Medical Terminology: Anatomy, Physiology, and Diseases, Exams of Public Health

Download Medical Terminology: Anatomy, Physiology, and Diseases and more Exams Public Health in PDF only on Docsity! Cysto- is a prefix meaning - ANSWER--Bladder The term for narrowing is - ANSWER--Stenosis Gastrectomy is the term for excision of the - ANSWER--Stomach The abbreviation meaning two times a day is - ANSWER--BID Indicate the correctly spelled word A. Pharengitis B. Pharyngitis C. Pharyngytis - ANSWER--B. Pharyngitis Communication with patients can be improved by A. Using their first name B. Talking about yourself C. Providing privacy D. Avoiding eye contact - ANSWER--C. Providing privacy What are patient instruction sheets used for? - ANSWER--Prevent misunderstanding The best time to perform a breast exam . - ANSWER--Monthly Hyper- - ANSWER--Increased Nephro- - ANSWER--Kidney Auto- - ANSWER--Self Osteo- - ANSWER--Bone Dys- - ANSWER--Painful Litho- - ANSWER--Stone Brady- - ANSWER--Slow Chole- - ANSWER--Gallbladder Macro- - ANSWER--Large Gastro- - ANSWER--Stomach Arthro- - ANSWER--Joint Tachy- - ANSWER--Fast Thoraco- - ANSWER--Chest -desis - ANSWER--Bind or tie -phagia - ANSWER--Swallowing -ostomy - ANSWER--Surgical opening -pathy - ANSWER--Disease hs - ANSWER--At bedtime IM - ANSWER--Intramuscular Hx - ANSWER--History q.i.d. - ANSWER--Four times per day gtt - ANSWER--Drop q.d. - ANSWER--Once daily p.c. - ANSWER--After meals OD - ANSWER--Right eye CC - ANSWER--Chief complaint CHF - ANSWER--Congestive heart failure RLQ - ANSWER--Right lower quadrant Dx - ANSWER--Diagnosis LMP - ANSWER--Last menstrual period I and D - ANSWER--Incision and drainage Tx - ANSWER--Treatment Hct - ANSWER--Hematocrit LUQ - ANSWER--Left upper quadrant SOB - ANSWER--Shortness of breath STAT - ANSWER--Immediately po - ANSWER--By mouth Term for Lower blood pressure - ANSWER--Hypotension Term for Scar tissue - ANSWER--Cicatrix Term for Enlargement of the kidney - ANSWER--Nephromegaly Term for Gallbladder stones - ANSWER--Cholelithiasis Term for Beneath the skin - ANSWER--Subcutaneous Term for Upper jaw - ANSWER--Maxilla Goiter is what type of disease? - ANSWER--Endocrine system disease Term for Vomiting blood - ANSWER--Hematemesis Term for Smallest blood vessel - ANSWER--Capillary Term for Kneecap - ANSWER--Patella Term for Inflammation of a nerve - ANSWER--Neuritis Bending motion that decreases the angle between adjoining bones - ANSWER--Flexion Lying face down and flat - ANSWER--Prone The lungs are found in which immediate to most general cavity - ANSWER--Thoracic, then ventral (anterior) Lying flat on the back - ANSWER--Supine Toward the tail - ANSWER--Caudal Toward the brain/head - ANSWER--Rostral The liver is found in which immediate to most general cavity - ANSWER-- Abdominal, then abdominopelvic, then ventral (anterior) The heart is found in which immediate to most general cavity - ANSWER-- Pericardial, then mediastinum, then thoracic, then ventral (anterior) Frontal/Coronal plane divides the body into - ANSWER--Anterior and posterior Midsagittal plane divides the body into - ANSWER--Left and right Transverse plane divides the body into - ANSWER--Superior and inferior What are the main cavities - ANSWER--Dorsal and ventral What is located in dorsal cavity - ANSWER--Cranial and vertebral What cavities are located in the thoracic cavity - ANSWER--Right pleural cavity, left pleural cavity, mediastinum What organs are located in the thoracic cavity - ANSWER--Lungs, heart, part of the esophagus, trachea, and thymus gland What cavities does the diaphragm divide - ANSWER--Thoracic and abdominopelvic What organs are located in the abdominopelvic cavity - ANSWER-- Stomach, small intestine, large intestine, kidneys, bladder, gall bladder, liver, pancreas, and reproductive organs What cavities are located in the abdominopelvic cavity - ANSWER-- Abdominal and pelvic The abdomen is divided into 9 areas. Starting from upper right (under the breast) and going across, then down the rows - ANSWER--Right hypochondriac, epigastric, left hypochondriac Right lateral, umbilicus, left lateral Right iliac/inguinal, hypogastric/pelvic, left iliac/inguinal Going in order from the most superior vertebrae to the tail bone name the type of vertebrae and give the right number of each - ANSWER-- Cervical (C1-C7), includes atlas (C1) and axis (C2) Thoracic (T1-T12) Lumbar (L1-L5) Sacrum Coccyx T/F: When two people communicate, both persons will alternate roles as sender and receiver as they seek responses and clarification. - ANSWER-- T T/F: Shaking your head in a negative way can jeopardize your communication with the patient. - ANSWER--T T/F: A MA may