CAPM Exam Prep, PMI Questions, PMBOK 6th Edition - CAPM Prep, CAPM Exam Prep 2024, Exams of Nursing

Download CAPM Exam Prep, PMI Questions, PMBOK 6th Edition - CAPM Prep, CAPM Exam Prep 2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 CAPM Exam Prep, PMI Questions, PMBOK 6th Edition - CAPM Prep, CAPM Exam Prep 2024 360-degree appraisal - ANSWER-A performance review completed by a person's peers, manager, and subordinates. It's called a 360-degree appraisal as it's a circle of reviews by people at different levels of an organization. Acceptance - ANSWER-This is a response to a risk event, generally made when the probability of the event and/or impact are small. It is used when mitigation, transference, or avoidance are not selected. Active listening - ANSWER-This occurs when the receiver confirms the message is being received by feedback, questions, prompts for clarity, and other signs of having received the message. Activity attributes - ANSWER-Activities that special conditions, requirement, risks, and other conditions should be documented. Activity cost estimates - ANSWER-The cost of resources including materials, services, and when warranted, labor should be estimated. Activity list - ANSWER-A listing of all of the project activities required to complete each project phase or the entire project. This list is an input to the project network diagram. Activity on node - ANSWER-A network diagramming approach that places the activities on a node in the project network diagram. Activity sequencing - ANSWER-The process of mapping the project activities in the order in which the work should be completed. Actual costs - ANSWER-The amount of funds the projects has spent to date. The difference between actual costs and earned value will reveal the cost variance. Adjourning - ANSWER-The final stage of team development; once the project is done, the team moves onto other assignments either as a unit or the project team ream is disbanded and individual team members go onto other work. Affinity diagram - ANSWER-Clusters like ideas together and allows for decomposition of ideas to compare and contrast project requirements. Analogous estimating - ANSWER-This relies on historical information to predict estimates for current projects. Analogous estimating is also known as top=down estimating and is a form of expert judgment. Application areas - ANSWER-The areas of discipline that a project may center upon. Consider technology, law, sales, marketing, and construction among many others. Assumption log - ANSWER-A document that clearly identifies and tracks assumptions that are made in the project. All assumptions need to be tested for their validity and the outcome of the test should be recorded. 2 Autocratic - ANSWER-The project manager makes all of the decisions. Avoidance - ANSWER-This is one response to a risk event. The risk is avoided by planning a different technique to remove the risk from the project. Benchmarking - ANSWER-A process of using prior projects within or external to the performing organization to compare and set quality standards for processes and results. Benefit measurement methods - ANSWER-Project selection methods that compare the benefits of projects to determine which project the organization should select for investment. Benefit/cost analysis - ANSWER-The process of determining the pros and cons of any project, process, product, or activity. Benefit/cost ratios - ANSWER-Shows the proportion of benefits to costs; for example 4:1 would equate to four benefits and just one cost. Bid - ANSWER-A document from the seller to the buyer. Used when price is the determining factor in the decision-making process. Bidder conferences - ANSWER-A meeting with prospective sellers to ensure all sellers have a clear understanding of the product or service to be procured. Bidder conferences allow sellers to query the buyer on the details of the product to help ensure that the proposal the seller creates is adequate and appropriate for the proposed agreement. Bottom-up estimating - ANSWER-A technique where an estimate for each component in the WBS is developed and then totaled for an overall project budget. This is the longest method to complete, but it provides the most accurate estimate. Brainstorming - ANSWER-The most common approach to risk identification; it is performed by a project team to identify the risks within the project. A multidisciplinary team, hosted by a project facilitator, can also perform brainstorming. Budget at completion - ANSWER-The predicted budget for the project; what the project should cost when it is completed. Budget at completion represents 100 percent of the planned value for the project's completion. Cause-and-effect diagrams - ANSWER-Used for root cause analysis of what factors are creating the risks within the project. The goal is to identify and treat the root of the problem, not the symptom. Centralized contracting - ANSWER-All contracts for all projects need to be approved through a central contracting unit within the performing organization. Change Control Board - ANSWER-A group of decision makers the review proposed project changes. 5 Coat change control - ANSWER-This is part of the Integrated Change Control System and documents the procedures to request, approve, and incorporate changes to project costs. Cost control - ANSWER-An active process to control causes of cost change, to document cost changes, and to monitor cost fluctuations within the project. When changes occur, the cost baseline must be updated. Cost estimating - ANSWER-The process of calculating the costs, by category, of the identified resources to complete the project work. Cost management plan - ANSWER-Explains how variances to the costs of the project will be managed. The plan may be based on the range of acceptable variances and the expected response to variances over a given threshold. Cost of conformance - ANSWER-The cost of completing the project work to satisfy the project scope and the expected level of quality. Examples include training, safety measures, and quality management activities. Also known as the cost of quality. Cost of nonconformance - ANSWER-The cost of not completing the project with quality; includes wasted time for corrective actions, rework, wasted materials. This could mean loss of business, loss of sales, lawsuits. Also known as the cost of poor quality. Cost performance index - ANSWER-The process of calculating the costs, by category, of the identified resources to complete the project work. Cost plus award fee - ANSWER-The contract requires the buyer to pay for all the project costs and give the seller an award fee based on the project performance, meeting certain project criteria, or other goals established by the buyer. The award fee can be tied to any factor the buyer determines and the factor doesn't have to be exact. Cost variance - ANSWER-The difference between the earned value and the actual costs. Cost-reimbursable contracts - ANSWER-A contract that pays the seller for the product. In the payment to the seller, there is a profit margin the difference between the actual costs of the product and the sales amount. Crashing - ANSWER-A duration compression technique that adds project resources to the project in an effort to reduce the amount of time allotted for effort-driven activities. Critical chain method - ANSWER-A network diagramming approach that considers the availability or project resources and the project's promised end date to determine the critical path(s) in the project. Critical path method - ANSWER-A network diagramming approach that identifies the project activities which cannot be delayed or the project completion date will be late. Cultural norm - ANSWER-The accepted practices, culture, ideas, vision, and nature of an organization. 6 Culture shock - ANSWER-The initial reaction a person experiences when they're in a foreign environment. Decision tree analysis - ANSWER-A type of analysis that determines which of two decisions is he best. The decision tree assists in calculating the value of the decision and determining which decision costs the least. Decoder - ANSWER-The is a part of the communications model; it is the inverse of the encoder. If a message is encoded, a decoder translates it back to usable format. Decomposition - ANSWER-The breakdown of the project scope statement into the project's work breakdown structure. The smallest item of the project's decomposition into the WBS is called the work package. Deliverable - ANSWER-A thing that a project creates; projects generally create many deliverables as part of the project work. Delphi techinque - ANSWER-A method to query experts anonymously on foreseeable risks within the project, phase, or component of the project. The results of the survey are analyzed and organized and then circulated to the experts. There can be several rounds of anonymous discussions with the Delphi technique. The goal is to gain consensus on project risks, and the anonymous nature of the process ensures that no one expert's advice overtly influences the opinion of another participant. Democratic - ANSWER-The project team is involved in the decision-making process. Design of experiments - ANSWER-This relies on statistical "what-if" scenarios to determine which variables within a project will results in the best outcome; it can also be used to eliminate a defect. The design of experiments approach is most often used on the product of the project, rather than the project itself. Dictatorship - ANSWER-A group decision process where the person with the most power forced the decision even though the rest of the group may oppose the decision. Direct costs - ANSWER-Costs incurred by the project in order for it to exist. Examples include equipment needed to complete the project work, salaries of the project team, and other expenses tied directly to the project's existence. Discretionary dependencies - ANSWER-The order of the project activities do not have to completed in a particular order so they can be done in the order of the project manager or the project team's discretion. Duration estimates - ANSWER-The prediction of how long the project work will take to complete. Earned value - ANSWER-The value of the work that has been completed and the budget for that work: EV=%Complete X BAC. Earned value management - ANSWER-Earned value management integrates scope, schedule, and cost to give an objective, scalable point-in-time assessment of the project. EVM calculates the performance of the project and compares current performance against plan. EVM can also be a harbinger of things to come. Results early in the project can predict the likelihood of the project's success or failure. 7 Effective listening - ANSWER-The receiver is involved in the listening experience by paying attention to visual clues by the speaker and to paralingual intentions and by asking relevant questions. Encoder - ANSWER-Part of the communications model; the device or technology that packages the message to travel over the medium. Enhance - ANSWER-To enhance a risk is to attempt to modify its probability to and/or its impacts to realize the most gains from the identified risk. Estimate at completion - ANSWER-A hypothesis of what the total cost of the project will be. Before the project begins, the project manager completes an estimate for the project deliverables based on the WBS. As the project progresses, there will likely be some variances between what the cost estimate was and what the actual cost is. The EAC is calculated to predict what the new estimate at completion will be. Estimate to complete - ANSWER-Represents how much more money is needed to complete the project work: ETC=EAC-AC Estimating publications - ANSWER-Typically a commercial reference to help the project estimator confirm and predict the accuracy of estimates. If a project manager elects to use one of these commercial databases, the estimate should include a pointer to his document for future reference and verification. Ethics - ANSWER-Describes the personal, cultural, and organizational interpretation of right and wrong; project managers are to operate ethically and fairly. Ethnocentrism - ANSWER-Happens when individuals measure and compare a foreigner's actions against their own local culture. The locals typically believe their own culture is superior to the foreigner's culture. Evaluation criteria - ANSWER-Use to rate and score proposals from sellers. In some instances, such as a bid or quote, the evaluation criterion is focused just on the price the seller offers. In other instances, such as a proposal, the evaluation criteria can be multiple values: experience, references, certifications, and more. Exceptional - ANSWER-The project manager only pays attention to the top ten percent of the project performers and the bottom ten percent of the project team performers. Executing - ANSWER-The project management process group that carries out the project management plan to create the project deliverables. Expectancy theory - ANSWER-People will behave on the basis of what they expect as a result of their behavior. In other words, people will work in relation to the expected reward of the work. Expert power - ANSWER-A type of power where the authority of the project manager comes from experience with the area that the project focuses on. Exploit - ANSWER-The organization wants to ensure that the identified risk does happen to realize the positive impact associated with the risk event. 10 Indirect costs - ANSWER-These costs can be shared across multiple projects that use the same resources - such as for a training room or piece of equipment. Influence diagram - ANSWER-An influence diagram charts out a decision problem. It identifies all of the elements, variables, decisions, and objectives - and how each factor may influence another. Initiating - ANSWER-The start and authorization of the project; the project manager is identified, the project is authorized through the charter, and the stakeholders are identified. Internal rate of return - ANSWER-A benefit measurement formula to calculate the when the present value of the cash inflow equals the project's original investment. Interviews - ANSWER-A requirements elicitation process to collect requirements from the project stakeholders. Invitation for bid - ANSWER-A document from the buyer to the seller. Requests the seller to provide a price for the procured product or service. Iron triangle - ANSWER-A term used to describe the three constraints of every project: time, cost and scope. The sides of the Iron Triangle must be kept in balance or the quality of the project will suffer. ISO 9000 - ANSWER-An international standard that helps organizations follow their own quality procedures. ISO 9000 is not a quality system, but a method of following procedures created by an organization. Issue log - ANSWER-Issue are decisions that are usually in disagreement among two or more parties. Issues are recorded in the issue log along with an issue owner designation, an issue date for resolution, and the eventual outcome of the issue. Issues - ANSWER-Any point of contention, debate, or decision that has not yet been made in the project that may affect the project's success. Iterative relationships of project phases - ANSWER-Ideal for projects like research. The next phase of the project is not planned until the current phase of the project is underway. The direction of the project can change based on the current work in the project, market conditions, or as more information is discovered. Kill point - ANSWER-An opportunity to halt the project based on project performance in the previous phase. Kill points typically come at the end of a project phase and are also known as phase gates. Knowledge areas - ANSWER-There are ten knowledge areas within project management; each knowledge area is a specific portion of the project, and all ten project management knowledge areas are interrelated. Lag - ANSWER-Time added to a project activity to delay its start time; lag time is considered positive time and it is sometimes called waiting time. Laissez faire - ANSWER-The project manager has a hands-off policy and the team is entirely self-led regarding the decision-making process. 11 Lead - ANSWER-Time added to activity to allow its start time to begin earlier than scheduled; lead time is negative time as it moves the activities closer to the project's start date. Lessons learned - ANSWER-Ongoing collection of documentation about what has and has not worked in the project; the project manager and the project team participate in lessons learned creation. Letter of intent - ANSWER-Expresses the intention of the buyer to procure products or services from the seller. This is not a contract, but express intent to purchase so the seller can prepare for the work. Majority - ANSWER-A group decision process where a vote is offered and the majority wins. Make-or-buy analysis - ANSWER-Used in determining what part of the project scope to make and what part to purchase. Management by projects - ANSWER-An organization that uses projects to move the company forward is using the management-by-projects approach. These project-centric entities could manage any level of their work as a project. Mandatory dependencies - ANSWER-Project activities must happen in a particular order due to the nature of the work; also known as hard logic. