Airport Management and Security: A Comprehensive Guide, Exams of Nursing

Download Airport Management and Security: A Comprehensive Guide and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CM Training AAAE Exam 2024 with complete solution Latest// Where does TSA have regulatory influences and authority within the terminal? - Correct answer 1. Checkpoint operations Airport police response to checkpoints and incidents Unattended bags Unattended vehicles What did the Air Commerce Act (1926) prohibit? - Correct answer Using federal funds to build or improve airports. Works Progress Administration (WPA) - Correct answer Provided 50% of needed funding. Built over 800 new airports. Air Commerce Act of 1926 created what? - Correct answer Aeronautics Branch (soon known as the Civil Aeronautics Admin) under the Dept. of Commerce. Charged with fostering air commerce, establishing air traffic control, licensing for pilots, aircraft certification, establishing airways, and issue and enforce air traffic rules What was the effective beginning of privatized space flight? - Correct answer Final flight of the U.S. space shuttle. What does a GA Reliever airport do? - Correct answer Relieves a Commercial airport from GA traffic. What is the enplanement threshold for commercial service? - Correct answer 2,500 P a g e 1 | 138 Large hubs have what percentage of U.S. enplanements? - Correct answer 70% or more of the enplanements What are the cloud ceiling and visibility requirements for Visual Flight Rules? - Correct answer Cloud ceiling: 1,000' Visibility requirements: 3 miles "1000 and 3" What is the entity who is responsible for airport governance? - Correct answer The Airport Sponsor. What is the most common airport ownership type in the U.S.? - Correct answer Municipalities (cities and counties) Who sets standards for security access control systems? - Correct answer The Radio Technical Commission on Aeronautics How many days are required for the Notice of Proposed Rule-Making? - Correct answer 30 days What is the directive to FAA personnel on specific subjects and programs? - Correct answer The FAA Order What is the method the FAA has found to be the best to extend federal policy to local government units? - Correct answer Grant Assurances What is 14 CFR Part 13 Investigation and Enforcement - Correct answer The informal complaint system that is filed with the Airport District Office. FAA will investigate and offer to help resolve. If the sponsor is in violation, the FAA provides the opportunity to comply. P a g e 2 | 138 What is the FAA's position on the airport fee and rental structure of non-aeronautical services? - Correct answer Rates and fees should be Fair Market Value. What type of agreement between the airlines and the airport puts the airlines at the most risk? - Correct answer Residual What was the Air Mail Act of 1925, also known as the Kelly Act, and what did it do? - Correct answer Authorized the Postmaster General to contract for domestic airmail service with commercial air carriers Only those who use aviation would pay for it Who began the first U.S. air freight service (between Detroit and Chicago)? - Correct answer Henry Ford Who carried out most of the commercial related aviation activities before the Air Mail Act? - Correct answer The US Army carried mail for the post office What is a Fixed Based Operator? - Correct answer FBOs were originally fuel and rest stops for pilots. The buildings were then turned into terminals as aviation grew. What is the American Association of Airport Executives (AAAE)? - Correct answer Established in 1928. First airport management trade organization. Consisted of 10 airport directors attending the National Air Races at mines Field (now LAX). Adopted first professional accreditation standards in 1954. P a g e 5 | 138 Provides lobbying, regulatory services, training, accreditation, and other professional development programs. What was the Aeronautics Branch was reorganized and restructured into? - Correct answer Civil Aeronautics Administration (CAA) under the Dept of Commerce What did the Civil Aeronautics Admin (CAA) split into, and what were the duties of each branch? - Correct answer CAA maintained Air Traffic Control, Pilot and aircraft certification, Safety enforcement, and Airway development Civil Aeronautics Board (CAB) ensured safety rules, conducting aircraft accident investigations, economic regulation of the airlines, approving air routes, and regulating airfares What was the Development of Landing Areas for National Defence (DLAND) appropriation? - Correct answer Secretary of War and Commerce & Secretary of the Navy could acquire land for airport development needed for the war effort. 986 airports built in the US. Post war, 500 airports were declared surplus and handed over to public cities and counties for civil use. Airport sponsor had to promise to make the airport available for public use without discrimination, and to allow the the government to use in the event of a national emergency. What did the Federal Air to Airports Program (FAAP) in 1946 do? - Correct answer Provided grant funds for certain projects, mostly RW and TW development. P a g e 6 | 138 Airport had be in the National airport Plan (NAP) Airports held to previous promises to allow the public to use the airport without discrimination. Federal Aviation Act of 1958 - Correct answer Air Commerce Act was repealed, and the Federal Aviation Agency (FAA) was created. The FAA was directed take over rule-making from the CAB, and was responsible for developing a common civil-military system of air navigation and air traffic control When was the FAA moved and renamed to the Federal Aviation Administration? - Correct answer Federal Aviation Agency renamed to Federal Aviation Administration in 1966, and put under the newly created Dept of Transportation. Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970 - Correct answer Created the Airport Development Aid Program (ADAP) and the Planning Grant Program (PGP), expanded the list of eligible projects, created the Part 139 Certification of Airports, created the Aviation Trust Fund. What was the Aviation Trust Fund? - Correct answer Created under the Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970 so that only those who use aviation would pay for aviation, it collected a passenger seat tax, a cargo waybill tax, a fuel tax, and an aircraft registration fee. Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 - Correct answer Created the Airport Improvement Program where 75-90% of a project is covered by federal money. Reorganized the National Airport Plan as the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS), establishing airport categories of commercial and GA. P a g e 7 | 138 Shared-Use - US government owned airport that is co-located with a civil airport, and they share portions of the runways and taxiways. 14 CFR Part 91 General Aviation - Correct answer Private flight or general aviation 14 CFR Part 119 - Correct answer Requirements for flying for hire 14 CFR Part 121 Operating Requirements: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Operations - Correct answer Scheduled air carriers Can only fly into Part 139 airports 14 CFR Part 135 Operating Requirements: Commuter and On Demand Operations - Correct answer Air charter or air taxi, certain commuter operations 14 CFR Part 125, Certification and Operations - Correct answer Airplanes having a seating capacity of 20+ or a max payload capacity of 6,000 lbs or more 14 CFR Part 380, Public Charters - Correct answer One-way or round-trip flight performed by one or more direct air carriers and sponsored by a charter operator. Does not have to meet Part 121 standards. Pilot requirements before a flight - Correct answer 1. Check the Airport Facility Directory (aka Chart Supplement) 2. Check NOTAMS 3. Check weather at departure, en route, and forecasted arrival (plus alternate airports in some cases) 4. Flight planning including weights & balances and aircraft performance P a g e 10 | 138 Part 121 operators and major corporate operators have Flight Dispatchers to "do the math" on the flights Pilot in command has the final say on if the flight goes or not (power of the parking break) Where is Class A airspace? - Correct answer Between 18,000 and 60,000 feet Requires Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Air Traffic Control separation Flight plan is required No VFR allowed What are Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? - Correct answer See and avoid Flight plan may not be required Lower than 18,000 feet Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) - 1000 feet ceiling and 3 miles visibility What are instrument departure procedures? - Correct answer Used to transition aircraft out of terminal area airspace. Allow the pilot to follow a defined flight path to intercept an en route flight path. What are instrument landing approach charts? - Correct answer AKA approach plates. Used by pilots to provide guidance down to the runway or air traffic control pattern. What is Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR)? - Correct answer Procedures used to move aircraft into terminal airspace for transition to landing; STARs are used to simplify communication and understanding during approaches and allows air traffic control to bring aircraft in through arrival gates. P a g e 11 | 138 What are the three types of runway approaches? - Correct answer 1. Visual - approved when the ceiling is 1,000' or greater, and the visibility is 3 statute miles or greater 2. Non-precision - uses one or more NAVAIDs that provide lateral positioning 3. Precision - uses NAVAIDs that provide lateral and vertical positioning What is an instrument approach plate? - Correct answer AKA approach chart. A published flight path that ensures clearance over obstacles, sets minimum descent altitudes, and includes procedures for a missed approach. What are the two primary obligations of airport operators? - Correct answer 1. Responsibility to the FAA to operate the airport as an essential component of the national aviation system. 