need to enter a patients' personal space to deliver care to a patient. - ANSWER--T T/F: Explanations do not help ease patient anxiety about what will happen. - ANSWER--F T/F: The use of touch can be therapeutic for some patients. - ANSWER--T T/F: Being touched by a stranger can be an uncomfortable or even a T/F: Vital signs can be taken by a MA. - ANSWER--T T/F: MA's may remove orthopedic casts. - ANSWER--T T/F: Injecting collagen or Botox is within the MA's scope of practice. - ANSWER--F T/F: MA' are allowed to inject anesthetics. - ANSWER--F T/F: Medication may be given orally by a MA. - ANSWER--T T/F: A MA is permitted to use a laser. - ANSWER--F T/F: MA's may call themselves the office "nurse". - ANSWER--F T/F: Recommending a course of treatment for a patient is within the scope of practice. - ANSWER--F T/F: If directed, a MA can apply an orthopedic splint. - ANSWER--F T/F: A MA can remove superficial sutures. - ANSWER--T T/F: MA's may perform finger sticks. - ANSWER--T A physician retired without notifying his patients. The physician could be charged with . - ANSWER--Abandonment The disposal of medical infectious waste is controlled by . - ANSWER- - CAL/OSHA Regulations. A physician describes a procedure, risks and alternative treatments to patient. This is called a/an . - ANSWER--Informed consent A MA who performs a procedure ordered by the physician employers protected under what principle? - ANSWER--Respondeat Superoir A MA can be required to appear in court with this document . - ANSWER- - Subpoena Narcotic prescriptions are regulated by which agency? - ANSWER--Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) A MA discusses a patient by name at lunch with others in the building. The MA could be charged with . - ANSWER--Invasion of privacy. A patient agrees to receive a flu shot. This is an example of . - ANSWER- - Consent A method of meditating disputes between a patient and a physician is called . - ANSWER--Arbitration Patient rights include this principle . - ANSWER--Confidentiality A false statement said about another person's character is called . - ANSWER--Slander A person under legal age who is self-supporting and living apart from parents is called a/an . - ANSWER--Emancipated minor This document is required in order to provide medical records . - ANSWER-- Records release Failure to perform professional care is called . - ANSWER-- Negligence State law requires that physicians always report this condition . - ANSWER-- Abuse Billing an insurance company for false charges is considered . - ANSWER- - Fraud Radial An instrument used to examine the ears is called what? - ANSWER-- Otoscope Does social history include marital status? - ANSWER--Yes Which of the following occurs as a urine specimen remains on the counter for a long time? - ANSWER-- Bacteria multiply What does a Holter monitor measure? - ANSWER--Heart rhythm What nerve is most apt to be affected during an injection in the buttock? - ANSWER--Sciatic What is an injection into fatty tissue lying immediately under the skin is called? - ANSWER-- Subcutaneous What is the first and most important rule to remember is an emergency? - ANSWER--Stay calm What are MA's expected to make decisions in medical office emergencies based on? - ANSWER--Medical knowledge Instruments touched by unloved hands are considered... - ANSWER-- Contaminated Define aerobes - ANSWER--Bacteria that thrive in oxygen In what position should hinged instruments be in when sterilized - ANSWER--Open What are molds and yeasts types of - ANSWER--Fungi Define sterilization - ANSWER--Destruction of all microorganisms Define asepsis - ANSWER--Absence of bacteria What is a surface free of contaminated instruments called? - ANSWER--A sterile field When you wash instruments to remove debris, you are -ing them - ANSWER--Sanitize Define pathogen - ANSWER--An organism that produces disesse What are gloves, masks, and gowns are known as what? - ANSWER-- Personal protective equipment What is a sterile pack containing scissors, thumbs forceps, and gauze squares called? - ANSWER--Suture removal pack What is the term for removal of contaminated materials from a wound? - ANSWER--Debridement What is scrubbing the surgical site in a circular motion from the center to the edge called? - ANSWER-- Surgical prep What is removing fluids or gasses by suction called? - ANSWER-- Aspiration What is flushing out a wound or cavity with a solution called? - ANSWER-- Irrigation What is a sterile surface containing sterile items - ANSWER--Surgical tray What does s/s, s/b, and b/b describe what surgical instrument? - ANSWER--Scissors What are instruments used to clamp off blood vessels