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs - ANSWER-A theory that states that there are five layers of needs for all humans; physiological, safety, social, esteem, and the crowning jewel, self-actualization. Matrix structure - ANSWER-An organization that groups staff by function but openly shares resources on project teams throughout the organization. Project managers in a matrix structure share the power with functional management. There are three types of matrix structures: weak, balanced, and strong to describe the amount of authority for the project manager. McClelland's Theory of Needs - ANSWER-People have three needs: achievement, affiliation, and power. One of the needs drives the person's actions. McGregor's Theory of X and Y - ANSWER-This theory states that "X" people are lazy, don't want to work, and need to be micromanaged. "Y" people are self-led, motivated, and strive to accomplish Medium - ANSWER-Part of the communications model; this is the path the message takes from the sender to the receiver. This is the modality in which the communication travels typically refers to an electronic model, such as e-mail or the telephone. Mind mapping - ANSWER-A visual representation of like and opposing ideas, thoughts, and project requirements. Mitigation - ANSWER-Reducing the probability or impact of a risk. Monitoring and controlling - ANSWER-The project management process group responsible for ensuring that the project execution is completed according to the project management plan and expectations. 12 Monte Carlo analysis - ANSWER-A what-if scenario to determine how scenarios may work out given any number of variables. The process doesn't actually create out a specific answer, but a range of possible answers. When Monte Carlo is applied to a schedule, it can present, for example, the optimistic completion date, the pessimistic completion date, and the most likely completion date for each activity in the project. Murder boards - ANSWER-A group of decision makers that may determine to "kill" a proposed project before it is officially launched based on the board's findings on the likelihood of the project's success. Net present value - ANSWER-A benefit measurement formula used for project tha span multiple years or quarters. NPV calculates the present value for each year or querter of the project. Network templates - ANSWER-A network diagram based on previous similar projects that is adapted for the current project work. Nominal group technique - ANSWER-A group creativity technique that follows the brainstorming model by ranks each brainstorm idea. Nonverbal - ANSWER-Approximately 55 percent of oral communication is non-verbal. Facial expressions, hand gestures, and body language contribute to the message. Norming - ANSWER-Project team members go about getting the project work, begin to rely on one another, and generally complete their project assignments. Observation - ANSWER-A requirements elicitation process where the observer shadows a person to understand how they complete a process. Observers may be a participant observer or an invisible observer. Oligopoly - ANSWER-A market condition where the actions of one competitor affects the actions of all the other competitors. Operational definitions - ANSWER-The quantifiable terms and values used to measure a process, activity, or work result. Operational definitions are also known as metrics. Operations - ANSWER-The ongoing work of the business. Operations are a generic way to describe the activities that support the core functions of a business entity. Operations management - ANSWER-Operation managers deal directly with the income-generating products or services the company provides. Projects often affect the core business so these managers are stakeholders in the project. Organizational breakdown structure - ANSWER-Though these charts are similar to the WBS, the breakdown is by department, units, or by team. Organizational charts - ANSWER-These show how an organization, such as a company or lrage project team, is ordered, reporting structures, and the flow of information. 15 Program manager - ANSWER-Coordinates the efforts of multiple projects working together in the program. Programs are comprised of projects, so the program manager is a stakeholder in each of the constituent projects within the program. Programs - ANSWER-A collection of projects working in unison to realize benefits that could not be achieved by managing each project independently of one another. Progress reports - ANSWER-These provide current information on the project work completed to date. Progressive elaboration - ANSWER-The process of starting with a large idea and through incremental analysis, actions, and planning the idea becomes more and more specific. Progressive elaboration is the generally-accepted planning process for project management, wherein the project management team starts very broad and works towards a specific, detailed plan. Project - ANSWER-An undertaking outside of normal operations to create a unique product, service, condition, or result. Projects are temporary while operations are ongoing. Project baselines - ANSWER-There are three baselines in a project which are used to measure project performance: cost, schedule and scope. Project calendar - ANSWER-A calendar that defines the working times for the project. For example, a project may require the project team to work nights and weekends so as not to disturb the ongoing operations of the organization during working hours. In addition, the project calendar accounts for holidays, working hours, and work shifts the project will cover. Project charter - ANSWER-A document that authorizes the project, defines the high-level requirements, identifies the project manager and the project sponsor, and provides initial information about the project. Project communicaitons management - ANSWER-One of the ten project management knowledge areas; it is the planning and management of communication among project stakeholders. Project cost management - ANSWER-One of the ten project management knowledge areas; it is the estimating, budgeting and controlling of the project expenses. Project customer/end user - ANSWER-The person or group that will use the project deliverable. In some instances, a project may have many different customers. Project funding requirements - ANSWER-In larger projects this document identifies the timeline of when capital is required for the project to move forward. This document defines the amount of funds a project needs in order to reach its objectives and when the project funds are needed. Project governance - ANSWER-Defines the rules for a project and it's up to the project manager to enforce the project governance to ensure the project's ability to reach its objectives. The project management plan defines the project governance and how the project manager, the project team, and the organization will all follow the rules and policies within the project. 16 Project human resource management - ANSWER-One of the ten project management knowledge areas; projects are completed by people and the project manager generally oversees the management of the human resources on the project team. Project integration management - ANSWER-One of the ten project management knowledge areas; this knowledge area coordinates the activities and completeness of the other eight knowledge areas. Project life cycle - ANSWER-Unique to each project and comprised of phases of work. Project life cycles typically create a milestone and allow subsequent phases to begin. Project management - ANSWER-The management of the project within an organization. It is the initiation, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing of the temporary endeavor of the project. Project management integration - ANSWER-A project management knowledge area that coordinates all of the effort of the project's initiation, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing. Project Management Office (PMO) - ANSWER-Organizes and manages control over all projects within an organization. PMOs may also be known as a program management office, project office, or simply the program office. Coordinate all aspects, methodology, and nomenclature for project processes, templates, software, and resource assignment. Project management team - ANSWER-People on the project team that are involved with managing the project. Project manager - ANSWER-The person accountable for managing the project; guides the team through the project phases to completion. Project plan - ANSWER-A comprehensive document comprised of several subsidiary plans the communicates the intent and direction of the project. Project portfolio management - ANSWER-A management process to select the projects that should be invested in. Specifically, it is the selection process based on the need, profitability, and affordability of the proposed projects. Project procurement management - ANSWER-One of the ten project management knowledge areas; this knowledge area oversees the purchasing and contract administration for a project. Project quality management - ANSWER-One of the ten project management knowledge areas; this knowledge area defines quality assurance, quality control and the quality policy for the project. Project risk management - ANSWER-A project management knowledge area that creates the risk management plan, performs qualitative and quantitative risk analysis, plans risk response, and monitors and controls the project risks. Project scope management - ANSWER-A project management knowledge area responsible for collecting project requirements, defining the project scope, create the WBS, performing scope verification, and controlling the project scope. The project scope statement includes the product scope description, product 17 acceptance criteria, project deliverables, project exclusions, project assumptions and the project constraints. Project sponsor - ANSWER-Authorizes the project. This person or group ensures that the project manager has the necessary resources, including monies, to get the work done. The project sponsor is someone within the performing organization that has the power to authorize and sanction the project work, and is ultimately accountable for the project's success. Project team - ANSWER-The collection of individuals that will work together to ensure the success of the project. The project manager works with the project team to guide, schedule, and oversee the project work. The project team completes the project work. Project time management - ANSWER-A project management knowledge area that defines the project activities, sequences project work, estimates resources and activity durations, and develops the project schedule. This knowledge area is also responsible for controlling the project schedule. Projectized structure - ANSWER-Group of employees, collocated or not, by activities on a particular project. The project manager in a projectized structure may have complete, or very close to complete, power over the project team. Proposal - ANSWER-A document from the seller to the buyer, responding to a Request for Proposal or other procurement documents. Proposals are an expose on ideas, suggestions, recommendations, and solutions to an opportunity provided by a vendor for a seller. Proposals include a price for the work and document how the vendor would provide the service to the buyer. Prototypes - ANSWER-A mockup of the project deliverable to confirm, adapt, or develop the project requirements. Qualified seller list - ANSWER-The performing organization may have lists of qualified sellers, preferred sellers, or approved sellers. The qualified sellers list generally has contact information, history of past experience with the seller, and other pertinent information. Qualitative risk analysis - ANSWER-An examination and prioritization of the risks based on their probability of occurring and the impact on the project if they do occur. Qualitative risk analysis guides the risk reaction process. Quality assurance - ANSWER-An executing process to ensure that the project is adhering to the quality expectations of the project customer and organization. QA is a prevention-driven process to perform the project work with quality to avoid errors, waste, and delays. Quality audits - ANSWER-A quality audit is a process to confirm that the quality processes are performing correctly on the current project. The quality audit determines how to make things better for the project and other projects within the organization. Quality audits measure the project's ability to maintain the expected level of quality. Quality control - ANSWER-A process in which the work results are monitored to see if they meet relevant quality standards. 20 Roles and responsibiliites - ANSWER-Maps project roles to responsibilities within the project; roles are positions on the project team and responsibilities are project activities. Run chart - ANSWER-Similar to a control chart, a run chart tracks trends over time and displays those trends in a graph with each plotted data mapped to a specific date. Sapir-Whorf hypothesis - ANSWER-A theory that suggests there's a linkage between the language a person (or culture) speaks and how that person or culture behaves in the world. Scales of probability and impact - ANSWER-Used in a risk matrix in both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis to score each risk's probability and impact. Scatter diagram - ANSWER-Tracks the relationship between two or more variables to determine if the one variable affects the other. It allows the project team, quality control team, or project manager make adjustment to improve the overall results of the project. Schedule control - ANSWER-Part of Integrated Change Management, schedule control is concerned with three processes: the project manager confirms that any schedule changes are agreed upon; the project manager examines the work results, conditions, and conditions to know if the schedule has changed; and the project manager manages the actual change in the schedule. Schedule management plan - ANSWER-A subsidiary plan of the overall project plan. It is used to control changes to the schedule. A formal Schedule Management Plan has procedures that control how changes to the project plan can be proposed, accounted for, and then implemented. Identifies circumstances that may change the project schedule, such as the completion of project phases or the reliance on other projects and outside resources. Schedule performance index - ANSWER-This reveals the efficiency of work. The closer the quotient is to 1, the better: SPI=EV/PV Schedule variance - ANSWER-The difference between the planned work and the earned work. Scope baseline - ANSWER-Comprised of the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure, and the WBS dictionary. Scope management plan - ANSWER-Explains how the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be factored into the project plan. Based on the conditions of the project, the project work, and the confidence of the project scope, the scope management plan should also define the likelihood of changes to the scope, how often the scope may change, and how much the scope can change. Scope verification - ANSWER-An inspection-driven process led by the project customer to determine the exactness of the project deliverables. Scope verification is a process that leads to customer acceptance of the project deliverables. Scoring models - ANSWER-A project selection method that assigns categories and corresponding values to measure project's worthiness of investment. 21 Secondary risks - ANSWER-Risks that stem from risk responses. For example, the response of transference may call for hiring a third party to manage an identified risk. A secondary risk caused by the solution is the failure of the third party to complete its assignment as scheduled. Secondary risks must be identified, analyzed, and planned for just as any identified risk. Sellers and business partners - ANSWER-Vendors, contractors, and business partners that help project achieve their objectives. These business partners can affect the project's success and are considered stakeholders in the project. Sellers list - ANSWER-A listing of the vendors an organization does business with. You might know this document as a preferred vendors list in your company. Sender - ANSWER-Part of the communications model; the person or group delivering the message to the receiver. Sensitivity analysis - ANSWER-This examines each project risk on its own merit to assess the impact on the project. Each risk is analyzed independently to see what its impact on the project may be while all other risks in the project are set at a baseline value. Sequential relationship of phases - ANSWER-Each phase of a project relies on the completion of the phase before it can begin. Share - ANSWER-Sharing is nice. When sharing the risk ownership is transferred to the organization that can most capitalize on the risk opportunity. Should-cost estimates - ANSWER-These estimates are created by the performing organization to predict what the cost of the procured product should be. If there is a significant difference between what the organization has predicted and what the sellers have proposed, either the Statement of Work was inadequate or the sellers have misunderstood the requirements. Simulation - ANSWER-This allows the project team to play "what-if" games without affecting any areas of production. Single source - ANSWER-A specific seller that the performing organization prefers to contract with. Smoothing - ANSWER-A conflict resolution method the "smooths" out the conflict by minimizing the perceived size of the problem. It is a temporary solution, but it can calm team relations and reduce boisterousness of discussions. Smoothing may be acceptable when time is of the essence or any of the proposed solutions would work. SNET - ANSWER-A project constraint that demands that a project activity start no earlier than a specific date. Soft logic - ANSWER-The preferred order of activities. Project managers should use these relationships at their "discretion" and document the logic behind making soft logic decisions. Discretionary dependencies 22 allow activities to happen in a preferred order because of best practices, conditions unique to the project work, or external events; also known as discretionary dependencies. Sole source - ANSWER-The only qualified seller that exists in the marketplace. Source selection criteria - ANSWER-A predefined listing of the criteria to determine how a vendor will be selected. For example, cost, experience, certifications, and the like. Staffing management plan - ANSWER-This subsidiary plan documents how project team members will be brought onto the project and excused from the project. This plan is contained in the human resources plan. Stakeholder analysis - ANSWER-A process that considers and ranks the project stakeholders based on their influence, interests, and expectations of the project. Stakeholder register - ANSWER-A document defines each stakeholder, their project requirements, influence on the project, phases of interest, details on the stakeholders' contributions, and their contact information for the project. Start-to-finish - ANSWER-A relationship that requires an activity to start so that a successor activity may finish; it is unusual and is rarely used. Start-to-start - ANSWER-A relationship structure that requires a task to start before a successor task activity may start. This relationship allows both activities to happen in tandem. Statement of work - ANSWER-This fully describes the work to be completed, the product to be supplied, or both. The SOW becomes part of the contract between the buyer and the seller. The SOW is typically created as part of the procurement planning process and is used by the seller to determine whether it can meet the project's requirements. Statistical sampling - ANSWER-A process of choosing a percentage of results at random for inspection. Statistical sampling can reduce the costs of quality control. Status reports - ANSWER-These provide current information on the project cost, budget, scope, and other relevant information. Storming - ANSWER-The second stage of team development; the project team struggles for project positions, leadership, and project direction. Subprojects - ANSWER-A subproject exists under a parent project but follows its own schedule to completion. Subprojects may be outsourced, assigned to other project manager, or managed by the parent project manager but with a different project team. Supporting detail for estimates - ANSWER-The project manager should document how time and cost estimates were created. System or process flowcharts - ANSWER-These show the relation between components and how the overall process works. They are useful for identifying risks between system components. 