2. Responsibility to the local community to minimize negative impacts of the airport's operation. What is an Enterprise Fund? - Correct answer A branch of government that operates like a business. Advantages and disadvantages of a municipal airport. - Correct answer Advantages - generally better access to municipal resources and funding, such as human resources, purchasing, etc; General Obligation bonds; power to tax; power of eminent domain. Disadvantages - policy makers have less time to spend on airport issues; conflict of interest in decision making; artificial fiscal and personnel constraints. Municipalities that seek to maintain control of the airport, but desire more guidance and expertise, may create an Advisory Board. Advantages and disadvantages of an Airport/Port Authority - Correct answer Created through enabling legislation by a municipality, level of authority through legislation (make decisions). P a g e 12 | 138 What are Advisory Circulars? - Correct answer Explain intent of a federal regulation Provide guidance and information on a subject Show an acceptable method of competence May be required if "incorporated by reference" What is the Transportation Research Board's Airport Cooperative Research Program (ACRP)? - Correct answer Peer reviewed research on airport management topics, including safety, planning, and operations. What is the National Safe Skies Alliance Program for Applied Research in Airport Security (PARAS) - Correct answer Peer reviewed research on airport security topics What does the Radio Technical Commission on Aeronautics regulate? - Correct answer Standards for security access control systems What two documents does the TSA put out? - Correct answer Security Directives - "have to", provide direction to change security requirements Information Circulars - "don't have to", provide best practices and other information What are Grant Assurances? - Correct answer Promises the sponsor makes when it accepts federal money. Trace back to the AP-4 agreements, the Surplus Property Act, commitments in environmental documents, or litigation. Effective means for the FAA to extend federal policy to local governmental units. Balance three public interests: better manage local affairs, meet FAA requirements that money is spent for public air transportation, and they promote social objectives (eg DBE). Good for 20 years, life (if property), or life of an asset. Managed through the Airport Compliance Manual. P a g e 15 | 138 Risk losing federal funds by being placed on the Airport Noncompliance list if the airport doesn't adhere to them. Grant Assurances essentially cover what? - Correct answer 1. Maintain the airport in good and serviceable condition. 2. Use specific lands for non-aero use to generate revenue to support aviation needs. 3. Operate the airport in the public interest 4. Ensure the airport operator does not grant an exclusive right to any aero-use tenant for any aero purpose or use. How can the FAA or aero user report the airport for non-compliance of grant assurances? - Correct answer File a Part 13 or Part 16 complaint. What is airport law? - Correct answer A phrase used to describe a collection of FAA regulations, adjudications, various statutes, Grant Assurances, ACs, and court decisions. What four hats does the FAA wear? - Correct answer 1. Regulator 2. "Gift giver" in the form of FAA grants 3. "Permission giver" 4. Operator of the air traffic control system Governmental immunity - where does it NOT apply? - Correct answer 1. Negligence - failure to use reasonable care 2. Active/gross negligence - you knew it was wrong and you did it anyways 3. Tucker Act - waives immunity over claims arising out of contracts with the federal government 4. Federal Tort Claims Act - waives immunity if the act of a government employee was negligent or constitutes some other tort P a g e 16 | 138 What does the National Transportation Safety Board do? - Correct answer Investigates accidents to determine probable cause, non-rule making entity. May delegate some investigations to the FAA. Airports Council International (ACI) - Correct answer Represents local, regional, and state governing bodies that own or operate commercial airports; represents common interests and to promote cooperation with associates in the air transport industry. The airport is the member. Airport Law Enforcement Agencies Network (ALEAN) - Correct answer Brings together airport police agencies International Air Transport Association (IATA) - Correct answer Promotes safe, reliable, secure, and economical air services for the benefit of the world's consumers Airlines for America (A4A) - Correct answer Nation's oldest and largest airline trade association that represents the nation's leading airlines Air Line Pilots Association (ALPA) - Correct answer World's largest airline pilot union; focus on airline safety, security, and pilot assistance, representation, and advocacy Regional Airline Association (RAA) - Correct answer Represents regional airlines and supporting industries before Congress, DOT, FAA, and other federal agencies National Business Aviation Association (NBAA) - Correct answer Represents companies who rely on general aviation aircraft to help make their businesses more efficient, productive, and successful; 11,000 members. Aircraft Owners and Pilots Association (AOPA) - Correct answer Non-profit organization dedicated to GA pilots and aircraft owners. Notable programs are Airport Watch and Airport Support Network. P a g e 17 | 138 The minimum requirements an AERO business must meet to help ensure an adequate level of safe and effective service. Protects airport from unlicensed products or services. Prevents disputes between providers and complainants. Do not devalue lease Grant Assurance #22, Economic Nondiscrimination - Correct answer Airport