CCHT EXAM-with 100% verified solutions 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

Download CCHT EXAM-with 100% verified solutions 2024-2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CCHT EXAM-with 100% verified solutions 2024- 2025 While technical staff are preforming duties in the dialysis unit which team member must always be present A. Registered nurse B. Medical director for unit C. Lab technician A. Registered nurse Two techs are heatedly discussing pt care situation. Which team member is responsible for disciplinary action A. Registered practical nurse B. Human resource manager C. Dialysis nurse manager C. Dialysis nurse manager Which credentialing agency for dialysis includes items such as water treatment and dialysate preparation and complication of dialysis as part of their practice domains A. Board of nephrology examiners nursing in technology B. Nephrology nursing certification commission C. National nephrology certification organization C. NNCO Prior to starting dialysis what must the technician and or nurse verify A. That patient has provided informed written consent for dialysis Written by studybuddy B. That the patient has not eaten any food or beverages for the last six hours C. That the patient has a driver to pick him up after dialysis A. Consent Which external agencies provide additional guidelines and standards in the areas of infectious disease testing immunizations dialysis treatment safety and infection control? A. Centers for disease control and prevention B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid service C. Association for the advancement of medical instrumentation D. Council of nephrology A B and C Prior to passing the Social Security amendments treatment for chronic kidney disease was available only to few who met certain criteria. The amendments extended Medicare coverage for almost all patients who signed the amendment and then what year A. Jimmy Carter in 1979 B. Richard Nixon 1972 C. John f Kennedy 1961 B. Richard Nixon 1972 Which organization recently approved by CMS to be an independent organization allowed to conduct surveys for Medicare certification fostering faster approval for dialysis clinics A. National kidney foundation B. Medicare bundle dialysis prospective payment system C. National dialysis accreditation commission C. NDAC What is the composition of saline The patient asks the dialysis technician if there's anything she can do to slow the progression of her kidney disease. Which risk factor could the technician mention during the conversation A. Control your blood glucose levels if you're a diabetic B. Maintain healthy weight C. Control cholesterol levels D. Stop use of alcohol A B and C Which recommendation would've nephrologist likely make for a patient who has read stages three or four chronic kidney disease A. We'll tele health visits discussing daily urine output B. Dietary restriction on sodium phosphorus and protein C. Monitoring for mineral bone disease D. Education on cardiovascular disease B,C and D Which patient would be considered at higher risk for developing chronic kidney disease A. Hispanic female who is unaware that she is hypertensive B. White female with family history of diabetes who watches her exercise and diet C. Asian male who schedules regular visits with healthcare provider D. African-American female whose parents both died following stroke A and D Patient with chronic kidney disease asks what her goal hemoglobin level should be what level as recommended by the national kidney foundation kidney disease guidelines A. 9% B. 7% C. 11% B.7% Patient with chronic kidney disease arrives at the center after his nephrology visit he relays to the staff that the doctor said he was hardening of the kidneys what is the cause of this condition A. Prolonged severe hypertension B. Daily ingestion of sugar sweetened drinks C. High fat diet D. Too much calcium in the diet along with hypertension A. What is one cause of postrenal failure A. Renal trauma B. Prostrate disease C. Fluid volume shifts D. Kidney infections B. Prostate disease The family member of a dialysis technician has noted blood in his urine the tech also noted the weight loss and rubbing of the flank to ease the cramping pain which disease comes to mind A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Bladder infection C. Kidney stones D. Renal carcinoma D. Renal carcinoma Which integumentary changes are commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease A. Brittle nails B. Excessive sweating C. Bruising D. Increase number of moles A and C Monday also patients infection account for about one and 10 fatalities which condition increases a patient's susceptibility to infection A. Diabetes B. Malnutrition C. Bone abnormalities D. Frequent invasive procedures A B and D Management of renal bone disease requires that ministration of which type of medication with every meal and snack A. Potassium and substitutes B. Antacids C. Phosphate binders C. Phosphate binders What can cause a "false" blood leak alarm A. Particulate matter and air bubbles in the dialyzer B. Reduction in the light received by a photo cell C. Change in translucency A. Particular matter What are the system requirements for high flux dialysis A. Reliable blood flow rate at at least 200 B. Hi dialysate flow rate C. Precise control of ultrafiltration volume D. Use of synthetic membrane filters B C and D Which factors affect removal of toxins in dialysis A. The higher the temperature of dialysate the greater the removal of solute B. The slower the dialysate flow the greater removal of solute's C. The slower the blood flow rate the greater removal of solute D. The more