25 B. Closing the project or phase - ANSWER-The team has just completed the process of -evaluating how the project went. The team members analyzed what worked well and what didn't. They evaluated the planning and executing. They documented how the sponsor and senior management supported the project. What process did they perform? A. Compiling lessons learned B. Closing the project or phase C. Directing and managing project work D. Monitoring and controlling the project D. Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, basic project statistics (scope, time, cost), and what decisions were made - ANSWER-The project manager and her team have worked diligently to complete the project scope on time and within budget. They are in the process of creating the project files. Of the following, which is the best and most complete definition of project files? A. Project documents that record what occurred during the project and what changes were approved. B. Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, and what decisions were made. C. Project documents that record what occurred during the project, basic project statistics (scope, time, and cost) and what changes were approved D. Project documents that record what occurred during the project, what changes were approved, basic project statistics (scope, time, cost), and what decisions were made D. All of the answers - ANSWER-The project to create a new drill type for an oil exploration initiation has been in progress for twelve months. Of the following, what best describes when it closes? A. When the validate scope process is completed for the project B. When the project is canceled C. When the project funds are depleted D. All of the answers A. Kickoff meeting to officially start the project - ANSWER-The project will be starting the executing process group next week. The project sponsor and project manager have a meeting scheduled with the team and the business units that are impacted by the project. They explain what is expected to occur on the project and how each of the people can help contribute to the success of the project. What is this event called? A. Kickoff meeting to officially start the project B. An integral part of the team building effort C. Perform quality assurance and validate scope D. Project management plan development B. Project manager and the project management team - ANSWER-As a best practice, who should create the project management plan? A. Project manager alone 26 B. Project manager and the project management team C. The project manager, the project management team, and the owner of the project D. The project owner alone A. He really wants a schedule, not a project management plan - ANSWER-Your supervisor asks for a copy of the project management plan to see if there are any tasks behind schedule. When you provide it to him, he says, "I didn't ask for all this information! Just give me what I asked for!" You don't understand why he is saying this. Which answer below best describes this situation? A. He really wants a schedule, not a project management plan B. He lacks project management training C. There is a communication breakdown D. He really wants a synopsis of the project management plan, which is called a project charter D. The budget management plan - ANSWER-All the following are typically components of the project management plan except... A. The schedule management plan B. The risk management plan C. The requirements management plan D. The budget management plan B. Constraints that impact the project - ANSWER-Sign-off has just occurred on the project charter. There are items in the project charter that mandate a specific vendor and describe the maximum amount of physical and computer storage space available to the team. These are examples of what? A. Assumptions that impact the project B. Constraints that impact the project C. Risks of the project D. Activity resource requirements A. The decomposition of the work of the project - ANSWER-The work breakdown structure represents what? A. The decomposition of the work of the project B. The schedule C. The decomposition of the activity list D. The activity list of the project C. It helps attain buy-in from the team doing the work - ANSWER-What is the most significant benefit of having the project management team's assistance in creating the work breakdown structure? A. It establishes the project manager's authority B. It helps generate a more accurate budget C. It helps attain buy-in from the team doing the work D. It helps generate a more accurate schedule 27 D. Bill of materials, which list the components, assemblies, and sub assemblies used to build the product - ANSWER-Due to the complexity of the project to design and manufacture robotic guard dogs for use at remote government sites, a number of breakdown structures will be used. Of the following breakdown structures and descriptions, which is correct? A. Organizational breakdown structure, which graphically illustrates how project management is structured to accomplish project activities B. Risk breakdown structure, which lists risks that are grouped by probability of occurrence and listed by severity of impact C. Resource breakdown structure, which graphically illustrates the availability of resources D. Bill of materials, which list the components, assemblies, and sub assemblies used to build the product D. All of the answers are correct - ANSWER-Which of the following describes a work breakdown structure (WBS)? A. The work should be decomposed to a realistic level of detail B. If the work is not listed on the WBS, it is not in the project C. The accumulation of the work in the WBS should be equal to the work of the project D. All of the answers are correct B. The creation of activity lists - ANSWER-The project to consolidate the accounting departments of two recently merged hospitals is extremely complex. The project manager and his team are keenly aware of the importance of properly decomposing the work of the project. If they decompose the work beyond work packages, what is the likely result? A. The application of rolling wave planning B. The creation of activity lists C. A variance in the scope definition D. The creation of the WBS dictionary B. Communication breakdown structure - ANSWER-During the create WBS process for the financial reporting improvement process, the team could create all the following breakdown structures as planning evolves except... A. Bill of materials B. Communication breakdown structure C. Risk Breakdown structure D. Resource breakdown structure A. At the end of every phase on the project - ANSWER-The approval of the project charter has been delayed for weeks due to market fluctuation. Upon approval, you are assigned as the project manager and senior management wants you to begin the planning process group immediately. When will you schedule validate scope? A. At the end of every phase on the project B. After the sponsor defines what they want the project to create C. When the project management plan is waiting sign-off 30 actually cost $120 so far. Activity C is worth $200, is 75% complete and should have been done on day three, and has cost $175 so far. The total budget is $ 1000. What is the planned value as of day two? A. $275.00 B. -$417.50 C. $495.00 D. -$275.00 D. Chart of accounts - ANSWER-The project planning process group is progressing. The team has involved the accounting department to set up a system of codes that the accounting department will use to track work on the project. This is known as what? A. Accounting codes B. WBS numbering C. Determine budget D. Chart of accounts B. Scope, time, and cost - ANSWER-The highway project is in the middle of planning when the project manager presents a status reporting method to the team. The team members haven't heard of this method before. It's called earned value. To attain buy-in from the team, the project manager begins to explain what earned value status reporting can do for the project, explaining that it will measure which of the following? A. Time and cost B. Scope, time, and cost C. Scope and cost D. Scope and time C. -25% to +75% - ANSWER-What is the range of a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate? A. -10% to +10% B. -5% to +10% C. -25% to +75% D. -300% to +75% A. $7,500 - ANSWER-You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the total value of the project? A. $7,500 B. $2,250 C. $5,000 D. $10,000 D. $4,500 - ANSWER-You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the amount of work that should have been done so far? 31 A. $7,500 B. $2,250 C. $5,000 D. $4,500 A. Direct - ANSWER-The project team is planning an upgrade to a client's website and infrastructure. During planning, the team discovers the need for a data communications line to connect to the servers. What type of cost is this? A. Direct B. Indirect C. Variable D. Indirect fixed A. $11,666.67 - ANSWER-You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5 000 has been spent. What is the ETC? A. $11,666.67 B. $16,666.67 C. $5,000 D. $0 D. Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more dependent the variables are - ANSWER-The project management team is analyzing defects and trying to isolate the cause of a problem on the project. They have isolated two variables via the data that is available. They suspect the problem is compounded by the impact of one variable on another. They want to see if there is a relationship between the two variables. Which of the following will help them verify this relationship and why? A. Run chart because the closer the lower control limit is to +/- 3 sigma, the more dependent the variables are B. Pareto diagram because the closer the percentages are on the separate problems, the more dependent the variables are C. Control chart because the closer the upper control limit is to +/- 3 sigma, the more dependent the variables are D. Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more dependent the variables are B. Decreased warranty support - ANSWER-The company is implementing a stricter and more proactive quality standard for projects in an attempt to improve the quality culture. Once implemented, which of the following impacts on the product support department is most likely to occur? A. Increased warranty support B. Decreased warranty support C. Increased inventory requirements D. Decreased inventory requirements 32 D. Ideally, zero with supplies obtained only when the product is being built - ANSWER-The computer manufacturer is putting a policy in place to use Just-in-Time manufacturing. It feels this policy will help minimize excess inventory cost and improve efficiency. The amount of inventory needed for this type of process is what? A. There is insufficient information to determine the answer B. 0.27% (3 sigma) or 0.0003% (6 sigma) C. Zero plus predefined organizational buffer D. Ideally, zero with supplies obtained only when the product is being built D. None of the answers are correct - ANSWER-While establishing an overall picture of process output over time, the team plots a chart based on the data available. The plotted chart has seven consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What can be determined from the plotted chart? A. The control limits are too tight B. The control limits are acceptable C. The control limits are too loose D. None of the answers are correct C. 1.0 or 100% - ANSWER-The sum of all probabilities equals what? A. 100 B. 0 C. 1.0 or 100% D 1% A. Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the opportunity to determine trends and variances - ANSWER-There is a variance in the manufacturing process that is causing concern among the team. Some results have been above the specification limits, and some within the control tolerances. You want to learn more about the output of the process over the last month. Which of the following items is the most useful for this purpose? A. Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the opportunity to determine trends and variances B. Pareto diagram because the closer the percentages are on the separate problems, the easier it is to determine trends and variances C. Control chart because it indicates output and highlights trends and variances D. Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more obvious trends and variances B. Making a greater use of checklists - ANSWER-You are the project manager on a project that will improve the manufacturing process at your company. Quality has been a big issue because there has been an excessive amount spend on inventory with a lost of waste in the building process and return of product after it has been sold. Presently, the company has a 1sigma quality standard with its manufacturing process. There is a general belief that there are process issues behind this problem. Which of the following options appears to make the most sense in terms of making the process more consistent? 35 C. Message - ANSWER-All of the following could be considered mediums for communication by a project team member except... A. Staff meeting B. Email C. Message D. Video Conference B. To ensure that the receiver of a message understands the message - ANSWER-What is the most effective use of feedback on a project? A. To give the sender of the message a change to ensure their message is delivered B. To ensure that the receiver of a message understands the message C. To give the receiver of the message a change to get status updates from the sender D. To ensure that the sender of the message understands the message B. Information related to the difference between planned and actual occurrences - ANSWER-There are five basic performance reports. Of the following, which best describes the contents of a variance report? A. Information related to the state of the schedule, budget, scope of the project at various parts of time B. Information related to the difference between planned and actual occurrences C. Information related to future project occurrences D. Information related to recent project occurrences C. A functional manager wanted to meet with the project manager at the same time - ANSWER-The project manager and his team spend a great deal of time in meetings. Which of the following is not a good reason to cancel a meeting? D. A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract, so the team chose another vendor that also could not meet the due date because of the late start - ANSWER-Of the following, which best describes a secondary risk? A. A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract B. A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract due to a strike C. A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract because a sub- contractor delivered a defective product D. A vendor was unable to fulfill a contract commitment by the due date in the contract, so the team chose another vendor that also could not meet the due date because of the late start B. Plan risk responses, which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions - ANSWER-The project manager and the team have made risk- related contract decisions and updated the risk register and project management plan. Which of the following best describes the process they have just completed? A. Identify risks, which entails determining what risk and triggers could occur on the project 36 B. Plan risk responses, which entails determining what will be done if risk events occur and who will be responsible for executing those actions C. Control risk management, which entails observing project activities for risks and risk triggers and implementing the means to control them D. Perform qualitative risk analysis, which entails assigning probability and impact ratings to each risk A. A probability and impact matrix - ANSWER-Perform qualitative risk analysis uses a variety of tools for analysis. Which of the following is most closely associated with this process? A. A probability and impact matrix B. The expected monetary value (EVM) formula C. Templates for workaround documentation D. Risk trigger determination A. Risk events you know can occur on the project - ANSWER-The project manager is discussing risk with a risk-averse stakeholder on the market expansion project. The stakeholder has been exposed to the project management concepts, but wants to know more about contingency reserves. The project manager explains that contingency reserves are created specifically... A. Risk events you know can occur on the project B. Risk events you cannot logically forecast for the project C. Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in management reserves D. Risk events that do occur with a cumulative cost greater than the amount set aside in contingency reserves B. The company realizes the adjoining land will increase in value upon completion of the project, so it purchases the adjoining land at current prices - ANSWER-The construction company has been awarded a $40M contract to build an upscale community shopping center. Of the following, which is best example of an exploit type of risk response strategy? A. The company hires illegal aliens and pays them only 25% of the salary received by documented workers B. The company realizes the adjoining land will increase in value upon completion of the project, so it purchases the adjoining land at current prices C. The company purchases materials below the grade specified in the contract, although satisfying local building standards D. The company hires illegal aliens and pays them scale, but does not provide the benefits given to the union workers D. Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity purchases - ANSWER-You are purchasing 67 desktop computers, monitors, and a standard desktop software package for an upcoming project. What type of contract will you likely use? A. Net 30 because interest charges are avoided if you pay the entire cost within 30 days B. Fixed-price because the price will be locked in C. Net 90 because interest charges are avoided if you pay the entire cost within 90 days D. Purchase order because it is a general purchase vehicle for commodity purchases 37 D. Making the product internally - ANSWER-Your company is involved in a new project in which the information and intellectual property associated with it are highly sensitive. Given this, which of the following makes the most sense when planning the project? A. Outsourcing and having the partner sign a nondisclosure agreement B. Having only the creators of the idea work on the project to control who knows about the intellectual property C. Outsourcing to an offshore development facility so your local competitors won't know your intellectual property details. D. Making the product internally B. The buyer's only concern is that the vendor achieves the required goals - ANSWER-The project is utilizing a vendor to purchase and install a network solution for a national network upgrade project. The buyer of the solution is providing a functionality scope of work to the seller. Of the following, which is the most logical reason this scope was selected? A. The buyer knows exactly what is needed and wants no variance from the specifications B. The buyer's only concern is that the vendor achieves the required goals C. The buyer must have the solution in place within a tight timeframe and needs the vendor to conform to a rigid schedule D. The buyer does not have the personnel to ensure that each step in the process is completed according to specifications D. Fixed-price economic price adjust - ANSWER-A city is buying services from a construction company to build a new freeway for $4M over three years. At the start of each year, the amount fluctuates relative to the national cost of living. This is an example of what type of contract? A. Cost plus economic price adjust B. Cost plus incentive C. Fixed-price cost of living adjust D. Fixed-price economic price adjust D. Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible - ANSWER-Of the following, what best represents a contract component and the reason for including it in a contract between a buyer and vendor in connection with the purchase of a debit card add-on system? A. Share because the buyer needs the work done in a timely manner B. Incentive because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible C. Incentive because the buyer needs the work down with minimal resources D. Share because the buyer needs the costs to come in as low as possible A. Identify stakeholders - ANSWER-During which process is the stakeholder register created? A. Identify stakeholders B. Plan stakeholder management C. Manage stakeholder engagement 40 Risk breakdown structure, resource breakdown structure, bill of materials - ANSWER-During the create a WBS process for the financial reporting improvement process, the team could create all the following breakdown structures Scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary - ANSWER-As the project manager establishes the scope baseline, which of the following best descripts what she will create or reference? The project management ream and the project manager should be involved in creating it, it will resemble an organizational chart in appearance when complete, it is a decomposition of the work of the project. - ANSWER-The work breakdown structure (WBS) consist of the following? Control accounts, planning packages, work packages - ANSWER-The project team is creating the WBS for their stadium restoration project. Which of the following best describes the layers that would likely be included? One day - ANSWER-You are the project manager on a defense project and are creating a network diagram. Activity A (3 days) and Activity B (6 days) can start immediately. Activity C (2 days) can start after Activity A is complete. Activity D (1day) and Activity F (2 days) can start after Activity B is complete. Activity E (4 days) can start after Activity C and Activity D are complete. Activity G (5 days) can start after Activity D and Activity F are complete. When Activity E and Activity G are complete, the project is done. What is the slack of Activity D? Top-Down - ANSWER-Which of the following duration estimate types is most likely to be used where there is minimal information known about the project? A lag from one activity to another - ANSWER-The project manager and his team have created the schedule for the hospital wireless network upgrade project. They have identified an area in the schedule that requires a five-day delay for certification of the security of the wireless network (after the network is turned on and before the hospital can use the network). Which of the following best describes the five-day delay? 2.79 - ANSWER-Calculate the variance for the following: Pessimistic = 12, Optimistic = 2, Realistic = 5. It has slack of four days and duration of five days - ANSWER-Task C on the project has an ES of day three, an EF of day seven and an LS of day seven. Which of the following best describes this task? Variable indirect - ANSWER-Company-wide server upgrades are an example of what type of project cost? 0.45 - ANSWER-You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5,000 has been spent. What is the CPI? Weighted milestone - ANSWER-The project team is developing rules for reporting updates on the project. The majority of the activities are greater than two reporting periods long. Which format is best to use in this case? 41 $11,666.67 - ANSWER-You are having a home theater room added to your house. The project should take five days and cost $1,500 per day to complete. After three days, the project is 30% complete and $5 000 has been spent. What is the ETC? $275.00 - ANSWER-Activity A is worth $200, is 100% complete, should have been done on day one, and actually cost $200. Activity B is worth $75, is 90% complete, should have been done on day two, and actually cost $120 so far. Activity C is worth $200, is 75% complete and should have been done on day three, and has cost $175 so far. The total budget is $ 1000. What is the planned value as of day two? Run chart because it indicates output over time and provides the opportunity to determine trends and variances - ANSWER-There is a variance in the manufacturing process that is causing concern among the team. Some results have been above the specification limits, and some within the control tolerances. You want to learn more about the output of the process over the last month. Which of the following items is the most useful for this purpose? A cause and effect diagram (also known as Ishikawa and fishbone) helps to isolate any potential problems that relate to quality on a project - ANSWER-The project is going through the control quality process. Which of the following is a key tool that will be utilized in this process and why? Scatter diagram because the closer the output resembles a diagonal line, the more dependent the variables are - ANSWER-The project management team is analyzing defects and trying to isolate the cause of a problem on the project. They have isolated two variables via the data that is available. They suspect the problem is compounded by the impact of one variable on another. They want to see if there is a relationship between the two variables. Which of the following will help them verify this relationship and why? Updates should occur as validation data is available from the perform quality assurance process - ANSWER-The project to improve the insurance section of the customer service division is very complex in terms of updating organizational process assets. Which of the following best describes the appropriate time to update these assets? Both focus on management responsibility, continuous improvement, prevention over inspection, and customer satisfaction - ANSWER-The project manager has concerns about the software developer's project work in terms of quality and has spoken to the developer about this on several occasions. This involvement derives from the relationship between project management and quality management that should complement each other. What specifically is the relationship between the two? Ground rules, group norms, and project management practices - ANSWER-The project is experiencing conflict as the planning evolves. Of the following, which is the most common set of tools the project manager can utilize to minimize conflict? Increased team performance - ANSWER-The project manager is a major advocate of team development. What is the main benefit of team development? Plan human resource management, acquire project team, develop project team, manager project team - ANSWER-Which of the following are the processes in the human resource knowledge area? 42 This style of management is focused more on the big picture than the details and may let details slip that impact the timeliness of the project - ANSWER-The project manager is taking a leave of absence and the company has just designated his replacement. The new project manager is known as a visionary. Of the following, which best describes negative characteristics of this type of manager? The key output of the plan human resource management process is the human resource management plan - ANSWER-Of the following statements, which is correct? 5 process groups - ANSWER-Initiating Planning Executing Monitoring and Controlling Closing ten knowledge areas - ANSWER-Integration Scope Time Cost Quality HR Communications Risk Procurement Stakeholder management total float formula - ANSWER-total float = late finish - early finish normal distribution - ANSWER-bell curve - symmetrical distribution - 50% chance of falling below the mean and 50% chance of falling above the mean (1sigma=68.27%. 2sigma = 95.45%. 3sigma= 99.73%) triangular distribution - ANSWER-when there are 3 possible values w/ equal probability - distribution is a triangle. A= lowest value, B= highest value, M = most likely value beta distribution (PERT) - ANSWER-triangular distribution w/ more weight given to the most likely estimate (can be asymmetrical). O = optimistic estimate, ML=most likely estimate, P=pessimistic estimate mean for a beta distribution - ANSWER-mean = (O + 4ML + P)/6 standard deviation for beta distribution - ANSWER-standard deviation = (P-O)/6 statistical sums - ANSWER-project mean is the sum of the means of the individual tasks. project standard deviation is the square root of the project variance earned value management - ANSWER-used to monitor the progress of a project and is an analytical technique. uses 3 independent values - PV, AC, EV 45 portfolio - ANSWER-a collection of programs, projects, and additional work managed together to facilitate the attainment of strategic business goals product life cycle - ANSWER-the collection of stages that make up the life of a product. these stages are typically introduction, growth, maturity, and retirement program - ANSWER-a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way progressive elaboration - ANSWER-the iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available project - ANSWER-work performed by ppl, constrained by resources, planned, executed, monitored and controlled. has a definite beginning and end and creates a unique outcome project life cycle - ANSWER-the name given to the collection of various phases that make up a project - make the project easier to control and integrate project management - ANSWER-the ability to meet project requirements by using various knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to accomplish project work project management info system - ANSWER-collection of tools, methodologies, techniques, standards, and resources used to manage a project stakeholder - ANSWER-an individual, group, or organization who may affect by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project standard - ANSWER-a document that describes rules, guidelines, methods, processes, and practices that can be used to enhance the chances of success subproject - ANSWER-a component of a project program management - ANSWER-the act of managing a group of related projects in a coordinated way project management office (PMO) - ANSWER-an additional layer of organization dedicated to helping project managers project managers roles - ANSWER-focus on the immediate needs of the project, control the project management team and participants, control scope, schedule, cost, and quality trade-offs PMO manager roles - ANSWER-review program scope changes for opps and risks, attempt to maximize/optimize/satisfy shared resources, manage overall risk, opportunities, and interdependencies of all projects at their level of the enterprise project management knowledge competency - ANSWER-what project managers know project management performance competency - ANSWER-what project managers do 46 personal competency - ANSWER-how project managers behave based on their attitudes and personal characteristics role of the project participant - ANSWER-work as subject matter experts - give cultural, social, international, political, and physical contexts to the project environment functional organizations - ANSWER-each employee is in a hierarchical structure with one superior. staff is often grouped by specialty pros of a functional organization - ANSWER-flexibility in staff use, availability of experts for multiple projects, grouping of specialists, technological continuity, normal advancement path cons of a functional organization - ANSWER-client is not the focus of activity, function rather than problem oriented, no one fully responsible for project, slow response to the client, tendency to sub optimize, fragmented approach to a project project expeditor - ANSWER-a facilitator - has little formal authority - communicates information btwn the executive and the workers. used when project costs are relatively low project coordinator - ANSWER-reports to a higher level in the hierarchy, usually holds a staff position. has more formal authority than a PE. can assign work to functional workers. useful when project costs are relatively low compared to those in the rest of the organization pros of matrix organizations - ANSWER-project is the point of emphasis, access to a reservoir of technical talent, less anxiety about team future at project completion, quick client response, better firm-wide balance of resources, minimizes overall staff fluctuations cons of matrix organizations - ANSWER-two-boss syndrome, more time and effort needed to get team members, functional managers may be reluctant to share top performers, conflicts of authority between project manager and functional manager, careful project monitoring required, political infighting among project managers projectized organizations - ANSWER-team members are often collocated, project manager has a large amount of independence and authority pros of projectized organizations - ANSWER-one boss, project manager has independence/authority, team members are collocated, treated as insiders, most resources are involved in project work cons of projectized organizations - ANSWER-hourly costs may become inflated while specialists are waiting between assignments or are on call, bureaucracy, standards, procedures, and documentation may result in an abundance of red tape expert judgment - ANSWER-tool and technique used in every process group 2 characteristics of a corporate knowledge base - ANSWER-identify gatekeepers of a knowledge base, have unstructured pathways for access that simplify the relationship of a current need to prior attempts/successes 47 gatekeeper - ANSWER-an individual or team that has experience with a variety of projects, problems, and processes examples of enterprise environmental factors - ANSWER-organizational culture and structure, government or industry standards, infrastructure, existing human resources, personnel administration, company work authorization systems, marketplace conditions, stakeholder risk tolerances, commercial database, project management information systems phases of project life cycle - ANSWER-concept phase, development/planning phase, implementation/execution phase, termination/close phase at what phase in the project life cycle are resources necessary at their highest - ANSWER- implementation/execution phase deliverables of the concept phase - ANSWER-1. feasibility studies that clarify the problems to be solved 2. order of magnitude forecasts of cost 3. a project charter to grant permission for the project to proceed deliverables of the development/planning phase - ANSWER-1. scope statement 2. WBS 3. schedule baseline 4. determination of budgetary costs and a developed budget 5. identification of resources and team members w/ levels of responsibility 6. a risk assessment 7. communications management plan 8. a project plan 9. control systems and methods for handling change control deliverables of the implementation and execution phase - ANSWER-1. execution results for work packages 2. status reports and performance reporting 3. procurement of goods and services 4. managing, controlling, and redirecting of scope, quality, schedule and cost 5. resolution of problems 6. integration of the product into operations deliverables of the termination and close phase - ANSWER-1. formal acceptance 2. documented results and lessons learned 3. reassignment or release of resources sequential phases - ANSWER-often called for bc of the absence/uncertainty of info needed to proceed w the dependent phase overlapping phases - ANSWER-when a project has low uncertainty and/or commitment of funding for the duration of the project. may increase risk predictive life cycles - ANSWER-preferred when the product to be delivered is well understood iterative or incremental life cycle2 - ANSWER-used when scope details become clear as each phase is completed. works well in highly complex projects adaptive, agile, or change-driven life cycles - ANSWER-work well in a rapidly changing environment code of ethics and professional conduct - ANSWER-responsibility, respect, fairness, and honesty 50 enterprise environmental factors that could constrain project management plan - ANSWER-government or industry standards, project management info systems, infrastructure, personnel administration primary process whereby the project management plan is put into action - ANSWER-direct and manage project work tools and techniques used in direct and manage project work process - ANSWER-expert judgment, PMIS, meetings outputs of the direct and manage project work process - ANSWER-deliverables, change requests, and work performance data project requirements - ANSWER-defined by stakeholders - what is expected of the project output types of meetings - ANSWER-information exchange, brainstorming/option evaluation/design, decision making work performance data - ANSWER-gathered thru work execution and passed to the controlling processes for analyis types of work performance data - ANSWER-work completed, key performance indicators, technical performance measures, start and finish dates, # of change requests, # of defects, actual costs 3 ways change requests are generated - ANSWER-1. sponsors and stakeholders generate thru the integrated change control process 2. project team members contacted directly by sponsor or stakeholders to make a change 3. project participants make a change request based on observations or based on quality management responsibilities reasons for change requests - ANSWER-corrective action, preventive action, defect repair, updates project documents that require periodic updates - ANSWER-risk registers, stakeholder registers, data and WBS dictionaries monitor and control project work process - ANSWER-project manager and team monitor performance and compare actual performance to the project management plan and determine if corrective/preventive action is necessary outputs of monitor and control project work process - ANSWER-change requests (primary), work performance reports, project plan updates, and project document updates types of analytical techniques used by project manager - ANSWER-root cause analysis, forecasting methods, failure mode and effect analysis, fault tree analysis, reserve analysis, trend analysis, earned value management, variance analysis, regression analysis, grouping methods, causal analysis perform integrated change control process - ANSWER-coordinates changes across the entire project by determining that a change has occurred, managing a change, and ensuring a change is controlled 51 change management log - ANSWER-log that shows the status of each change request configuration control - ANSWER-systematic procedure that refers to change management - protects customer and team members from unauthorized changes inputs of perform integrated change control process - ANSWER-project management plan, change requests, work performance reports, enterprise environmental factors, and org process assets change control boards - ANSWER-ppl who provided resources to screen and prioritize change requests - involved in meetings change control tools - ANSWER-managing change requests and their associated decisions outputs of perform integrated change control - ANSWER-approved changes, a change log, project plan updates, and project document updates lack of tracking updates in project plan may result in - ANSWER-scope creep lack of tracking updates in project documents may result in - ANSWER-weakened end results for a project close project or phase - ANSWER-occurs at the end of the project AND at the end of each phase. involves expert judgment, analytical techniques, meetings outputs of close project or phase - ANSWER-final product/service/result and updates to the organizational process assets organizational process assets at close project or phase process - ANSWER-formal acceptance/project closure documentation, project files, historical info scope management - ANSWER-defining the intent of the project and defining the work necessary to complete the project role of project manager in scope management - ANSWER-defining the work, ensuring that only the project work is being competed, preventing scope creep chart of accounts - ANSWER-the financial numbering system used to monitor project costs by category code of accounts - ANSWER-the numbering system for providing unique identifiers for all items in the WBS. hierarchical and can to multiple levels, each lower level containing a more detailed description of a project deliverable control account - ANSWER-the management control point at which integration of scope, budget, and schedule takes place and at which performance is measured decomposition - ANSWER-the process of breaking down a project deliverable into smaller, more manageable components 52 parking lot - ANSWER-a technique for capturing ideas and recording them for future use planning package - ANSWER-a component of the WBS that is a subset of the control account to support known uncertainty in project deliverables requirements traceability matrix - ANSWER-a matrix for recording each requirement and tracking its attributes and changes throughout the project life cycle to provide a structure for changes to product scope rolling wave planning - ANSWER-a progressive elaboration technique that addresses uncertainty in detailing all future work for a project scope baseline - ANSWER-the approved detailed project scope statement along w the WBS and WBS dictionary scope creep - ANSWER-the uncontrolled expansion of a product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources WBS dictionary - ANSWER-houses the details associated w the work packages and control accounts. it is the level of detail needed as defined by the project team work package - ANSWER-the lowest level of a WBS; cost estimates are made at this level plan scope management process - ANSWER-the process that documents how scope will be defined, validated, and controlled primary tools and techniques needed for the plan scope management process - ANSWER-expert judgment and meetings requirements management plan - ANSWER-describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed outputs of the plan scope management process - ANSWER-scope management plan, requirements management plan, collect requirements process - ANSWER-defines and documents what is needed to meet project objectives inputs of collect requirements process - ANSWER-scope management plan, requirements management plan, stakeholder management plan, project charter, stakeholder register tools and techniques for collect requirements process - ANSWER-interviews, focus groups, facilitated workshops, group creativity techniques, questionnaires and surveys, observations, prototypes, benchmarking, context diagrams, document analysis interviews - ANSWER-can be formal or informal w various stakeholders- must stay on topic w project objectives - ultimate goal is to determine the needs of the stakeholders. must develop an interview plan for each stakeholder 55 validate scope process - ANSWER-enables the project team members to confirm that they have successfully delivered the project. occurs throughout the project as deliverables are completed inputs of validate scope process - ANSWER-project management plan, requirements documentation, requirements traceability matrix, verified deliverables, work performance data tools and techniques of validate scope process - ANSWER-inspection, group decision making techniques outputs of validate scope process - ANSWER-accepted deliverables, change requests, work performance information, project documents updates inspection - ANSWER-determining if the deliverables have been delivered - can be in the form of reviews, audits, walk-throughs, checkpoints, and prototypes accepted deliverables - ANSWER-deliverables are formally approved by customer or sponsors and are recorded (may be recorded in project schedule) change requests - ANSWER-formal request to modify the project scope in order to meet a new requirement - accepted in validate scope process and processed in perform integrated change control process control scope process - ANSWER-process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline inputs of control scope process - ANSWER-project management plan, requirements documentation, requirements traceability matrix, work performance data, org process assets tools and techniques of control scope process - ANSWER-variance analysis outputs of control scope process - ANSWER-work performance info, change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, org process assets updates variance analysis - ANSWER-process that determines if variances exist that require corrective or preventive action work performance information - ANSWER-in control scope process, confirms that deliverables have indeed been delivered and validated - project manager is responsible for ensuring that this info is captured change management process - ANSWER-implemented for reviewing and determining whether or not requested changes are in scope of out-of-scope of the project change control board - ANSWER-in change management process- responsible to review and either approve or deny change requests. should include project team members and other key stakeholders decision styles used by a project manager - ANSWER-command, consultation, consensus, coin flip plan schedule management - ANSWER-the process of establishing the policies, procedures,and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing and controlling the project schedule 56 inputs of plan schedule management - ANSWER-project management plan, project charter, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of plan schedule management - ANSWER-expert judgment, analytical techniques, meetings outputs of plan schedule management - ANSWER-schedule management plan activity attributes - ANSWER-describe detailed characteristics of each activity - ex description, predecessor/successor activities, person resp. for each activity contingency reserve - ANSWER-budget within cost baseline or performance measurement baseline that is for accepted risks and for which contingent or mitigating responses are developed crashing - ANSWER-using alternative strategies for completing activities for the least additional cost. should be for tasks on critical path. may result in additional/new critical paths critical path - ANSWER-the path w the longest duration within the project fast tracking - ANSWER-overlapping or performing in parallel activities that would have been done sequentially. may increase rework or risk float - ANSWER-amount of time an activity can be delayed w/o delaying the end of the project. difference between late finish date and early finish date free float - ANSWER-amount of time an activity can be delayed w/o delaying the early start of any successor grade - ANSWER-a category to differentiate items w the same functional use but not the same characteristics hammock - ANSWER-summary activities used in a high-level project network diagram lag - ANSWER-the amount of time a successor's start or finish is delayed from the predecessor's start or finish lead (negative lag) - ANSWER-amount of time a successors start or finish can occur before the predecessor's start or finish level of effort - ANSWER-an activity that does not produce definitive end products and is measured by the passage of time 4 types of logical relationships - ANSWER-finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start, start-to-finish milestone - ANSWER-a significant point or event in a project, program, or portfolio 57 predecessor - ANSWER-the activity that must happen first when defining dependencies btwn activities in a network 3 types project network schedule calculations - ANSWER-forward pass, backward pass, float quality - ANSWER-degree to which a set of inherent characteristics satisfied the stated or implied needs of the customer resource calendar - ANSWER-a calendar that documents the time periods in which project team members can work on a project resource optimization techniques - ANSWER-techniques that are used to adjust start and finish dates of activities that adjust planned resource use to be equal to or less than resource availability resource leveling - ANSWER-a technique in which start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource constraints with the goal of balancing resource demand with supply schedule activity - ANSWER-an element of work performed during the course of a project. smaller than a work package types of scheduling charts - ANSWER-gantt chart, milestone chart, network diagram, time-scaled network diagram standard deviation - ANSWER-measurement of the variability of the quantity measured from the average statistical terms - ANSWER-mean, variance, standard deviation three-point estimating or triangular distribution - ANSWER-takes the average of 3 estimated durations - optimistic, most likely, pessimistic weighted three-point estimates or beta/PERT - ANSWER-weighs the most likely estimate by a factor of 4. (O + 4ML + P)/6 what if scenario analysis - ANSWER-process of evaluating scenarios in order to predict their effect of project objectives schedule management plan - ANSWER-a component of the project management plan that establishes criteria and activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule define activities process - ANSWER-process of identifying and documenting specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables - provide a basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, monitoring and controlling project work inputs of define activities - ANSWER-schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of define activities - ANSWER-decomposition, rolling wave planning, expert judgment 60 activity duration estimates - ANSWER-quantitative assessments of the likely # of time periods required to complete an activity. do not include lags. may include a range ways to apply reserve analyis - ANSWER-add a % to all activities, add additional tasks to account f/ uncertainty, utilize the more pessimistic estimates when is a % used in reserve analysis - ANSWER-when uncertainty exists across entire project before any risk assessment is performed when are additional tasks added in reserve analysis - ANSWER-when specific and history warrants when are pessimistic estimates used in reserve analysis - ANSWER-when resource assignments have not been finalized develop schedule process - ANSWER-process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule model inputs of develop schedule process - ANSWER-schedule management plan, activity list, activity attributes, project schedule network diagrams, activity resource requirements, resource calendars, activity duration estimates, project scope statement, risk register, project staff assignments, resource breakdown structure, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of develop schedule process - ANSWER-schedule network analysis, critical path method, critical chain method, resource optimization techniques, modeling techniques, leads and lags, schedule compression, scheduling tool outputs of develop schedule process - ANSWER-schedule baseline, project schedule, schedule data, project calendars, project management plan updates, project documents updates schedule network analysis - ANSWER-performed by project manager - determine overall duration using foward pass and backward pass calculations, using EF LF ES LS, float critical chain method - ANSWER-views the project as a system - critical chain adds resource dependencies to define a resource-limited schedule. longest sequence of resource-leveled tasks is the critical chain resource leveling - ANSWER-start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource constraints to balance demand w supply. often causes critical path to increase resource smoothing - ANSWER-adjusts activities of a schedule model so the requirements for resources do not exceed predefined limits. critical path is not changed. may not be able to optimize all resources resource histogram - ANSWER-graph that shows the total resources used in each time period common situations that require resource leveling - ANSWER-1. when required resources are only available at certain times 2. when required resources are only available in limited qualities 3. to keep resource usage at a constant level 61 when compressing schedule, focus on - ANSWER-the critical path, earlier tasks, and activity relationships such as leads and lags gantt chart - ANSWER-schedule