must be available for public use on reasonable terms without unjust discrimination of all types, kinds, and classes of aero activities. Grant Assurance #23, Exclusive Rights - Correct answer Airport cannot grant an aero tenant the exclusive right to conduct a particular commercial aero service. unless it would be unreasonably costly, burdensome, or impractical for more than 1 FBO, or if allowing more than 1 FBO would require the reduction in space leased to an existing tenant or if the airport operator can grant itself an exclusive right to provide an aero service Airports may impose what conditions on users and tenants to ensure safe and efficient operation? - Correct answer Rights and Regulations Is self-fueling/self-maintenance allowed? - Correct answer Yes. An aircraft owner may self-fuel and/or self-maintain using their own personnel, fuel, fueling equipment, etc. Grant Assurance #39, Competitive Access - Correct answer Requires large and medium hub airports to report to the Secretary of Transportation any denials of a request by an airline P a g e 20 | 138 Grant Assurance #5, Preserving Rights and Powers - Correct answer Prevents an airport from taking actions that may deprive it of its rights and powers to direct and control airport development, and comply with grant assurances Through the fence - Correct answer FAA generally believes a Through the fence agreement denies an airport's rights and powers (Grant Assurance #5). Strongly prohibited They are not subject to Minimum Standards What are the 3 types of airport revenue? - Correct answer Aeronautical - services related directly and substantially to the movement of passengers, baggage, mail, and cargo. Non-aeronautical - services related to those operations and uses that are incidental to the operation of aircraft. Non-operating - relates to taxes on personal property or possessory interest, grant monies, Passenger Facility Charges (PFC) and Customer Facility Charges (CFC) Fuel Flowage fee - Correct answer Airport charges a percentage on the amount of fuel pumped at the airport, including self-fueling operations Land Lease and Terminal Rent Agreements for Aeronautical Use Space - Correct answer Hangar and terminal space leasing and leasing land for aero development (eg ticket counter, baggage claim areas) Non-aeronautical revenue sources - Correct answer Terminal rents to concessions, rental car fees, parking lot charges, advertising space, industrial park P a g e 21 | 138 2 ways a community benefits from having an airport? - Correct answer 1. Economic benefits from new money that comes into the community via air. 2. Job creation (and hence more taxable income) Grant Assurance #25, Airport Revenues - Correct answer Restricts the use of airport revenue generated by the airport and local taxes on aviation fuel, to be expended for capital or operating costs of the airport, local airport system, or other facilities owned or operated by the airport sponsor which directly and substantially relate to the actual air transportation of passengers or the property or noise mitigation efforts. What are 8 ways of diverting revenue? - Correct answer 1. General economic development for the municipality, or using fees or airport land/resources to benefit the community 2. Marketing and promotional activities not related to the airport. 3. Payment in Lie of Taxes (PILOTS) that exceed the value of the services Payments to compensate municipalities for lost tax revenues Loans or investments of airport money at less than the prevailing interest rate Use of land for free or nominal rents for aero purposes (some exceptions are allowed) Rent of land for non-aero purposes at less than fair market value The direct subsidy of air carriers (certain exceptions allowed) What are 8 allowable uses of airport revenue? - Correct answer 1. Capital and operating costs 2. Promotional expenditures related to air travel 3. Cooperative airline-airport marketing expenses 4. Reimbursements to sponsors for capital or operating costs 5. Support of community activities that promote or are related to the airport 6. Certain mass transit projects located on airport property 7. Costs incurred by governments for services to the airport (eg fire, police) 8. Lobbying and attorney fees that support the airport P a g e 22 | 138 When is it acceptable to use a single source on a federal funded project? - Correct answer When an item/service is only available from one source What system is used to allow, restrict, or track the movement of individuals who have been issued airport credentials? - Correct answer Physical Access Control System What kind of cyber attack would cause the automated vehicle ID system to go offline? - Correct answer Denial of Service What kind of insurance covers damage to aircraft while on airport property? - Correct answer Hangar Keepers Periodic valuation of property to set new rates is what type of lease? - Correct answer Reevaluation Which concession lease approach is most risky for the airport? - Correct answer Traditional, where the airport manages and directly leases the space. According to the FAA, what is the fundamental purpose of the Aeronautical Use Agreement? - Correct answer To grant operating rights to the airlines What is typically NOT AIP eligible? - Correct answer Parking garage, computers, communication