called - ANSWER-- Hemostats What is a sterile covering placed over a wound called - ANSWER--A dressing What is the procedure where instruments such as fiberoptic scopes are soaked in chemicals called - ANSWER--Cold sterilization What is the physician's physical examination considered: objective or subjective - ANSWER--Objective Physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine - ANSWER-- Urinalysis A chemical substance that prevents clotting of blood in a blood specimen - ANSWER--Heparin A vacutainer that contains no anticoagulant has a stopper colored... - ANSWER--Red Material that presents a risk of possible infection is called - ANSWER--A biological hazard The first step in preparing a laboratory specimen is... - ANSWER--Patient identification What is the usual site for capillary testing - ANSWER--Fingertip A urine specimen obtained by the patient simply urinating in a cup is... - ANSWER--Random catch When a patient is instructed to cleanse the urethra with a antiseptic towelette is considered what type of specimen? - ANSWER--Clean catch The legal method of documenting lab testing process security is called... - ANSWER--Chain of custody What would a sterile swab be used for? - ANSWER--Wound culture The intensity of color in a urine specimen indicates what - ANSWER-- Concentration What can improper handling of lab specimens result in - ANSWER-- Contamination What instrument is used to prepare urine for a microscopic examination - ANSWER--Centrifuge What is the number of leads for a standard EKG. - ANSWER--12 What is a simple lab test that has a high degree of accuracy - ANSWER--A waived test What type of results are ensured by a quality control in a laboratory - ANSWER--Accurate What are stool specimens tested for - ANSWER--Occult blood What is a machine used for testing lung capacity - ANSWER--Spirometer What type of specimen can be used to diagnose tuberculosis - ANSWER-- Sputum specimen What the patient begins urinating in the toilet and catches the remainder in the cup, what type of catch is that considered? - ANSWER--Midstream catch A physician orders 150 mcg of Vitamin B12. You have 100 mcg/ml on hand. How many ml will you give? - ANSWER--1.5 A physician orders 10mg of Compazine. You have 5 mg/ml on hand. How many ml will you give? - ANSWER--2 A sub cut injection is given at what angle - ANSWER--45-90 degree What is the most used deep (adult) IM injection site - ANSWER-- Dorsogluteal When administering a sub cut injection, what is the max dose - ANSWER-- 2cc aka 2ml What should you keep in mind when choosing a needle/syringe unit for the patient - ANSWER--Age and size of patient -Diabetic shock Nitroglycerin if ordered for chest pain. It will be administered . - ANSWER--Under the tongue Formation of blisters following a burn can be treated with . - ANSWER- -Cool water An emergency tray would include . - ANSWER--Epinephrine To establish an airway, the patient would be placed . - ANSWER--On the back Symptoms of heart attack include pain in the chest, . - ANSWER--Jaw or arm The procedure used for a chocking person . - ANSWER--Abdominal thrust A broken bone wedged into another bone is called an . - ANSWER-- Impacted fracture A patient who is having a seizure should never be . - ANSWER--Restrained Organ system main function: integumentary - ANSWER--Protection from the environment Organ system main function: skeletal - ANSWER--Support and protection Organ system main function: muscular - ANSWER--Movement of the body and of the substances within the body Organ system main function: nervous - ANSWER--Fast, immediate, point- to-point communication and control Organ system main function: cardiovascular - ANSWER--Transport nutrients, wastes, hormones Organ system main function: lymphatic - ANSWER--Site of most immune system functions Organ system main function: respiratroy - ANSWER--Gas exchange Organ system main function: digestive - ANSWER--Digestion, chemical digestion Organ system main function: urinary - ANSWER--Filtration of blood to remove wastes Organ system main function: reproductive - ANSWER--Produce new individuals, continue the species Organ system main function: endocrine - ANSWER--Slow, long-term, body-wide communication and control Organ system main function: immune - ANSWER--Protect from pathogens (and cancer) Skeletal system organs - ANSWER--Bones Muscle system - ANSWER--Muscles Opposition - ANSWER--Thumb touch to other fingers Elevation - ANSWER--Shrugging shoulders Depression - ANSWER--Lowering shoulders Protraction - ANSWER--Hunching shoulders Retraction - ANSWER--Squaring shoulders Pronation - ANSWER--Back of the hand facing forward anatomically Laws - ANSWER--Rule or actions prescribed by authority that have a binding legal force Precedent - ANSWER--The decision of the case acts as a model for any future cases in which the facts are the same Ethics - ANSWER--The branch of philosophy related to morals, moral principles, and moral judgements Morality - ANSWER--Quality of being virtuous or practicing the right conduct Utilitarianism - ANSWER--An ethical theory based on the principle of what is the greatest good for the greatest number of people The greatest good for the greatest number of people Right-based ethics - ANSWER--Places the primary emphasis on a person's individual right Individual's rights to be protected Duty-based ethics - ANSWER--Focuses on performing one's duty to various people and institutions Based on absolute moral rules Justice-based ethics - ANSWER--Based on an important moral restraint called "veil of ignorance"- no one person is advantaged or disadvantaged Fair distribution of benefits and burndens Virtue-based ethics - ANSWER--Based on the belief that we have a duty or responsibility to others Quality assurance (QA) - ANSWER--Gathering and evaluating information about the services provided and comparing this information with an accepted standard Checks and balances - ANSWER--Designed by the framers of the Constitution so that no one branch of government would have more power then another and so that each branch of government is scrutinized by other branches of government Statutes - ANSWER--Laws passed by legislative bodies, Congress or a state legislature Common law (Case law) - ANSWER--Court decision Stare decisis - ANSWER--"Let the decision stand" Civil law defined - ANSWER--Concerns relationships either between individuals or between individuals and the government; all law that in not criminal Preponderance of evidence - ANSWER--Favors one side more than the other Tort law definition and Needs for Tort - ANSWER--Harms done to others 1. harm done 2. caused by the other person (intentional or not) Assault - ANSWER--Threat of bodily harm to another Battery - ANSWER--Actual bodily harm to another person without permission False imprisonment - ANSWER--A violation of the personal liberty of another person through unlawful restraint Defamation of character - ANSWER--Damage caused to a person's reputation thought spoken or written word Fraud - ANSWER--Deceitful practice that deprives another person od his or her rights Invasion of privacy defined - ANSWER--The unauthorized publicity of information about a patient Public Law (Criminal law) - ANSWER--Socially intolerable conduct that is punishable by law Misdemeanors - ANSWER--Punishable by fines or imprisonment of up to one year; less serious offenses than felonies Felony - ANSWER--A serious crime that carries a punishment of death or Partnership - ANSWER--All assets and responsibility shared Associate practice - ANSWER--Work is shared, but not profits or loses Group practice - ANSWER--Everything is shared Corporation - ANSWER--Managed by a board of directors State type of credentials - ANSWER--Licenses and certifications National type of credentials - ANSWER--Registration Abandonment - ANSWER--A civil wrong or tort; physicians not giving proper notice to patient of termination of care Advance directive - ANSWER--A written statement in which people state the type and amount of care they wish to receive during a terminal illness and as death approaches Durable power of attorney - ANSWER--A legal document that empowers another person (proxy) to make healthcare decisions for an incompetent patient In loco parentis - ANSWER--A person assigned by a court to stand in place of the parents and who possesses their legal rights and responsibilities toward the child Parens patriae authority - ANSWER--Occurs when the state takes responsibility from the Parents for the care and custody of minors under the age of 18 Consent - ANSWER--The voluntary agreement that a patient gives to allow a medically trained person the permission to touch, examine, and perform treatment Informed (expressed) consent - ANSWER--The patient agrees to the proposed course of treatment after having been told the possible consequences of having or not having certain procedures and treatments Implied consent - ANSWER--The patients behavior indicates that they are accepting of the procedure Malpractice - ANSWER--Professional misconduct or demonstration of an unreasonable lack of skill with the result of injury, loss, or damage to the patient Negligence - ANSWER--When a person either performs or fails to perform an action that a reasonable professional person would or would not have performed in a similar situation