permeable the membrane the greater removal of solutes A and D To accomplish saw you removal and dialysis what is needed A. Mass transfer B. Countercurrent flow C. A difference in concentration C. Difference Why is reversed filtration important A. The bicarbonate concentrate encourages and supports bacterial proliferation B. Endotoxins may be carried across the high flux membrane into the bloodstream C. Pyrogens reaction may occur All of the above What modifications to the dialysis procedure can be made to prevent intradialytic complications associated with fluid removal A. Lower the temp of the machine B. Extend treatment times C. Check serum sodium levels every 15 min A and B Which water contaminants may cause methemoglobinemia in which red cell hemoglobin cannot transport oxygen A. Fluoride and Tin B. Nitrates and chloramines C. Zinc and aluminum B. Nitrates and chloramine What is the process utilized when two carbon tanks are used to remove chlorine and chloramine from tank water A. Adsorption B. Absorption C. Diffusion A. Adsorption What type of contaminants are removed from water used in dialysis A. Endotoxins B. Aqueous salts C. Water softeners A and B When preparing for reverse osmosis what type of membranes should the tech be prepared to utilize A. Peritoneum B. Cellulose acetate C. Thin film composites D. Chlorine resistant polysulfone B C and D Which problems may occur when using a deionizer A. It can be hard initially to obtain the maximum flow rate needed B. The service life of a deionizer may be short and essential that the filters be placed downstream C. Resin beds tend to exhaust suddenly in the tanks may need to be exchanged D. If the resin tanks are used to exhaustion previously removed ions may be released How should hand hygiene be performed A. With bar of soap and scrub brush B. With antiseptic soap and water C. With hand sanitizer D. With waterless alcohol base hand rub with 60-90% alcohol content B and D What type of garment should be worn during processes likely to generate droplets of bodily fluids A. Patient gown tied in back B. Weighted lead aprons C. Impervious isolation gowns C. Isolation gowns When washing hands with soap and water what's the minimum number of seconds hands should be rubbed together A. 10 B. 15 C. 30 B. 15 What are the most common ways Hep B virus is transmitted in a unit A. Skin penetration by contaminated sharps B. Contact of contaminated blood with broken skin C. Pts with Hep B breathing or coughing on others A and B Filling the accidental exposure to blood from a pt HIV positive what tx is recommended A. 3 month prescription of med to prevent HIV B. Follow up blood test three months after exposure C. 4 week 2 drug regimen is recommended within 72 hours of exposure C. According to the CDC health care workers exposed to needle stick involving HIV infected blood have a 0.23% chance of becoming infected if untreated. After a needle stick or sharps exposure to hep C virus what is the risk of developing infection A. 0.01% B. 0.5% C. 1.8% C. 1.8% What are the recommendations for dialysis personnel caring for patients with clostridium difficile colitis A. Wear gloves when treating patient B. Impervious gowns upon entering room C. Wash hands with soap and water All of the above Why is anticoagulation therapy used in dialysis A. To foster good venous blood flow in fingers and toes B. To reduce clotting within the extracorporeal circuit C. To optimize dialyzer efficiency B and C How is heparin commonly administered A. Initial loading dose of heparin is given before tx begins B. Directly into arterial needle C. Administered throughout tx by direct injection A. Initial dose When blood is transfused into at risk patients during heparin free dialysis what complication should the technician be monitoring for A. Fluid removal overload B. Anaphylaxis reaction C. Increased velocity of the blood in the dialyzer C. Increased velocity If a dialysis patient does not have adequate vessels to create an internal fistula what is the remedy A. Veins surgically transferred from other areas of the body B. Wrapping mesh around scarred veins C. Using synthetic grafts C. Using synthetic grafts A patient tells the text that she woke up in the morning with her fistula arm underneath her head and that it has been asleep and feeling funny all According to the centers for Medicare and Medicaid what is the maximum amount of fluid that can be safely removed during a standard treatment A. 30% of fluid way as long as the pressure is normal B. No more than 20% of total body weight C. Ultrafiltration rate of 13/ML/KG/HR or less C. Related to rapid decrease in the circulation blood volume caused by ultrafiltration what is the most common complication during treatment A. Hypotension B. Bleeding C. Dehydration A. Hypotension In a patient with gross Adema which symptoms of hypotension shared the dialysis tech be watching for A. Shortness of breath B. Flushed face and nose bleed C. Paleness D. Excessive yawning A C and D A tech reports to the RN that the blood is transparent in the circuit with a cherry soda pop color what complication should the tech suspect the patient is experiencing A. Hemolysis B. Thrombosis C. Septicemia A. Hemolysis Which symptoms will alert the tech a patient is experiencing type a dialyzer reaction A. Dyspnea B. Chest and back pain C. Sense of impending doom D. Numbness around the mouth A B and C The dialysis tech knows that reducing intake of this nutrient may be beneficial in delaying the progression of kidney disease A. Water B. Carbohydrates C. Proteins C. Albumin is a bio-marker monitored to assess the nutritional status of patients with CKD which patients