systems not used for safety and security, wildlife plans, road construction, landscaping, surface transportation surveys, or hangars or fuel farms at primary airports What category has the highest priority for AIP funding? - Correct answer Safety and security P a g e 25 | 138 What type of bonds require voter approval and are closely linked with state and municipalities? - Correct answer General Obligation (GO) bonds Federal procurement requirements are required for what type of processes? - Correct answer AIP money TSA grants Other Transaction Agreements (OTAs) FAA prefers what type of contract? - Correct answer Fixed rate (because it's easier to audit). Will do a Time and Materials contract with an exception. Value Engineering (VE) - Correct answer Promotes the substitution of materials and methods with less expensive alternatives that do not compromise functionality Construction contracts require performance and payment bonds equaling _______% of the contract - Correct answer 100% Federally funded projects exceeding __________ must be publically advertised for at least ____ days. - Correct answer $100,000 30 Contracts go to whom under the sealed bid method? - Correct answer Lowest responsive and responsible bidder Request for Proposal (RFP) process is not limited to the lowest price, but instead considers what factors? - Correct answer Approach, qualifications, experience, and personnel Construction manager-at-risk proposals - Correct answer Contractor retained to provide advice to the airport during the design phase P a g e 26 | 138 Design-build - Correct answer One entity works for a single contract to provide design and construction Task-order - Correct answer Permits stocks of specific items to be maintained at minimum levels, and allows direct shipments to the users Professional Services contract - Correct answer Typically used for program management, construction management, planning studies, feasibility studies, architectural or engineering services, surveying, and/or mapping Single source or non-competitive contract - Correct answer Usually only approved when the item or service is only available from one source Disadvantaged Business Enterprises (DBEs) - Correct answer Small businesses that have socially or economically disadvantaged individuals who own at least 51% interest, and control management and daily operations. Personal net worth can't exceed $1.32 million. States and some primary airports certify the eligibility by establishing goals for the DBE or the Airport Concessions DBE. Primary airports that accept federal funds must have an airport concessions DBE program. Airports are required to have a DBE program if they anticipate more than $250,000 in prime contracts using federal funds. 3-year goal (percentage) for prime contracts. What is a primary airport? - Correct answer More than 10,000 enplanements annually P a g e 27 | 138 What is Commercial General Liability insurance, and how many parts does it have? - Correct answer Basic policy that covers three parts: Hangar keepers - coverage of damage to aircraft Premises liability - coverage of injury to persons or property Product liability - covers fuel and oil usage (usually an FBO Minimum Standard) What methods can be employed to reduce risk? - Correct answer 1. Comply with Part 139 2. Training and comply with TSA (1542) and FAA (139) Risk analysis programs Daily inspection programs Screen employees for safety and security issues Provide accurate information to users (eg NOTAMs) "Blanket" insurance policy provisions for all stakeholders and riders Develop environmental policies and follow environmental rules What does Airport Property Management include? - Correct answer General revenue management, including leasing real property, airport access agreements, and concessions Leasehold Agreement - Correct answer Represents an ownership interest in which a lessee holds real property, the right to conduct an activity, or both What are the parts of a lease? - Correct answer Recitals - facts, events, terminology that grants the lease to the lessee Term - date and duration Rates - rates, fees, charges, rate adjustments Taxes Improvements - obligations for repairs and maintenance, indemnity, insurance Use - including subletting Expiration - restore to original condition or leave as-is P a g e 30 | 138 Straight lease - Correct answer Constant rate throughout the term, usually short term leases Graduated lease - Correct answer Rate changes at pre-determined intervals, no reevaluation Revaluation lease - Correct answer Periodic evaluation of value of property and rates adjusted accordingly Percentage lease - Correct answer Rents equivalent to a percentage of sales, common for concessions Concessions - Correct answer Provide revenue while simultaneously meeting the needs of passengers, visitors, and employees for food, beverage, retail, and other service amenities. Can charge higher prices due to higher rents, operating costs, and a captive audience Street pricing - Correct answer What airports add to their concessions contracts to keep the costs of products near that of local areas or city shipping malls. Passengers notice, especially with popular brands, if prices are substantially different. Rental costs factors - Correct answer 1. Location in airport 2. Size