BKAT 9R exam-with 100% verified solutions 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

Download BKAT 9R exam-with 100% verified solutions 2024-2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! BKAT 9R exam-with 100% verified solutions 2024-2025 Initial measure for the treatment of angina pectoris does not include which response below? 1. resting 2. beta blockers 3. oxygen 4. nitroglycerine beta blockers The classical ECG change with muscle injury in acute myocardial infarction is: 1. presence of a Q wave 2. ST segment elevation 3. myocardial electrical irritability 4. a peaked T wave ST segment elevation Elevated cardiac iso-enzyme generally does not occur in which response below? 1. Closed chest injury 2. pericarditis 3. congestive heart failure 4. cardiac surgery Congestive heart failure The major therapeutic goal in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is to: 1. Increase the afterload 2. Improve renal perfusion 3. Increase cardiac output 4. Decrease fluid volume Increase cardiac output You receive orders to starte Nipride and Dobutamine in your patient with end-stage cardiomyopathy. How will this treatment regimen affect cardiac output? 1. Increase preload and reduces afterload 2. Reduces preload and increases afterload 3. Reduces preload and afterload and improves contractility 4. Reduces preload and improves contractility Reduces preload and afterload and improves contractility In dealing with a depressed patient during the first days post AMI the most appropriate nursing action would be: 1. Encourage to patient to ventilate his/her concerns 2. Provide for privacy so the patient can rest 3. Limit visits only to family members 4. Provide a quiet environment for the patient Encourage the patient to ventilate his/her concerns Mr. Seamore is receiving thrombolytics (TPA) 3 hours after an AMI. Which of the following would most likely require discontinuing the infusion? 1. PVCs 2. Bleeding gums 3. Oozing at the insertion site 4. Change in mental status Change in mental status 1. (10-20)/(0-4) mean 5-10 2. (21-30)/(5-15) mean 11-20 3. (31-35)/(16-20) mean 21-30 4. (36-45)/(21-23) mean 31-33 11-2 How many mm Hg is the normal PAOP 1. 1-3 2. 6-12 3. 15-20 4. 21-26 6-12 An elevated PAOP may indicate: 1. Hypovolemia 2. Peripheral vasodilation 3. systemic hypotension 4. left ventricular failure left ventricular failure Mr. Adams, a 68 yo patient, complains of feeling "a little funny in his chest." His ECG shows atrial fibrillation/flutter. Which of the following medications could be used to treat his cardiac rhythm? 1. Digoxin 2. Nifedipine 3. Diltiazem 4. Adenosine Diltiazem A QRS complex wider than 0.12 seconds most likely indicates: 1. Normal sinus node conduction 2. Bundle branch block 3. Second degree heart block 4. myocardial infarction bundle branch block The following rhythm represents: First degree HB Special care should be exercised when administering IV dopamine because: 1. Infiltration leads to tissue necrosis 2. High doses may lead to a profound bradycardia 3. Precipitation can occur when used in a dextrose IV solution 4. even low doses decrease renal perfusion Infiltration leads to tissue necrosis The following strip is: Aflutter A strong ventricular stimulus is potentially dangerous when it lands on the: 1. U wave 2. P wave 3. T wave 4. QRS complex T wave The rhythm strip below shows: VTach An indication for use of an external cardiac pacemaker includes: 1. paroxysmal atria tachycardia 2. Ventricular fibrillation 3. Wenckebach (Mobitz Block Type 1) 4. Symptomatic complete heart block Symptomatic complete heart block In the following rhythm strip the transvenous pacemaker shows: 1. Failure to sense 2. Demand pacing 3. Failure to fire 4. Failure to capture Failure to sense The initial drug treatment for sustained ventricular tachycardia when a pulse is present is: 4. 80 150 A patient becomes apneic and pulseless. The monitor shows asystole. The drug that would most likely be used initially is: 1. verapamil 2. atropine 3. epinephrine 4. amiodarone Epinephrine The antidote for heparin is: 1. Protamine sulfate 2. Narcan 3. Glucagone hydrochloride 4. vitamin K Protamine sulfate The most important step in preventing central venous catheter related sepsis is: 1. Use of a transparent membrane dressing 2. Scrubbing access ports with alcohol 3. using antibiotic ointment under the dressing 4. thorough hand washing Thorough hand washing An excessive amount of chest tube drainage in the first few hours following thoracic surgery is how many ml's per hour? 1. 150 2. 75 3. 50 4. 30 150 A routine check of your patient's blood gas values show a pH of 7.40, pO2 of 98 mm Hg, pCO2 of 38 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 25 mEq. These results reflect: 1. metabolic acidosis 2. metabolic alkalosis 3. normal values 4. respiratory compensation normal values Before suctioning a patient, you adjust the vacuum pressure so that it is: 1. 150 mm Hg of vacuum pressure 2. as high as needed to effectively remove secretions 3. 