CDC 3E551 engineering journeyman - volume 3. drafting and design 2023-2024, Exams of Civil Engineering

Download CDC 3E551 engineering journeyman - volume 3. drafting and design 2023-2024 and more Exams Civil Engineering in PDF only on Docsity! CDC 3E551 engineering journeyman - volume 3. drafting and design 2023-2024 (401) By what name do we refer to the space between any points A and B? 1. a. Angle. b. Point line. c. Line segment. d. Perpendicular line. - c. Line Segment 2. (401) The ratio of the size of drawn objects compared to their actual counterparts is called a. scale. b. size ratio. c. representation. d. engineering comparison. - a. scale 3. (402) A basic orthographic projection shows an object from how many different views? a. Two. b. Four. c. Eight. d. Twelve. - b. Four 4. (402) What name do we give to a roofless cutaway of a build from a bird's eye view? a. Detail. b. Sketch. c. Elevation. d. Floor plan. - d. Floor Plan 5. (403) What is the web address for the computer-aided drafting-building information modeling (CAD-BIM) library? a. Https://usace.army.mil. b. Https://cadbim.army.mil. c. Https:// cadbimcenter.erdc.dren.mil. d. Https://usace.army.mil/cadbim/library. - c. Https://cadbimcenter.erdc.dren.mil 6. (404) Which technical drawing set contains a general layout of the construction project? a. Civil. b. Electrical. c. Structural. d. Mechanical. - a. Civil 7. (404) Which engineering discipline is concerned with the circulation of liquids or gases, such as water or air? a. Civil. b. Electrical. c. Structural. d. Mechanical. - d. Mechanical 8. (405) In the model file naming convention, what comes last just before the file extension? a. Model file type. b. Sheet sequence number. c. 1-20 character project code. d. Discipline designator model file type. - b. Sheet sequence number. 9. (405) Which of these is NOT found in the project code portion of the model file naming convention? a. Base specific designator. b. Initials of project draftsperson. c. Fiscal year project was developed. d. Sequence number of projects developed at same time. - b. Initials of project draftperson. 10. (405) At a minimum, the title block includes all the following EXCEPT a. storage index. b. management block. c. designer Identification. d. project identification block. - a. storage index. 11. (405) What type of detail identifier marks the location of general sections or typical methods of construction? a. Detail. b. Section. c. General. d. Elevation. - b. Section. 12. (406) Who completes the constructability review? a. Fire department. b. Operations flight. c. Contract squadron. d. Engineering flight. - d. Engineering flight. 13. (407) When does a construction inspector begin recording construction progress data? a. During design review. b. As soon as project awards. c. At request of using agency. d. Before pre-construction meeting. - b. As soon as project awards. d. Construction drawings. - d. Construction drawings. 27. (412) Which government handbook gives detailed instructions for properly completing government estimates? a. United Facilities Criteria (UFC) 3-744-01, Guide: Construction Estimates. b. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 32-3401, Air Force Construction Cost Estimating. c. UFC 3-740-05, Handbook: Construction Cost Estimating. d. Air Force Handbook (AFH) 36-2201-, Estimating Air Force Construction Projects. - c. UFC 3- 740-05, Handbook: Construction Cost Estimating. 28. (413) Which tool allows contractors to divide a project into work elements over a given period? a. Munitions authorization record. b. Contractor reliability waiver. c. Contract progress schedule. d. Construction inspection report. - c. Contract progress schedule. 29. (413) What tool does base contracting use to authorize release of payment to the contractor for a period of performance? a. Munitions authorization record. b. Contract progress report. c. Contractor reliability waiver. d. Construction inspection report. - b. Contract progress report. 30. (413) What Air Force Information Management Tool (AF IMT), completed by the construction inspector, is used to prove or disprove contractor performance? a. AF IMT 68. b. AF IMT 600. c. AF IMT 601. d. AF IMT 1477. - d. AF IMT 1477. 31. (413) Which form provides an accurate accounting of the changes made to each system after construction completion? a. Air Force Information Management Tool (AF IMT) 3065. b. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1354. c. Standard Form (SF) 30. d. AF Form 3000. - b. Department of Defense (DD) Form 1354. 32. (414) What guides government employees and defines limitations and areas of responsibility for all parties involved in a contract? a. Code of Conduct. b. Davis-Bacon Act (DBA). c. National Ethics Code (NEC). d. Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). - d. Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) 33. (414) Which component of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) provides guidance on the solicitation or acceptance of gifts or favors from contractors? a. Gratuities. b. Ratification. c. Relationships. d. General provisions. - a. Gratuities. 34. (415) What system is used to classify soils based on the size of individual particles? a. Soil Classifications Library (SCL). b. Joint Engineering Soils Directory (JESD). c. Unified Soils Classification System (USCS). d. Combined Soils Categorization System (CSCS). - c. Unified Soils Classification System (USCS). 35. (415) When sieve sizes have openings smaller than 1/4 inch, how are they identified? a. Gauge of wire. b. Size of opening in inches. c. Total size of sieves in stack. d. Number of openings per inch. - d. Number of openings per inch. 36. (415) What is the name of the bulky soil subdivision most often found near streambeds or beaches? a. Angular. b. Rounded. c. Subangular. d. Subrounded. - b. Rounded. 37. (415) What quality of gradation is a soil with a good range of all particle sizes between the largest and smallest for that sample? a. Gap. b. Well. c. Open. d. Poorly. - b. Well. 38. (415) What factor has varying effects on the cohesion of soil? a. Gradation. b. Moisture. c. Sands. d. Heat. - b. Moisture. 39. (415) What do we call the moisture content at which a soil stops being rigid and becomes moldable? a. Liquid Limit. b. Organic Tier. c. Plastic Limit. d. Plastic Index. - c. Plastic Limit. 40. (415) Which name do we refer to soils passing the number 200 sieve? a. Fines. b. Clays. c. Sands. d. Gravels. - a. Fines. 41. (416) Which test compares the level of material settled at the bottom of a water-filled jar? a. Feel. b. Odor. c. Wet shaking. d. Sedimentation. - d. Sedimentation. 42. (416) What does the soil sample roll test measure? a. Plasticity. b. Gradation. c. Liquid limit. d. Moisture content. - a. Plasticity. 43. (416) Performed on materials passing the number 40 sieve, which test helps determine whether a soil is clayey (C) or silty (M)? a. Odor. b. Ribbon. c. Bite-grit. d. Dry-strength. - d. Dry-strength. 44. (416) When conducting the shine test, a definite shine indicates what type of clay? a. Lean. b. Organic. c. Low plasticity. d. Highly plastic. - d. Highly plastic. 45. (417) The equation, w = (Ww / Ws) x 100, used in conjunction with the oven-dry method, determines which soil characteristic? a. Gradation. b. Liquid limit. c. Plasticity index. d. Moisture content. - d. Moisture content. 46. (417) What soil characteristic does the Dynamic Cone Penetrometer measure? a. Load bearing capacity. b. Compaction resistance.