are likely to have a lower serum albumin A. Patient who is dehydrated B. Patient with fatigue and low energy C. Patient with hair loss and muscle wasting B and C According to KDOQI which pre-dialysis albumin level should be the outcome goal for dialysis patient A. Equal to or greater than the normal range of four B. Equal to or greater than the normal range of three C. Equal to or greater than the normal range of one A. A 73-year-old dialysis patient is discussing with the tech her desire to convert to a total plant-based diet which statement is important for the tech to share A. There is no way to satisfy a patient's protein needs with a total plant- based diet B. Plant proteins are low biological value proteins and need to be combined to get all building blocks her body needs C. No plant protein foods are considered high proteins so it will be hard for her to satisfy her protein needs B. For a patient with stage 5 CKD phosphorus intake should be limited to what level A. 400 to 800 B. 1200 to 1600 C. 800 to 1200 C. A patient with CKD is having difficulty controlling her phosphorus intake why is control of phosphorus challenging A. Phosphorus is abundant in fresh food such as vegetables and fruit B. Phosphorus is found in high amounts of coffee and tea At the end of a patient's treatment which of these findings is observed by the tech should be reported A. Pulse rate of 55 B. Temp of 98 C. Weight loss of 6.6 A. Why are pts more likely to become infected with germs like MRSA A. Their diet is restricted B. Have weak immune systems C. Often have allergies to most antibiotics B. A pt who has diabetes should be observed for signs of low blood sugar which include A. Fever and chills B. Thirst and weight gain C. Anxiety and confusion C. The water supply to the water treatment system is called A. Ground water B. Carbonated water C. Feed water C Which part of the water treatment system removes endotoxin A. Ultra filter B. Resin bed C. Softener A. A pt asks why they need a profile on their machine the techs response should be that the understanding of the profile is to A. Minimize clotting B. Minimize hypotension C. Maximize flow rate B. Which occurs when the machine alarms and goes into bypass A. Arterial pressure increases B. Heparin isn't administered C. Dialysate stops flowing through the dialyzer C. Which therapy is recommended for pt with a hemoglobin level of 7.5% who watches her diet and exercises during the week A. Quadratic therapy with metformin and three meds B. Monotherapy and metformin C. Dual therapy with metformin plus one med B. KDOQI guidelines recommend screening patients with diabetes for diabetic nephropathy which test will be ordered A. Urine for microalbuminuria B. eGGR for Values below 90 mL/min C. Fasting glucose <100 A and B A child who has in just a large amount of poison is brought to the emergency room the tech is preparing the child for dialysis for it to remove the poison the poison must have which characteristic A. High degree of Protein binding B. Water solubility C. Low molecular weight B and C While reviewing the latest information on hypertension the dialysis tech notes that a blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg or higher is considered hypertension in which people A. Those with diabetes B. Those with CKD C. Those this cardiovascular disease A and B A dialysis patient regularly experiences intradialytic hypotension which medication may be given 15 to 30 minutes before dialysis for blood pressure support A. Hypertension B. Respiratory apnea C. Severe acid base in balance B and C A new client with CKD asks the tech what does nocturnal intermittent peritoneal dialysis mean how do you answer A. The initial volume will be small but will increase to a total volume infused every morning B. The machine will provide 3 to 5 exchanges every night but only minimal or no dwelling during the day C. You will receive dialysis 3 to 4 times a week with dry periods In between treatments B. The patient has had an expected progression of CKDN needs urgent start peritoneal dialysis what problems may be present in the patient who has been prescribed urgent start A. Fluid volume overload B. New onset jaundice C. High BUN and creatinine levels A and C What is considered the advantage of coiled catheters for peritoneal dialysis A. Improve patient comfort B. Better flow fluid C. Les linking A. Which complication of peritoneal dialysis should the tech report when he observes Cloudy effluent A. Tunnel infection B. Fibrin formation C. Peritonitis C. Which patient complaint leads to tech to suspect air has entered the peritoneal cavity A. Shoulder pain B. Swelling in the neck C. Scrotal Adema A. A family member asks what is the most frequent complication of peritoneal dialysis how would you answer A. Formation of Fibrin stands B. Peritonitis C. Leakage of dialysate B. What are some disadvantages of a kidney transplant that should be shared with patient and family A. Abdominal pain due to incising muscles B. Need for lifelong immunosuppression C. That's potential complications of immunosuppression B and c A patient ask the tech how long does a patient have to stay in the hospital after undergoing a kidney transplant what is the response A. 2 to 3 months until kidneys functioning B. One month C. Three to five days C. Following transplantation which electrolyte abnormalities are treated with dialysis A. High potassium level B. Acidosis C. Low magnesium levels A and B Transplant patient who is undergoing dialysis for hyperkalemia asks which vaccination should I avoid after I have this new kidney which one should be avoided A. Flu shot B. Small pox vaccine C. Bacillus calmette-guerin