Malfeasance - ANSWER--Performing a wrong and illegal act Misfeasance - ANSWER--Improper performance of an otherwise proper and lawful act Nonfeasance - ANSWER--Failure to perform a necessary action Beneficence - ANSWER--Bringing about good Veracity - ANSWER--The duty of telling the truth The four D's - ANSWER--Duty, Dereliction, Direct (proximate) cause, and Damages Duty - ANSWER--Obligation est. between physician and patient Dereliction of duty - ANSWER--The physician or healthcare professional failed to provide a correct standard of care to the patient, thus not meeting their duty Direct (proximate) cause - ANSWER--The breach of duty was the direct cause of the patient's injury Damages defined - ANSWER--Injuries caused by the defendant for which compensation is due Substance abuse - ANSWER--The repeated and excessive use of a substance, despite its destructive effects, to produce please and escape reality What is the use of illegal drugs or the misuse of prescription and over- the-counter drugs considered? - ANSWER--Substance abuse Addiction regarding substances - ANSWER--The compulsive use of a substance despite its negative and sometimes dangerous effects Tolerance - ANSWER--The need to increase the amount of a substance to get the same effect Paraphrasing - ANSWER--Listening to what the sender is communication, analyzing the words, and restating them to confirm that the receiver has understood the message as the sender intended Types of defense mechanisms - ANSWER--Verbal aggression, sarcasm, rationalization, compensation, regression, repression, apathy, displacement, denial, physical avoidance, and projection Apathy - ANSWER--A lack of feeling, emotion, interest, and concern Barriers of communication - ANSWER--Physical impairment, language, prejudice, stereotyping, and perception Maslow's hierarchy of needs (bottom of the pyramid to the top) - ANSWER--Physiological needs (survival), Safety and security, Love and belonging (relationships), Esteem and recognition, and Self- actualization (fulfillment) Infraction - ANSWER--A minor offense punishable only by a fine; violation Libel - ANSWER--Written defamation; a harmful, false statement made about anther person written out Slander - ANSWER--Oral defamation; a harmful, false statement made about another person by mouth Burden of proof in a Criminal case - ANSWER--Reasonable doubt; 100% guilty Burden of proof in a Civil case - ANSWER--Preponderance of the evidence; more than 50% guilty Arbitration - ANSWER--An alternative to trial in which a third party is chosen to hear evidence and make a decision because of the individual's familiarity with or knowledge of the law or the issues involved Continuity of care - ANSWER--Continuation of care smoothly from one provider to another, so that the patient receives the most benefit and no interruption in care Problem-oriented medical record (POMR) 4 bases - ANSWER--Database, problem list, treatment plan, and progress notes SOAP acronym for... - ANSWER--Subjective impressions Objective clinical evidence Assessment or diagnosis Plans for further studies, treatment, or management Subjective information defined and examples - ANSWER--Provided by the patient; symptoms Personal demographics, personal and medical history, family history, social history, and chief complaint Objective information defined and examples - ANSWER--Provided by the physician; signs; measureable/observable Physical exam findings, lab reports, radiology reports, diagnosis, and treatment prescribed How long do medical records of Medicare or Medicaid patients have to be kept? - ANSWER--10 years Electronic health record (EHR) defined - ANSWER--An electronic record of health-related information about a patient that conforms to nationally recognized interoperability standards and that can be created, managed, and consulted by authorized clinicians and staff from MORE THAN ONE HEALTHCARE ORGANIZATION Electronic medical record (EMR) defined - ANSWER--An electronic record Decontamination defined - ANSWER--Physical or chemical means to remove or destroy pathogens on an item so that it is no longer capable of transmitting disease Disinfectant defined - ANSWER--An agent used to destroy pathogenic microorganisms; does not kill bacterial spores Sterilization defined - ANSWER--The process of destroying all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores Noncritical item defined - ANSWER--Item that comes in contact with intact skin but not with mucous membranes Critical item defined - ANSWER--Item that comes in contact with sterile tissue or the vascular system What vital signs does an MA perform? - ANSWER--Temperature, Pulse, Respiration (TPR), blood pressure (BP), and pulse oximetry (O2) Tachypnea defined - ANSWER--An abnormal increase in the respiratory rate Bradypnea defined - ANSWER--An abnormal decrease in the respiratory rate Hypoxemia defined - ANSWER--The decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood (less than 95%) Hypoxia defined - ANSWER--The reduction in the oxygen supply to the tissues of the body Hypertension defined - ANSWER--High blood pressure Hypotension defined - ANSWER--Low blood pressure Sitting position description - ANSWER--Sitting upright Supine position description - ANSWER--Lying on back Prone position description - ANSWER--Lying on stomach Dorsal recumbent position description - ANSWER--Lying on back, with legs open and bent at the knee Lithotomy position description - ANSWER--Lying on back, with legs open and bent at the knee and feet in stirrups Sims position description - ANSWER--Lying on stomach with right leg flexed sharply and raised up to hip area, with left leg slightly bent Knee-chest position description - ANSWER--Kneeling with butt elevated, head resting to one side lying on the table Fowler's position description - ANSWER--Sitting position with table head at a 45 degree angle and patient resting completely back What is myopia? - ANSWER--Nearsighted What is hyperopia? - ANSWER--Farsighted What is presbyopia? - ANSWER--A decreased ability to focus clearly on close objects; begins to occur after age 40 Erythema defined - ANSWER--Redding of the skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels in the skin Edema defined - ANSWER--Swelling Dilation versus Effacement - ANSWER--Opening versus thinning of the cervix Gravida (gravidity) defined - ANSWER--Pregnant Para (parity) defined - ANSWER--Birth What are wondering-baseline artifacts caused by? - ANSWER--Loose electrodes, dried-out electrolyte, body lotions, and excessive respirations What causes 60-cycle interference artifacts? - ANSWER--Lead wires not following body contour, other electrical equipment in the room or walls, and improper grounding of the electrocardiograph Normal sinus rhythm - ANSWER--ECG that is within normal limits What are pulmonary function tests used for? - ANSWER--PFT's are used to assess lung functioning, assisting in the detection and evaluation of pulmonary disease Spirometry defined - ANSWER--A simple, noninvasive screening test that is often performed in the medical office; it measures how much air is pushed out of the lungs and how fast it is pushed out What is asthma? - ANSWER--A chronic lung disease that affects the small airways (alveoli) of the lungs What does a peak flow meter measure? - ANSWER--Measures how quickly air flows out of the lungs when the patient exhales forcefully What is the difference between radiolucent and radiopaque? - ANSWER-- Radiolucent permits the passage of x-rays; soft-tissue structures Radiopaque obstructs the passage of x-rays; bones What type of patient is recommended to have a bone density scan for osteoporosis? And at what age do they start having it every 2 years? - ANSWER--Postmenopausal women, above 65 years old have it done every 2 years Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) defined - ANSWER--A radiograph of the kidney's, ureters, and bladder to detect kidney stones, blockages, narrowing, and growths within the urinary system What is computed technology (CT)? - ANSWER--An advanced radiographic exam that uses only minimal amounts of radiation What are MRI's used for? - ANSWER--For imaging tissues of high fat and water content that cannot be seen with other radiologic techniques Reference range defined - ANSWER--within an acceptable range Waived test defined - ANSWER--A laboratory test that has been determined by CLIA to be simple procedure that is easy to perform and has a low risk of erroneous results Nonwaived test defined - ANSWER--A complex lab test that does not meet the CLIA criteria for waiver and is subject to the CLIA regulations What is an analyte? - ANSWER--A substance that is being identified or measured in a lab test What does quality control ensure? - ANSWER--Test results to be reliable and valid What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative tests? - ANSWER--Qualitative indicates whether or not a substance is present; while qualitative indicates the exact amount of chemical substance is present Hematology defined - ANSWER--The study of blood What do these stand for: WBC, RBC, HgB, Hct, PT, and Plt? - ANSWER-- White blood cell Red blood cell Hemoglobin Hematocrit Prothrombin time Platelet count Anemia defined - ANSWER--decrease in hemoglobin level Polycythemia defined - ANSWER--increase in hemoglobin levels