newborn children over c) Informed consent should be taken from either of the parents d) Age appropriate assent is a must in this trial Manipulating data is known as fabrication a) True b) False Which of the following is correct about determining the authorship? a) The investigators can follow guideline to determine authorship b) The sequence should always be based on alphabetical orders c) The investigators should include the head of the institution's irrespective of his/ her contribution ICMJE name d) None of the above