in bar-chart format - created when network analysis is completed schedule baseline - ANSWER-part of project management plan. approved version of schedule model that can be changed only thru formal change control and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results control schedule process - ANSWER-monitoring status of project activities to update progress and manage changes to schedule baseline inputs of control schedule process - ANSWER-project management plan, project schedule, work performance data, project calendars, schedule data, org process assets tools and techniques of control schedule process - ANSWER-performance reviews, project management software, resource optimization techniques, modeling techniques, leads and lags, schedule compression, scheduling tool outputs of control schedule process - ANSWER-work performance info, schedule forecasts, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, org process assets updates performance reviews - ANSWER-process of measuring, comparing, and analyzing performance in relation to the schedule trend analysis - ANSWER-examines performance over time to see if it is improving or deteriorating org process assets for control schedule - ANSWER-existing formal and informal schedule control-related policies, schedule control tools, monitoring and reporting mehods project management plan updates from control schedule - ANSWER-schedule baseline, schedule management plan, cost baseline project documents updates from control schedul - ANSWER-schedule data, project schedule, risk register inputs of plan cost management - ANSWER-project management plan, project charter, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of plan cost management - ANSWER-expert judgment, analytical techniques, meetings outputs of plan cost management - ANSWER-cost management plan enterprise env factors that could influence plan cost management - ANSWER-org culture and structure, market conditions, currency exchange rates, published resource cost rate info, published seller price lists, PMIS 62 org process assets that could influence plan cost management - ANSWER-financial controls procedures, historical info and lessons learned, financial databases, existing formal and informal cost estimating and budgeting policies budget at completion (BAC) - ANSWER-the sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed crashing costs - ANSWER-additional costs above the normal estimates to speed up an activity estimate to complete (ETC) - ANSWER-the estimated additional costs to complete activities or the project management reserve - ANSWER-a dollar value, not included in project budget, that is set aside for unplanned changes to project scope or time that are not currently anticipated percent complete - ANSWER-the amount of work completed on an activity or WBS component rough order or magnitude estimate - ANSWER-an estimate w a range of -25% to +75% often used during project initiation estimate costs process - ANSWER-process of determining the costs associated w delivering a project inputs of estimate costs process - ANSWER-cost management plan, human resource management plan, scope baseline, project schedule, risk register, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of estimate costs process - ANSWER-expert judgment, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, bottom-up estimating, three-point estimating, reserve analysis, cost of quality, project management software, vendor bid analysis, group decision-making techniques outputs of estimate costs process - ANSWER-activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, project documents updates enterprise env factors that can influence estimate costs process - ANSWER-market conditions, published commercial information org process assets that can influence estimate costs process - ANSWER-cost estimating policies, cost estimating templates, historical information, lessons learned basis of estimate - ANSWER-rationale for estimates are defined in the WBS dictionary determine budget process - ANSWER-aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish a cost baseline inputs of determine budget process - ANSWER-cost management plan, scope baseline, activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, project schedule, resource calendars, risk register, agreements, org process assets tools and techniques of determine budget process - ANSWER-cost aggregation, reserve analysis, expert judgment, historical relationships, funding limit reconciliation 65 tools and techniques of plan quality management - ANSWER-cost benefit analysis, cost of quality, seven basic quality tools, benchmarking, design of experiments, statistical sampling, additional quality planning tools, meetings outputs of plan quality management - ANSWER-quality management plan, process improvement plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, project document updates enterprise env factors that may influence plan quality management - ANSWER-govt agency regulations, rules, standards, guidelines, working/operating conditions, cultural perceptions org process assets that may influence plan quality management - ANSWER-org quality policies, procedures, guidelines, historical databases, lessons learned cost-benefit analysis - ANSWER-compares the cost of the quality step to the expected benefit cost of quality - ANSWER-all costs incurred over life of the product in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraising for conformance to requirements, and failing to meet requirements cost of conformance - ANSWER-there is a proactive decision to eliminate errors from a project and product 2 types of costs of conformance - ANSWER-prevention and appraisal examples of prevention costs - ANSWER-build a quality product. costs due to increase # of training days, due to developing a regression test plan examples of appraisal costs - ANSWER-assess the quality. costs due to increase % of product inspected to reduce defective parts, due to purchasing state of the art equipment costs of non-conformance - ANSWER-costs that orgs incur after a project has been completed and are paid for by the operations of the business 2 types of costs of nonconformance - ANSWER-internal failure, external failure examples of costs of internal failure - ANSWER-failures found by the project. costs incurred once inspection of the final product has been performed and any defective products have been thrown away examples of costs of external failure - ANSWER-failures found by the customers. costs due to incrase in warranty work, costs when customers are lost, costs from an increase in lawsuits 7 basic quality tools - ANSWER-cause and effect diagrams, flowcharts, checksheets, pareto diagrams, histograms, control charts, scatter diagrams cause and effect/ishikawa/fishbone diagrams - ANSWER-tools used to determine the cause of an issue flowcharts - ANSWER-tools that can be used to improve communication and identify potential problems within a new system or business process 66 checksheets - ANSWER-used to gather data - ensures all data needed is gathered consistently to perform analysis pareto diagrams - ANSWER-type of histogram in which info is sorted by frequency. also called 80/20 rule bc 20% defects account for 80% of costs. show trends control charts - ANSWER-monitor performance within acceptable upper and lower boundaries - useful in identifying when processes require attention, show project progress scatter diagrams - ANSWER-useful if variable being measured doesnt trend - but is grouped or patterned - show a correlation btwn variables. demonstrate priorities run charts - ANSWER-show trending - used when objective of a project is to see an increase or decrease in a variable gantt charts - ANSWER-used to measure the progress of a project benchmarking in quality management - ANSWER-technique used to compare future data to past data - helpful when trying to improve a process design of experiments - ANSWER-statistical method for identifying which factors may influence specific variables of a product/process. may be used to determine the # and type of tests and impact on cost of quality statistical sampling - ANSWER-technique for determining how well a project is performing - choose part of the population of interest for inspection force field analysis - ANSWER-diagrams of the forces for and against change quality management plan - ANSWER-describes how the org's quality policies will be implemented, how they will meet quality requirements process improvement plan - ANSWER-component of proj management plan- details steps for analyzing project management and product development processes to identify activities that enhance their value process boundaries - ANSWER-describe purpose, start and end, inputs and outputs, owner, and stakeholders of the process process configuration - ANSWER-provides a graphic depiction of processes used to facilitate analysis process metrics - ANSWER-allow analysis of process efficiency targets for improved performance - ANSWER-guide the process improvement activities quality metric - ANSWER-describes a project attribute and how the control quality process will measure it. ex on-time performance, cost control, defect frequency, failure rate, availability, reliability, test coverage 67 quality checklists - ANSWER-a structure tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed perform quality assurance process - ANSWER-process of auditing the quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure that quality standards and operational definitions are used inputs of perform quality assurance process - ANSWER-process improvement plan, quality metrics, quality control measurements, project documents tools and techniques of quality assurance process - ANSWER-quality management and control tools, quality audits, process analysis outputs of quality assurance process - ANSWER-change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, org process assets updates affinity diagrams - ANSWER-used to generate ideas that can be linked to form organized patterns of thought about a problem process decision program charts - ANSWER-used to understand a goal in relation to the steps for getting to the goal - useful in contingency planning interrelationship digraphs - ANSWER-provide a process for creative problem solving in moderately complex scenarios that have interrelationships tree diagrams - ANSWER-may be used to represent decomposition hierarchies such as the WBS, RBS, OBS - useful as decision trees for establishing an expected value for a limited # of dependent relationships prioritization matrices - ANSWER-identify key issues and suitable alternatives to be prioritized as a set of decisions - mathematical score ranks options activity network diagrams - ANSWER-AOA and AON - use w scheduling methods such as PERT, CPM and pdm matrix diagrams - ANSWER-shows relationships btwn factors, causes, and objectives in matrix quality audit - ANSWER-process to determine if project activities comply w organizational policies, processes, and procedure. identify good practices, nonconformity, gaps, shortcomings, process analysis - ANSWER-follow steps outlined in process improvement plan to identify needed improvements control quality process - ANSWER-monitor and record results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend changes inputs of control quality process - ANSWER-project management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, work performance data, approved change requests 70 tools and techniques of acquire project team process - ANSWER-pre-assignment, negotiation, acquisition, virtual teams, multicriteria decision analysis outputs of acquire project team process - ANSWER-project staff assignments, resource calendars, project management plan updates enterprise env factors that may influence acquire project team - ANSWER-existing info on human resources, peronnel admin policies, organizational structure, colocation or multiple locations org process assets that may influence acquire project team - ANSWER-organizational standard policies, processes, procedures pre-assignment - ANSWER-project participants are selected in advance - can be used as part of a competitive proposal if a project award is dependent upon having specific expertise negotiation - ANSWER-project manager uses this to acquire appropriate resources. formal or informal. should be a win-win approach win-win approach to negotiation - ANSWER-both parties reach an agreeable conclusion based on a perceived mutual benefit acquisition - ANSWER-acquiring resources from outside sources if they are not available within the org - may involve hiring resources or subcontracting benefits of virtual teams in acquire project team - ANSWER-makes it easier to acquire teams and is a benefit to a project that requires unique skills. form teams of ppl from same org who live in widespread areas, add special expertise to a project team, incorporate employees who work from home, form teams of ppl who work different shifts/hours, include ppl w disabilities, move forward w projects that could not do bc travel expenses multicriteria decision analyis in acquire project team - ANSWER-selection criteria - availability, cost, experience, ability, knowledge, skills, attitude, international factors project staff assignments - ANSWER-documentation such as project team directory, memos to team members, names inserted into proj man plan resource calendars in acquire project team - ANSWER-shows the availability of team members - compare this w project schedule to determine if there are any gaps in resource needs develop project team process - ANSWER-allows project manager to focus on how to get the most out of the project team. ensures team members have the appropriate skills to perform, team interacts effectively, good team environment inputs of develop project team - ANSWER-hr management plan, project staff assignments, resource calendars 71 tools and techniques of develop project team - ANSWER-interpersonal skills, training, team-building activities, ground rules, colocation, recognition and rewards, personnel assessment tools outputs of develop project team - ANSWER-team performance assessments, enterprise env factors updates interpersonal skills for developing a team - ANSWER-"soft skills" - provide a positive working environment. ex influence, empathy, creativity, group facilitation training - ANSWER-all activities to enhance competencies of team members. formal or informal. ex classroom, online, computer based, on the job, mentoring, coaching forming - ANSWER-phase where team meets and learns about the project and their formal roles and responsibilities. team members tend to be independent and not as open storming - ANSWER-team begins to address the project work, technical decisions, and the project management approach. norming - ANSWER-team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviors to support the team. team learns to trust each other performing - ANSWER-teams function as a well organized unit. interdependent and work thru issues smoothly and effectively adjourning - ANSWER-team completes the work and moves on from the project leadership roles in forming stage - ANSWER-help members get to know each other, provide clear direction/purpose, involve members in developing plans, clarifying roles, provide info the team needs to start leadership roles in storming stage - ANSWER-resolve issues of power and authority, develop agreements, adapt leadership role, encourage members to take on more responsibilities leadership roles in norming stage - ANSWER-fully utilize team members skills/knowledge/experience, encourage and acknowledge members, encourage respec, work collaboratively leadership roles in performing stage - ANSWER-update teams methods and procedures to support cooperations, help team understand how to manage change, represent and advocate for team, monitor work progress and celebrate achievements leadership roles in adjourning stage - ANSWER-facilitate project team members moving to other projects, ensure work is completed, assess proj performance team building activities - ANSWER-will vary depending on which stage the team is in 72 ground rules - ANSWER-establish clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior. clear guidlines decrease misunderstanding and increase productivity - critical when colocation sync is needed or cultural variances are present colocation for develop project team - ANSWER-"tight matrix" - place members in same physical location to resolve conflict more easily and enhance communication. colocation strategies - ANSWER-team meeting room, places to post schedules. * benefits of informal collaboration that is colocated could be a barrier/conflict for others who are working remotely recognition and rewards - ANSWER-reward positive actions can motivate ppl - give team recognition throughout life cycle of project team performance assessments - ANSWER-indicators such as: improvements in individual skills, improvements in team competencies, reduced staff turnover rate, increased team cohesiveness enterprise env factors updates as a result of develop project team - ANSWER-personnel admin, employee training records, skill assessments manage project team process - ANSWER-tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, managing team changes inputs of manage project team - ANSWER-hr management plan, project staff assignments, team performance assessments, issue log, work performance reports, org process assets tools and techniques of manage project team - ANSWER-observation and conversation, project performance appraisals, conflict management, interpersonal skills outputs of manage project team - ANSWER-change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, enterprise env factors updates, org process assets updates issue log - ANSWER-document and monitor who is responsible for resolving issues by a target date org process assets that can influence manage project team - ANSWER-certificates of appreciation, newsletters, websites, bonus structures, corporate apparel, other org perquisites observation and