120 mm Hg of vacuum pressure 4. no higher than the diastolic blood pressure 120 mm Hg of pressure Your post-operative patient has a left anterior chest tube. When you auscultate the lung fields bilaterally, you hear diminished breath sounds in the right posterior base. This would most likely be due to: 1. pleuritis 2. consolidation 3. the chest tube 4. atelectasis atelectasis Your patient is on a ventilator. The low volume alarm sounds. This may be due to: 1. pulmonary edema 2. increasing secretions 3. a disconnected tube 4. biting the tube a disconnected tube To assess proper positioning of an endotracheal tube, the most appropriate nursing action would be to: 1. check for a change in the respiratory rate 2. listen for bilateral breath sounds 3. check for chest expansion 4. listen for minimal leak of the cuff Listen for bilateral breath sounds Mr. Ray has an endotracheal tube. While you are making rounds, you ask if his breathing is okay. In an audible tone, he says "yes". You should first: 1. raise the head of the bed 2. ask the patient to cough 3. notify the physician 4. check the functioning of the cuff 1. heart rate 2. respirations 3. urinary output 4. pupillary response to light respirations The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure generally involves changes in: 1. response to pain 2. level of consciousness 3. equality of pupillary reactions 4. respiratory rate level of consciousness 53. Deepening intracranial pressure is characterized by: 1. tachycardia 2. pinpoint pupils 3. widened pulse pressure 4. increasing respirations Widened pulse pressure The drug of choice used to reduce increased intracranial pressure is: 1. the calcium channel blocker 2. phenobarbital 3. Mannitol 4. Furosemide (Lasix) Mannitol A positive Babinski response in an adult: 1. Indicates depressed reflexes 2. Is an expected finding 3. Is plantar flexion (curling under) of the toes 4. Indicates an abnormal finding Indicates an abnormal finding The nursing care of patient during the acute phase of a stroke does not include which response below? 1. Providing a quiet environment for the patient and family 2. Control of airway breathing and secretions 3. Initiating t-PA, if within first 8 hours post stroke 4. Alertness to any bleeding that might occur Initiating t-PA, if within first 8 hours post stroke The most important part of a neuro check is: 1. Testing strength of grip 2. Assessing pupillary response to light 3. Evaluating the level of consciousness 4. Comparing any change in speech patterns Evaluating the level of consciousness Signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis include: 1. Increasingly severe headache, and slow and shallow breathing 2. Hyperactivity, and diaphoresis and absence of urine ketones 3. Dilated pupils, and flushed and warm skin 4. Fruity breath, and deep and rapid breathing Fruity breath, and deep and rapid breathing Impending insulin shock (hypoglycemia) should be suspected when the diabetic patient complains of or manifests: 1. Decreased skin turgor, abdominal pain, restlessness 2. Flushed skin, tachycardia, Kussmal breathing 3. Thirst, hypotension, fruity odor to the breath 4. Weakness, headache, diaphoresis Weakness, headache, diaphoresis Measures that would be taken to treat a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis coma would not include which response below? 1. Dextrose 50% IV infusion 2. Insulin IV drip 3. Potassium replacements 4. IV fluid administration Dextrose 50% IV infusion Patients with diabetes mellitus who are acutely ill generally require a: 1. higher dose of insulin 2. restricted caloric intake 3. decrease in fluid intake 4. lower dose of insulin 1. 75 2. 100 3. 30 4. 10 30 Practices to decrease catheter associated urinary tract infections does not include which response below? 1. Having a protocol for limiting urinary catheter use 2. Use of a reminder system for removal of urinary catheters 3. Discontinuing enteral tube feeding if diarrhea occurs 4. Providing perineal care during each nursing shift Discontinuing enteral tube feeding if diarrhea occurs Your patient has acute renal failure. Medications that are normally excreted through the kidneys will probably be: 1. Decreased in dosage 2. Administered as usual 3. Discontinued 4. Increased in frequency Decrease dosage Enteral feeding in acute renal failure commonly includes: 1. High protein, low potassium, low sodium 2. Restricted protein, high potassium, low sodium 3. No protein, high potassium, high sodium 4. Restricted protein, low potassium, low sodium Restricted protein, low potassium, low sodium Sudden development of dyspnea and sinus tachycardia in an acute renal failure patient would most likely indicate which of the following? 1. Hyperkalemia 2. Pulmonary embolism 3. Fluid overload 4. Infection Fluid overload ECG changes commonly seen in hyperkalemia are: 1. narrow QRS, inverted T wave 2. narrow QRS, high P wave 3. wide QRS, inverted T wave 4. wide QRS, tall peaked T wave Wide QRS, tall peaked T wave When feeding a patient using continuous tube feedings, the most important intervention in preventing aspiration is to: 1. Keep the head of the bed elevated 2. Aspirate stomach contents Q4-6h for residual 3. check the position of the tube feeding each shift 4. turn the patient frequently keep the head of the bed elevated Low intermittent suction of gastric contents is not generally used in which response below? 1. to decompress abdominal distention 2. to prevent aspiration 3. when bowel sounds are absent 4. to control bleeding To control bleeding The safe placement of a nasogastric tube in an unconscious patient can be best assessed by: 1. instilling 30ml of normal saline through the tube 2. aspirating gastric content 3. checking the pH of the gastric aspirate 4. obtaining radiographic confirmation obtaining radiographic confirmation While caring for a day-two post-operative exploratory laparotomy patient, you notice "coffeground" material coming from her nasogastric tube. You should: 1. know this is a normal finding 2. irrigate the tube right aware 3. have the drainage tested for blood 4. listen for overactive bowel sounds have the drainage tested for blood Your patient, who is receiving a blood transfusion, has a sudden increase in body temperature. Your first response is to: 1. take the blood pressure