What does hematocrit measure? - ANSWER--The percentage volume of packed red blood cells in whole blood What is blood glucose? - ANSWER--It is the end product of carbohydrate metabolism; main source of energy for the body What is the largest bone in the body? - ANSWER--The femur Where is food absorbed into the body? - ANSWER--The small intestines An abnormal type of condition of the pancreas is... A. cystitis B. diabetes C. gallstones - ANSWER--B. diabetes Where does the transfer of gases in the respiratory system take place? - ANSWER--The alveoli The aorta is the largest... A. vein B. capillary C. artery - ANSWER--C. artery What is considered the "pacemaker" of the heart? - ANSWER--The SA (sinoatrial) node The main organ(s) of the urinary system is/are the... A. ureters B. urethra C. kidneys D. bladder - ANSWER--C. kidneys Endometriosis is an abnormal condition of what female organ system? - ANSWER--Reproductive system What are the three tiny bones in the middle of the ear called? - ANSWER- -Ossicles What were HCPCS codes developed to identify? - ANSWER-- Services/supplies not in the CPT-4 What is a necessary trait a MA should have? A. bilingual B. empathy C. negativity - ANSWER--B. empathy Body language is an example of... A. eye contact B. verbal communication C. non-verbal communication - ANSWER--C. non-verbal communication In CA, the MA may administer which of the following procedures? A. suturing lacerations B. intravenous therapy C. intramuscular injections - ANSWER--C. intramuscular injections By law in CA, all MA's shall receive training in... A. infection control B. basic surgical procedures C. intubation - ANSWER--A. infection control When one state accepted another state's license for a doctor, it is... A. reciprocity B. endorsing C. credentialing - ANSWER--A. reccprocity What are the two main types of law? - ANSWER--Civil and criminal What type of consent is this considered: when the physician has explained a procedure, the risks and whether there are alternatives to the patient? - ANSWER--Informed consent Arbitration is... A. a court session B. a deposition C. mediating a dispute D. dismissing a charge - ANSWER--C. mediating a dispute Misfeasance, malfeasance, and malpractice are forms of... A. contracts B. liabilities C. negligence - ANSWER--C. negligence What is the one thing physicians in CA are required to report by law? - ANSWER--Abuse In a medical practice, what should patient sing-in sheets only contain? - ANSWER--Patient's first names as they sign in When can a medical practice call patients by their first name? - ANSWER- -When they have permission In what form must patients of a medical practice have acknowledgement of their privacy? - ANSWER-- Written signature and initials on notice What does the cycle of "the chain of infection" explain? - ANSWER--How pathogens transmit disease from person to person What sheets contain information about chemicals, lists hazards, precautions, and manufacturer information? - ANSWER--MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) sheet What are gowns, face shields, and gloves considered? - ANSWER--PPE's Where does a tympanic thermometer measure temperature? - ANSWER- -In the ear Visual acuity measures a person's sight at specific distances... A. Ishihara test B. Weber test C. Snellen chart - ANSWER--C. Snellen chart A reflex hammer, tuning fork, and stethoscope are instruments used in what type of exam? - ANSWER-- A physical exam Mensuration refers to... - ANSWER--Body measurement Why is patient education important? - ANSWER--It helps patients understand situation/need for changes The ROS (Review of Systems) is part of the Medical History and is GENERALLY taken by who? - ANSWER-- The physician When interviewing a patient to obtain their medical history, the first step would be to ensure... A. prior testing is completed B. adequate time for interview C. privacy in a separate room - ANSWER--C. privacy in a separate room What would the patient be draped with in the lithotomy positon? - ANSWER--A diagonal drape What is a percussion hammer used to check for? - ANSWER--Reflex action What test is used to assess a patient's lung function? - ANSWER-- Spirometer What is an electrocardiograph used to detect? - ANSWER--Heart dysfunction What must a medical office adhere to when laboratory procedures are performed on site? - ANSWER-- CLIA and OSHA standards The urine specimen that is MOST concentrated is the... A. random B. 24 hour C. first morning - ANSWER--C. first morning What is the most COMMON site for capillary puncture in adults? - ANSWER--The middle finger What is the minimum amount of time records for dispensing/administration