conversation - ANSWER-used to stay in touch w the work and attitudes of project team members. monitors progress toward deliverables, accomplishments, interpersonal issues project performance appraisals - ANSWER-clarification of roles and responsibilities, constructive feedback, discovery of unknown issues, development of indiv training plans, establishment of goals components of issue logs - ANSWER-issue description, initiator, responsible person, target date for completion/priority, resolution explanation, actual completion date sources of conflict - ANSWER-scarce resources, high stress environments, unclear roles/responsibilities, multiple-boss syndrome, technologies being new/complex 75 project environemnt - ANSWER-issues of colocation, multiple locations, time zones, language must be considered sensitivity and confidentiality of info - ANSWER-issues of transmission and storage security as well as backup and recovery must be dealt w steps of a basic communication model - ANSWER-sender encodes a message, chooses medium, message passes thru medium and encounters noise that interferes transmission and meaning, receiver decodes message, receiver acknowledges receipt, receiver sends a feedback to the sender interactive communication methods - ANSWER-include meetings, phone calls, video conferencing formal verbal communication - ANSWER-presentations, speeches - used when persuading ppl to accept ideas and products informal verbal communication - ANSWER-meetings, conversations, humor, inquiries, team building, day- to-day communications push communication methods - ANSWER-include letters, memos, reports, emails, faxes etc sent to stakeholders formal written communication - ANSWER-should be used for key documents - project plans, project charter, communicating over long distances, complex problems, legal documents, long/technical situations informal written communication - ANSWER-should be used for status updates, info updates, day-to-day communicaitons pull communication methods - ANSWER-communicaitng thru internet sites and knowledge repositories - more likely to use formal written methods situations best dealt w in meetings - ANSWER-resolving problems, making decisions, communicating decisions, building relationships communications management plan - ANSWER-describes how project communications will be planned, structured, monitored and controlled manage communications process - ANSWER-executing process - delivering on the communications management plan inputs of manage communications process - ANSWER-communications management plan, work performance reports, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of manage communications process - ANSWER-communication technology, communication models, communication methods, info management systems, performance reporting 76 outputs of manage communications process - ANSWER-project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, org process assets updates techniques for effective communications management - ANSWER-sender-receiver models, choice of media, writing style, meeting management techniques, presentation techniques, facilitation techniques, listening techniques enterprise env factors that can affect manage communications - ANSWER-org culture/structure, govt/industry standards, PMIS org process assets that can affect manage communications - ANSWER-policies, procedures, processes regarding comm management, templates, historical info, lessons learned types of info management systems - ANSWER-hard copy document management, electronic communications management, electronic project management tools performance reporting - ANSWER-collecting/distributing performance info - status reports, progress measurements, forecasts examples of performance reports - ANSWER-anlaysis of past performance, analysis of project forecasts, current status of risks and issues, work completed during period, work to be completed in next period, summary of changes approved in period org process assets updates from manage communications process - ANSWER-stakeholder notifications, project reports, project presentations, project records, feedback from stakeholders, lessons learned documentation control communications process - ANSWER-monitoring and controlling communications thru entire project life cycle to ensure info needs of project stakeholders are met inputs of control communications - ANSWER-project management plan, project communications, issue log, work performance data, org process assets tools and techniques of control communications - ANSWER-information management systems, expert judgment, meetings outputs of control communications - ANSWER-work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, organizational process assets updates org process assets that can influence control communications - ANSWER-report templates, policies/standards that define communications, specific communication technologies, allowed communication media, record retention policies, security requirements information management systems - ANSWER-provides a set of standard tools for the project manager to capture, store and distribute info to stakeholders about project cost, schedule progress, and performance 77 contingency plan - ANSWER-a response to a risk event that will be implemented only if the risk event occurs decision theory - ANSWER-a technique for assisting in reaching decisions under uncertainty and risk - points to the best possible course fallback plan - ANSWER-a response plan that will be implemented if the primary response plan is ineffective issue - ANSWER-a risk event that has occurred opportunities - ANSWER-risk events or conditions that are favorable to a project residual risk - ANSWER-the risk that cannot be eliminated in implementing a risk response plan risk appetite - ANSWER-degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward risk threshold - ANSWER-measures, along the level of uncertainty or level of impact, at which a stakeholder may have a specific interested. risk tolerated under this, not tolerated above this risk tolerance - ANSWER-degree, amount, or volume of risk that an org or individual will withstand secondary risk - ANSWER-new risk that is introduced as a result of the risk response threat - ANSWER-a risk event or condition that is unfavorable to the project workarounds - ANSWER-unplanned responses to risks that were previously unidentified or accepted plan risk management - ANSWER-process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a project inputs of plan risk management - ANSWER-project management plan, project charter, stakeholder register, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of plan risk amangement - ANSWER-analytical techniques, expert judgment, meetings outputs of plan risk management - ANSWER-risk management plan org process assets that can influence plan risk management - ANSWER-risk categories, common definitions of concepts, risk statement formats, standard templates, roles and responsibilities, authority levels for decision making, lessons learned analytical techniques in plan risk management - ANSWER-stakeholder risk profile analyses, strategic risk scoring sheets 80 inputs of perform quantitative risk analysis - ANSWER-risk management plan, cost management plan, schdule management plan, risk register, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of perform quantitative risk analysis - ANSWER-data gathering and representation techniques, quanitative risk analysis and modeling techniques, expert judgment outputs of perform quantitative risk analysis - ANSWER-project documents updates data gathering and representation techniques - ANSWER-interviewing, probability distributions sensitivity analysis - ANSWER-helps determine risk w the highest potential impact on a project - may use tornado diagram tornado diagram - ANSWER-bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing relative importance of variables expected monetary value analysis - ANSWER-used to determine the average outcomes of a specific scenario - calculated by multiplying value of each outcome by its probability and adding the products together. requires a risk neutral assumption. may use a decision tree modeling and simulation - ANSWER-uses a model that translates the specified detailed uncertainties of the project into their potential impact on project objectives. typically use the monte carlo technique monte carlo technique - ANSWER-project model is computed many times w the input values chosen at random for each iterations from the probability distributions. a histogram is calculated from the itertations project documents updates from quantitative risk analysis - ANSWER-probabilistic analysis of the project, probability of achieving cost and time objectives, prioritized list of quantified risks, trends in results plan risk responses process - ANSWER-developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives. addresses risks by their priority inputs of plan risk responses - ANSWER-risk management plan, risk register tools and techniques for plan risk responses - ANSWER-strategies for negative risks/threats, strategies for opportunities, contingent response strategies, expert judgment outputs of plan risk responses - ANSWER-project maanagemnt plan updates, project documents updates strategies for negative risks or threats - ANSWER-avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept avoid - ANSWER-change project management plan to eliminate the threat entirely transfer - ANSWER-shift all or some of the risk to a third party mitigate - ANSWER-reduce probability and/or impact of an adverse risk event 81 accept - ANSWER-take no action as part of the planning process strategies for positive risks or opportunities - ANSWER-exploit, share, enhance, accept exploit - ANSWER-ensure that the opportunity is realized share - ANSWER-allocate ownership to a third party who may best be able to capture the opportunity enhance - ANSWER-increase probability and/or impact of the opp contingent response strategies - ANSWER-events that trigger the contingency response should be defined and tracked - contingency plans or fallback plans. update wbs, schedule, budget, project man plan, etc control risks process - ANSWER-implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, evaluating risk process effectiveness inputs of control risks - ANSWER-project management plan, risk register, work performance data, work performance reports tools and techniques for control risks - ANSWER-risk reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend analysis, technical performance measuremnet, reserve analysis, meetings outputs for control risks - ANSWER-work performance info, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, org process assets updates risk reassessmnet - ANSWER-set aside time at status meetings to review key risks, warrants change, any new risks risk audits - ANSWER-assess how well team anticipated a risk, how effective response was, how effective a response strategy was in reducing probability of a risk variance and trend analysis - ANSWER-identifying if risk response strategies are working - compare planned results to actual results technical performance measurement - ANSWER-compares technical accomplishments during project execution to the schedule of technical achievement - quantifiable measurements - throughput, system response time, defect rates, durability reserve analysis - ANSWER-compare amount of the contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk remaining to determine if remaining reserve is adequate retired risks - ANSWER-should be closed but not eliminated - may be retained in an appendix to the risk register meetings in control risks - ANSWER-project risk management should be an agenda item at all status meetigns 82 inputs of plan procurement management - ANSWER-project management plan, requirements documentation, risk register, activity resource requirements, project schedule, activity cost estimates, stakeholder register, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of plan procurement management - ANSWER-make-or-buy analysis, expert judgment, market research, meetings outputs of plan procurement management - ANSWER-procurement management plan, procurement statement of work, procurement documents, source selection criteria, make-or-buy decisions, change requests, project documents updates enterprise env factors that can influence plan procurement management - ANSWER-marketplace conditions, products/services in marketplace, suppliers, typical terms and conditions, unique local requirements org process assets that can influence plan procurement management - ANSWER-formal procurement policies/procedures, management systems, established multi-tier system of prequalified selers fixed-price contracts - ANSWER-sets a fixed total price for a product/service/result - legally obligated to complete - buyers need to specify products firm fixed price contracts - ANSWER-most common contract - price for goods set at the outset and not subjected to change - cost increase is the responsibility of the seller fixed price incentive fee contracts - ANSWER-buyer and seller have some flexibility - allows for deviation w financial incentives tied to achieving agreed upon metrics fixed price w economic price adjustment contract - ANSWER-used when seller's performance period spans a long time - predefined final adjustments to contract price allowed due to changed conditions cost-reimbursable contracts - ANSWER-payments to the seller for all actual costs incurred for completed work plus a fee for seller profit - provides the project flexibility to redirect a seller when scope of work cannot be defined at start time and material contracts - ANSWER-generally used for small dollar amounts - may be pried on a perhour or peritem basis - but total number of hours or items is not determined bidder conference - ANSWER-buyer and potential sellers meet prior to the contract award to answer questions about the scope of work and clarify requirements buyer - ANSWER-performing org, client, customer, contractor, purchaser , requester seeking to acquire goods/services from seller. buyer becomes the customer and key stakeholder commercial-off-the-shelf - ANSWER-a product or service that is readily available from many sources - selection of a seller is driven by price contract - ANSWER-the binding agreement between a buyer and seller 85 inspections and audits - ANSWER-formal - look closely at vendor's internal processes - look at compliance in terms of product quality or process quality payment systems - ANSWER-ensures that all seller payments are made and documented in agreement w contract terms. processed by the accounts payable system of the buyer claims administration - ANSWER-act of responding to conflict btwn buyer and seller records management system - ANSWER-used by proejct manager to manage contract and procurement documentation and records inputs of close procurements - ANSWER-project management plan, procurement docs tools and techniques of close procurements - ANSWER-procurement audits, procurement negotiations, records management system outputs of close procurements - ANSWER-closed procurements, org process assets updates procurement audit - ANSWER-structured review of procurement process - identify successes/failures procurement negotiations in close procurements - ANSWER-claims, disputs, appeals are brought to settlement. early termination of a contract - ANSWER-special case of procurement closure org process assets updates from close procurements - ANSWER-procurement file, deliverable acceptance, lessons learned documentaiton identify stakeholders - ANSWER-determining who stakeholders are and how they are impacted by a projects delivery affiliation power - ANSWER-power that results from whom u know or whom an individual has access to change log - ANSWER-comprehensive list of changes made during a project expert power - ANSWER-power that results from an individual's knowledge, skills, experience legitimate power - ANSWER-formal authority that an indiv holds as a result of his or her position penalty power - ANSWER-power that results from an ability to take away something of value to another referent power - ANSWER-power that results from a project manager's personal characteristics reward power - ANSWER-power that results from an ability to give something of value to another stakeholder register - ANSWER-project doc that includes the identification, assessment, and classification of project stakeholders 86 inputs of identify stakeholders - ANSWER-project charter, procurement docs, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of identify stakeholders - ANSWER-stakeholder analysis, expert judgment, meetings outputs of identify stakeholders - ANSWER-stakeholder register enterprise env factors that could influence identify stakeholders - ANSWER-org culture/structure, govt/industry sandards, global, regional local trends practice or habits org process assets that can influence identify stakeholders - ANSWER-stakeholder register templates, lessons learned, stakeholder registers from previous projects stakeholder analysis - ANSWER-gathering and evaluating info regarding the ppl or orgs impacted by a project categories in stakeholder analysis - ANSWER-interests, expectations, influence, power. use power/interest grid, power/influence grid, influence/impact grid, salience model salience model - ANSWER-describes classes of stakeholders based on their power, urgency, and legitimacy components of stakeholder register - ANSWER-identification info (name, position, location, role), assessment info (info from stakeholder analysis), stakeholder classification (internal or external, supporter, neutral, or resistant), additional info on communication needs/risk tolerances inputs of plan stakeholder management - ANSWER-project management plan, stakeholder register, enterprise env factors, org process assets tools and techniques of plan stakeholder management - ANSWER-expert judgment, meetings, analytical techniques outputs of plan stakeholder management - ANSWER-stakeholder managemnet plan, project docs updates