and type of facility needed 3. Support infrastructure needed 4. Exposure to traveler flow 5. Airport efforts to highlight shopping opportunities 6. Demand for space P a g e 31 | 138 3 methods airports use to balance concession revenue with service - Correct answer 1. Profit margins are specifically delineated in the lease 2. Prices are specifically delineated in the lease 3. Competing concessions are established What types of payments do concessions have to the airport? - Correct answer 1. Annual minimum payment (minimum annual guarantee, MAG) 2. Percentage of gross revenue payments 3. Combination of the first two 3 approaches to leasing concession space - Correct answer 1. Traditional - the airport manages and directly leases the space (higher risk for airport, but higher profits) 2. Development company provides management services (advantage - experienced personnel, disadvantage - another layer of cost) 3. Institutional operator engaged as a master lessee (lower risk, but lower profits) Why is it important to define revenue with some concessions? - Correct answer Concessions like car rentals will try to exclude fees from their profit Pre-screening area concessions - Correct answer Advantages: increased exposure, cost efficiencies Disadvantages: passengers want to get through screening ASAP Sterile area concessions - Correct answer Advantages: secure facilities, capture connecting traffic Disadvantages: higher cost Airline/Airport/Aeronautical Use Agreements - Correct answer Grants operating rights to the airline, provides (or attempts to provide) a reliable stream of revenue for the airport. P a g e 32 | 138 purpose (safety & security is worth the most) Component (runways are given the highest priority) Type (eg obstruction removal, construction, noise) AIP allowable costs - Correct answer Eligibility (determined by FAA): was the cost necessary to complete the project? was the cost reasonable and conformed to the approved plans and specs? was the cost incurred after the grant execution date? Items typically eligible for AIP funds - Correct answer Land Runways and taxiways NAVAIDS, weather reporting equipment Safety equipment required by regulations Security equipment required by regulations Snow removal equipment Site preparation Plans (master plans, noise plans) Passenger Facility Charges (PFC) - Correct answer 1. FAA must approve annually 2. FAA must approve capital expenditures PFC charges are levied on the airline ticket, collected by the airlines, and forwarded to the airport PFC revenue is used to preserve or enhance safety, security, and capacity; reduce noise; and enhance competition among carriers Current PFC cap is $4.50/passenger/segment with an $18 round trip cap Large and medium hubs that accept PFC have their AIP entitlements reduced by 75%; this money is transferred to the Small Airport Fund (set-aside) under AIP PFC approved uses - Correct answer 1. Approved projects (same as AIP list) 2. Allowable costs 3. AIP matching P a g e 35 | 138 Augment AIP projects Payment of debts Bond use - Correct answer Unprecedented development of various types of muni bonds and securities used for airport projects General obligation (GO) bonds - Correct answer Usually ranked with the best/highest ranking Issued by government (state or municipality) Secured by voter approval (power to tax) Characteristics - low interest rate Revenue bonds - Correct answer Rated depending on the viability of the airport's potential to pay back the bond and interest. Issued by the government entity or airport operator Secured by revenues of the airport or backing by private (eg carrier) Characteristics - Longer issuance period, lower debt payments; no voter approval; paid for by the user of the facility Special facility bonds - Correct answer Issued by airports Secured by revenue from the funded facility Characteristics - tax exempt P a g e 36 | 138 Hybrid bonds - Correct answer Issued by government entity or airport operator Secured by PFC, CFC, or some other form of revenue Characteristics - facility generated revenues expected to pay debt Industrial Development Bonds - Correct answer Same as a revenue bond for a private entity, usually a small airport will use Issued by the airport operator Secured by government finances, leases to private company Characteristics - tax exempt and capital investment in airport State aviation grant programs - Correct answer DOT for each state usually issues grants through aviation fuel taxes or other resources Customer Facility Charges (CFC) - Correct answer Charged to rental car operators and parking lot operations. The monies commonly going towards landside capital improvement projects or landside related operations and maintenance projects. Significant amount of non-aero revenue (1/3 to 1/2 of non-aero revenue) Airport Capital Improvement Plan (ACIP) - Correct answer Internal FAA document that serves as the primary planning tool. "What you're getting" Airport Facility Directory/Chart Supplements - Correct answer Contain data on airports and heliports P a g e 37 | 138 2. All commercial service 3. All GA relievers 4. All National Guard bases on civilian airports 5. Any airport with a US mail contract NPIAS function - Correct answer 1. Identifies airport role, and amounts and type of development eligible for AIP funding