of controlled drugs be kept? - ANSWER--2 years How many times must a drug label be read before administration? - ANSWER--3 times What is an advantage of using parenteral administration of medication? A. less chance of infection B. faster completion time C. faster rate of absorption - ANSWER--C. faster rate of absorption A 25 gauge needle with 3/8 length is used for what type of injection? A. z-track CHF means what? - ANSWER--Congestive heart failure COPD means what? - ANSWER--Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Neuritis defined - ANSWER--Inflammation of a nerve Abbreviation: ac - ANSWER--Before meals Abbreviation: pc - ANSWER--After meals Abbreviation: prn - ANSWER--As needed or when necessary Abbreviation: STAT - ANSWER--Immediately Abbreviation: OD - ANSWER--Right eye Abbreviation: OS - ANSWER--Left eye Abbreviation: OU - ANSWER--Both eyes Abbreviation: ad lib - ANSWER--As desired Abbreviation: Noc - ANSWER--Night Abbreviation: NPO - ANSWER--Nothing by mouth Abbreviation: SL - ANSWER--Sublingual Abbreviation: WNL - ANSWER--Within normal limits What is movement toward the midline? - ANSWER--Adduction What is movement away from the midline? - ANSWER--Abduction Cystitis defined - ANSWER--Inflammation of the urinary bladder What is the term for gallstones? - ANSWER--Cholelithiasis What is the term for disease of the kidneys? - ANSWER--Nephropathy What is the Eustachian tube? - ANSWER--It is the narrow passage leading from the middle-ear to the pharynx. What does the AV node do? - ANSWER--The AV node delays the impulse momentarily to allow for complete contraction of the atria and filling od the ventricles with blood What does the SA node do? - ANSWER--The SA node, aka "pacemaker," initiates and regulates the heart beat What does the Bundle of His do? - ANSWER--The Bundle of His divides the electrical impulse initiated by the SA node to the left and right sides of the heart What structures are located in the inner ear? - ANSWER--The semilunar canals, vestibule, cochlea, and one side of the oval and the round windows What are the three ossicles? - ANSWER--Malleus, incus, and stapes How do the semilunar canals help the body? - ANSWER--They help by maintaining equilibrium What is the tympanic membrane? - ANSWER--It is a semitransparent membrane that receives sound waves, aka "ear drum" Schedule for control substances: I II III IV V - ANSWER--I: Cannot be prescribed II: Must be on triplicate prescription form in physician's own hand writing III: May be refilled up to 5 times, in a 6 month period-must be indicated on the prescription form IV: Sign by physician, can be refilled up to 5 times, in a 6 month period V: -plagia: paralysis -ptosis: drooping Parenteral administration of medication defined - ANSWER--Taking into the body through the piercing of the skin barrier, like an injection What gauge needle and length are used for IM and the Z-track injections? - ANSWER--18-23 gauge needle, and 1-1 1/2" length What gauge needle and length are used for an ID injection? - ANSWER-- 25-27 gauge needle, and 3/8- 5/8" length What gauge needle and length are used for a subcutaneous injection? - ANSWER--23-25 gauge needle, and 1/2-5/8" length Septic shock defined - ANSWER--Significant drop in BP that can lead to respiratory or heart failure, can lead to death Metabolic shock defined - ANSWER--Body's homeostasis impaired; acid- based balance disturbed (insulin shock (hypoglycemia) or diabetic coma (ketoacidosis)) body fluids imbalanced Parts of the syringe and needle - ANSWER--plunger, barrel, needle hub, and the needle Needle: shaft, lumen (diameter/gauge), bevel Tort of Negligence: Malfeasance Misfeasance Nonfeasance - ANSWER--Malfeasance: Performing illegal act Misfeasance: Performing legal act improperly Nonfeasance: Failure to perform necessary action What does the Snellen Chart measure? - ANSWER--Visual acuity of distance Hypovolemic shock defined - ANSWER--The loss of blood or other bodily fluids Cardiogenic shock defined - ANSWER--Failure of the heart to pump blood adequately to all of the body's vital organs Neurogenic shock defined - ANSWER--Nervous system unable to control the diameter/dilation of blood vessels Psychogenic shock defined - ANSWER--Caused by unpleasant physical/emotional stimuli; temporarily deprives brain of blood, thus fainting can occur (syncope) What are all the ways a physician can be granted a license to practice medicine? - ANSWER-- Examination: State exam or national (NBME- National Board of Medical Examiners) Endorsement: State accepts successful NBME examinees Reciprocity: Other state accepts physician's license from the state they took and passed their exam