analytical techniques for plan stakeholder management - ANSWER-evaluate stakeholder engagement - unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, leading stakeholder engagement assessment matrix - ANSWER-defines current state and desired state of stakeholder engagements components of stakeholder management plan - ANSWER-engagement levels, impacts, relationships among stakeholders, communications requirements, information on format and content of communications, need for and reason for communication, timing of info distribution inputs of manage stakeholder engagement - ANSWER-stakeholder management plan, communications management plan, change log, org process assets 87 tools and techniques of manage stakeholder engagement - ANSWER-communication methods, interpersonal skills, management skills outputs of manage stakeholder engagement - ANSWER-issue log, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, org process assets updates 11 interpersonal skills - ANSWER-leadership, teambuilding, motivation, communications, influencing, decision-making, political and cultural awareness, negotation, trust building, conflict management, coaching management skills - ANSWER-faciliatation, speaking, negotiating. modify org behavior to accept project outcomes org process assets updates from manage stakeholder engagement - ANSWER-stakeholder notifs, project reports, project presentations, project records, feedback from stakeholders, lessons learned inputs of control stakeholder engagement - ANSWER-project management plan, issue log, work performance data, project docs tools and techniques of control stakeholder engagement - ANSWER-information management systems, expert judgment, meetings outputs of control stakeholder engagement - ANSWER-work performance info, change requests, project management plan updates, project docs updates, org process assets updates 10 Project Areas - ANSWER-Project integration Management Project Scope Management Project Time Management Project Cost Management Project Quality Management Project Human Resource Management Project Communications Project Risk Management Project Procurement Management Project Stakeholder Management Project Integration Management - ANSWER-Coordinates all aspects of the PM plan in order to accomplish the project objectives. What are the 6 processes of Project Integration Management? - ANSWER-Develop Project Charter Develop Project Mgt Plan Direct and manage project work Monitor & control project work perform integrated change control close project or phase 90 Plan Resource Management, Estimate Activity Resources Plan Communications Management Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses Plan Procurement Management Plan Stakeholder Management The Processes of the Executing Process Group - ANSWER-Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Project Knowledge Manage Quality Acquire Resources, Develop Team, Manage Team Manage Communications Implement Risk Response Conduct Procurements Manage Stakeholder Engagement The Processes of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group - ANSWER-Monitor and Control Project Work, Perform Integrated Change Control Validate Cope, Control Scope Control Schedule Control Costs Control Quality Control Resource Monitor Communications Monitor Risks Control Procurements Monitor Stakeholder Engagements The Process of the Closing Process Group - ANSWER-Close Project or Phase Develop Project Charter - ANSWER-Initiating Process Group, Integration Management Formally authorizes existence of project and provides PM with authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. I: Business Documents (business case), Agreements, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Gathering, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Meetings O: Project Charter, Assumption Log Develop Project Management Plan - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Integration Management Defines, prepares and coordinates all plan components and consolidates them into an integrated Project Management plan. I: Project Charter, Outputs from Other Processes, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Gathering, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Meetings O: Project Management Plan Direct and Manage Project Work - ANSWER-Executing Process Group, Integration Management Process of leading and performing work defined in the project management plan to achieve project objectives. 91 I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Approved Change Requests, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Project Management Information Systems, Meetings O: Deliverables, Work Performance Data, Issue Log, Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Document Updates, OPA Updates Manage Project Knowledge - ANSWER-Executing Process Group, Integration Management Process of using existing knowledge to create new knowledge to achieve objectives and to contribute to the organizational knowledge base for future efforts. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Deliverables, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Knowledge Management, Information Management, Interpersonal and Team Skills O: Lessons Learned Register, Project Management Plan Updates, OPA Updates Monitor and Control Project Work - ANSWER-Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, Integration Management Process of tracking, reviewing, and regulating process to meet performance objectives defined in project management plan. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Work Performance Information, Agreements, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Analysis, Decision Making, Meetings O: Work Performance Reports, Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Document Updates Performing Integrated Change Control - ANSWER-Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, Integration Management Process of reviewing all change requests, approving and managing changes to the project deliverables, project documents and project management plan. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Work Performance Reports, Change Requests, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Analysis, Change Control Tools, Decision Making, Meetings O: Approved Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Document Updates Close Project or Phase - ANSWER-Closing Process Group, Integration Management Process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract. I: Project Charter, Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Accepted Deliverables, Business Documents, Agreements, Procurement Documentation, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Analysis, Meetings O: Project Document Updates, Final Project, Service or Result Transition, Final Report, OPA Updates Plan Scope Management - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Scope Management Process of creating a scope management plan that documents how the project scope will be defined, validated and controlled. I: Project Charter, Project Management Plan, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Analysis, Meetings O: Scope Management Plan, Requirements Management Plan Collect Requirements - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Scope Management 92 Process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet objectives. I: Project Charter, Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Business Documents, Agreements, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Decision Making, Data Gathering, Context Diagrams, Data Representation, Data Analysis, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Prototype O: Requirements Documentation, Requirements Traceability Matrix Define Scope - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Scope Management Process of developing a detailed description of the project and product. I: Project Charter, Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Analysis, Decision Making, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Product Analysis O: Project Scope Statement, Project Document Updates Create WBS - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Scope Management Process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Decomposition O: Scope Baseline, Project Documents Updates Validate Scope - ANSWER-Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, Scope Management Process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Verified Deliverables, Work Performance Data T&T: Inspection, Decision Making O: Accepted Deliverables, Work Performance Information, Change Requests, Project Documents Updates Control Scope - ANSWER-Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, Scope Management Process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to scope baseline. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Work Performance Data, OPAs T&T: Data Analysis O: Work Performance Information, Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Documents Updates Plan Schedule Management - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Schedule Management Process of establishing policies, procedures, and documentation for planning developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule. I: Project Management Plan, Project Charter, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Meetings, Data Analysis O: Schedule Management Plan Define Activities - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Schedule Management Process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project documentation. I: Project Management Plan, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Decomposition, Rolling Wave Planning, Meetings O: Activity List, Activity Attributes, Milestone List, Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates 95 Process of defining how to estimate, acquire, manage and utilize physical and team resources. I: Project Charter, Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Representation, Organizational Theory, Meetings O: Resource Management Plan, Team Charter, Project Documents Updates Estimate Activity Resources - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Resource Management Process of estimating team resources and the type and quantities of material, equipment, and supplies necessary. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Bottom-Up Estimating, Analogous Estimating, Parametric Estimating, Data Analysis, Project Management Information System, Meetings O: Resource Requirements, Basis of Estimates, Resource Breakdown Structure, Project Documents Updates Acquire Resources - ANSWER-Executing Process Group, Resource Management Process of obtaining team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other necessary resources. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Decision Making, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Pre-Assignment, Virtual Teams O: Physical Resource Assignments, Project Team Assignments, Resource Calendars, Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, EEF Updates, OPA Updates Develop Team - ANSWER-Executing Process Group, Resource Management Process of improving competencies, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Colocation, Virtual Teams, Communication Technology, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Recognition and Rewards, Training, Assessments, Meetings O: Team Performance Assessments, Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Documents Updates, EEF Updates, OPA Updates Manage Team - ANSWER-Executing Process Group, Resource Management Process of tracking team performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing team changes to optimize project performance. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Work Performance Reports, Team Performance Assessments, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Interpersonal and Team Skills, Project Management Information System O: Change Requets, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Documents Updates, EEF Updates Control Resources - ANSWER-Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, Resource Management Process of ensuring that the physical resources assigned and allocated to the project are available as planned, as well as monitoring planned vs actual resource use with corrective action. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Work Performance Data, Agreements, OPAs T&T: Data Analysis, Problem Solving, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Project Management Information System O: Work Performance Information, Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Documents Updates 96 Plan Communication Management - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Communication Management Process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communication activities based on the information needs of each stakeholder, available organization assets, and needs of the project. I: Project Charter, Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Communication Requirement Analysis, Communication Technology, Communication Models, Communication Methods, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Data Representation, Meetings O: Communication Management Plan, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Documents Updates Manage Communications - ANSWER-Executing Process Group, Communication Management Process of ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Work Performance Reports, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Communication Technology, Communication Methods, Communication Skills, Project Management Information System, Project Reporting, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Meetings O: Project Communications, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Documents Updates, OPA Updates Monitor Communications - ANSWER-Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, Communication Management Process of ensuring the information needs of the project and its stakeholders are met. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Work Performance Data, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Project Management Information System, Data Representation, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Meetings O: Work Performance Information, Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Documents Updates Plan Risk Management - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Risk Management Process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a project. I: Project Charter, Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Analysis, Meetings O: Risk Management Plan Identify Risks - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Risk Management Process of identifying individual project risks as well as sources of overall project risk, and documenting their characteristics. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Agreements, Procurement Documentation, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Gathering, Data Analysis, Interpersonal and team Skills, Prompt Lists, Meetings O: Risk Register, Risk Report, Project Documents Updates Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Risk Management Process of prioritizing individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs 97 T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Gathering, Data Analysis, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Risk Categorization, Data Representation, Meetings O: Project Documents Updates Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Risk Management Process of numerically analyzing the combined effect of identified individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty on overall project objectives. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Gathering, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Representations of Uncertainty, Data Analysis O: Project Documents Updates Plan Risk Responses - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Risk Management Process of developing options, selecting strategies, and agreeing on actions to address overall project risk exposure, as well as to treat individual project risks. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Gathering, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Strategies for Threats, Strategies for Opportunities, Contingent Response Strategies, Strategies for Overall Project Risk, Data Analysis, Decision Making O: Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Documents Updates Implement Risk Responses - ANSWER-Executing Process Group, Risk Management Process of implementing agreed upon risk response plans I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Interpersonal and Team Skills, Project Management Information System O: Change Requests, Project Document Updates Monitor Risks - ANSWER-Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, Risk Management Process of monitoring the implementation of agreed-upon risk response plans, tracking identified risks, identifying and analyzing new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project. I: Project Management Plan, Project Documents, Work Performance Data, Work Performance Reports T&T: Data Analysis, Audits, Meetings O: Work Performance Information, Change Requests, Project Management Plan Updates, Project Documents Updates, OPA Updates Plan Procurement Management - ANSWER-Planning Process Group, Procurement Management Process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach, and identifying potential sellers. I: Project Charter, Business Documents, Project Management Plan, Project Documents, EEFs, OPAs T&T: Expert Judgment, Data Gathering, Data Analysis, Source Selection Analysis, Meetings O: Procurement Management Plan, Procurement Strategy, Bid Documents, Procurement Statement of Work, Source Selection Criteria, Make-Or-Buy Decisions, Independent Cost Estimates, Change Requests, Project Documents Updates, OPA Updates Conduct Procurements - ANSWER-Executing Process Group, Procurement Management Process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.