over the next 5 years 2. More of a wishlist than a plan FAA believes airports should be these 7 things - Correct answer 1. Safe and efficient - maintained to design standards 2. Affordable - rely on user fees and be self sufficient 3. Flexible and expandable - accommodate new aircraft types 4. Permanent - assurance they will remain open 5. Maintain a balance between the community and ATC Support national objectives, including national defense and natural disasters Extensive - no more than 20 miles to the next NPIAS airport State and Metropolitan./Regional Airport System Planning - Correct answer 1. Recommends the general location and characteristics of new airports, and the nature of development and expansion for existing airports 2. Attempt to assess and develop a plan to better integrate multi-modal transportation Elements of State and Metropolitan./Regional Airport System Plans - Correct answer 1. Identification of system needs 2. System wide development cost estimate 3. Determine and prioritize aero needs 4. Meet relevant state standards P a g e 40 | 138 Airport Master Plans - Correct answer A comprehensive study of an airport that describes the short, medium, and long-term (20 years) development plans to meet future aviation demand Sequenced into the Airport Capital Improvement Plan as an AIP eligible project Work products include: technical report, summary report, ALP, web page, and public information kit FAA accepts the master plan, but approves the forecast and ALP Master Plan process - Correct answer Part 1: pre-planning (scope, consultant selection) Part 2: public involvement and environmental considerations (ongoing throughout the process) Existing conditions - inventory everything! Aviation forecasts - "break out the Magic 8-ball" Facility requirements - "birthday wishlist" Alternatives ALP Facilities Implementation Plan - when are we going to build it? Financial Feasibility Analysis - where do we get the money? Public Involvement Program - Correct answer Includes EVERYONE Planners must balance the need for stakeholder involvement with the costs and time Technical Advisory Committee (TAC) - Correct answer Public involvement committee Insights on technical issues Citizen's Advisory Committee (CAC) - Correct answer Public involvement committee P a g e 41 | 138 Sounding board for stakeholders Have key stakeholders on committee who can disseminate information to their group (eg home owners association president) Open House style meetings - Correct answer FAA preferred public involvement meeting More personal contact Master Plan environmental considerations - Correct answer Identify potential environmental issues before the study begins in order to minimize unavoidable environmental impacts and reduce subsequent construction delays Master Plan Existing Conditions & Issues - Correct answer 1. Historical review of the airport and its facilities 2. Airfield/airspace 3. Historical aviation activity (operations and enplanements) 4. Commercial passenger terminal facilities 5. GA, cargo, and support facilities 6. Access, circulation, and parking Utilities, weather, demographics Non-aero facilities Environmental overview Land use surrounding the airport Master Plan Aviation Demand Forecasts - Correct answer Use several data sources FAA Terminal Area Forecasts (notoriously inaccurate, but makes a good starting point) State aviation system plans Airlines Forecasting seminars Tenants Local data sources (eg plans, economic groups) Federal and state data sources (eg Bureau of Economic Analysis) P a g e 42 | 138 Air Operations Area - Correct answer Security term, but often used by Operations personnel to describe the air field Runway Design Code - Correct answer 1. Design standards for the runway 2. Predicated on the design aircraft Aircraft Design Group (ADG) and Aircraft Approach Category (AAC) 3. Airport Reference Code (ARC) plus visibility component Design Aircraft - Correct answer Most demanding aircraft with substantial use of the airport (500 or more itinerant operations/year) or largest commercial service aircraft serving the airport Aircraft Design Group (ADG) - Correct answer Numerical identifier based on either tail height or wingspan Aircraft Approach Category (AAC) - Correct answer Letter identifier based on aircraft approach speed Airport Reference Code (ARC) - Correct answer Runway Design Code (RDC) minus the visibility component Aircraft Approach Category (AAC) + Aircraft Design Group (ADG) (eg B-II) Used for planning and design only, and does not limit the aircraft that can safely use the airport Aircraft approach speed - Correct answer time and distance factors that identify criteria for runway length, visibility components, and approach aids P a g e 45 | 138 Wingspan and tail height - Correct answer Indicative of an aircraft's weight bearing capacity and physical size Dictate requirements for pavement strength and separation standards for wingtips and obstructions Runway design - Correct answer Takes into account the Runway Design Criteria (RDC), meteorological conditions, surrounding environment, topography, and the volume of air traffic expected Runway alignment - Correct answer Attempts to achieve a direction in which the design aircraft can use the runway within its maximum crosswind component at least 95% of the year. If 95% coverage is not obtained, a crosswind runway is recommended. 4 basic runway configurations - Correct answer 1. Single 2. Open V 3. Parallel 4. Intersecting Single runway - Correct answer Simple and most basic Can have approx 200,000 operations/year (50-90 operations/hour depending on VFR/IFR) 4 types of parallel runways - Correct answer 1. Close - less than 2,500 feet (no simultaneous IFR approaches) 2. Intermediate - 2,500 to 4,300 (IFR approaches OK with precision runway guidance monitoring [PRGM] radar) 3. Far - 4,300 or greater (simultaneous IFR approaches OK without PRGM) P a g e 46 | 138 4. Dual - 4,300 or more between each pair Open V runways - Correct answer Little to no wind, can be used simultaneously, increases airfield capacity, largest land requirement Intersecting runways - Correct answer Best for airports with heavy crosswinds, reduced airfield space requirements, can use simultaneously with favorable winds Runway cross section grade - Correct answer 1% to 1.5% Ensures water runoff Runway shoulder cross section grade - Correct answer 1.5% to 5% Runway threshold - Correct answer Beginning portion that is available for landing Displaced threshold - Correct answer Threshold is located down the runway, a portion leading up to the displaced threshold may still be used for aircraft takeoffs and rollouts. May be required in 3 instances: When an object obstructs the airspace needed for landing aircraft For noise abatement If necessary to provide standard RSA dimensions or OFZ lengths RSA and TSA - Correct answer Suitable for reducing risk of damage to airplanes in the event of an undershoot, overshoot or excursion, or an unintentional departure from a taxiway OFZ - Correct answer 1. Airspace between the runway and horizontal surface 2. Nothing except fixed by function and frangible Extends 200' beyond each runway end P a g e 47 | 138 Stand guidance systems - Correct answer Visual aids located on the side of the terminal building so as to be viewed from the pilot's perspective as they approach the parking location Aircraft fueling operations (as it relates to aprons) - Correct answer 1. Major air carrier airports commonly use underground fuel systems 2. Safer than trucks 3. GA airports usually have fuel farms and trucks Heliports - Correct answer 1. Based on design helicopter (max weight/ min contact area [wheels or skids], rotor diameter) 2. Final Approach and Take Off (FATO) - approach and departure path 3. Touchdown and Lift Off (TLOF) - load bearing area Seaplane bases - Correct answer 1. Commonly dredged by USACE (deeper water is typically calmer) 2. Lighted and marked by USCG (for navigatable waters) 3. Must have a Seaplane Base Layout Plan (SBLP) for federal funds Drones/UAV Port Design - Correct answer 1. Army and private companies are designing these facilities; FAA hasn't started regulating the design (yet) 2. "Design UAV" based on wingspan, wheel base, weight, landing speed, takeoff distance, turning radii, and recovery method Phases of airport construction - Correct answer 1. Pre-design 1.a Pre-design conference conducted by the airport or their authorized entity to discuss design parameters, safety, environmental; may involve tenants 2. Design 3. Pre-construction P a g e 50 | 138 3.a Pre-bid conference may be held to bring on construction companies, including addressing DBE, Construction Safety and Phasing Plan (CSPP), security, quality control, labor requirements, and operational safety 4. Construction Inspection Management during construction - Correct answer 1. A change in design (drawings or specs) can result in Change Orders or Supplemental Agreements (if the work exceeds 25% of the cost of the contract) 2. The airport operator is ultimately responsible for safety during the construction project. CSPP, frequent inspections, NOTAMs, contractor training 3. Safety is critical and the most important part of a project 14 CFR Part 77, Safe, Efficient Use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace - Correct answer Identifies imaginary surfaces around the airport Primary Surface - Correct answer Centered on the runway, and extends 200 feet beyond the thresholds Approach Surface - Correct answer Starts 200 feet past the runway end, and extend outward from the primary surface for a distance up to 50,000 feet (precision runways). Visual runways have a 20:1 slope Instrument runways have a 50:1 slope Transitional Surface - Correct answer Begins at the edge of the primary surface and the approach surface, and extends upwards at a 7:1 slope Conical Surface - Correct answer Starts at the perimeter of the horizontal surface, and continues upward at a 20:1 slope for a horizontal distance of 4,000 feet (2,000 lateral feet from the RW centerline and 200 feet above the horizontal surface) P a g e 51 | 138 Horizontal Surface - Correct answer A level plane 150 feet above the runway elevation. Visual approach has a 5,000' diameter Instrument approach has a 10,000' diameter Part 77 airspace study - Correct answer 1. FAA conducts when they receive notification of construction near the airport 2. Form 7460-1 Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration 3. Form 7460-2 Notice of Actual Construction or Alteration 4. FAA will issue a Determination of No Hazard to Air Navigation when proposed structure does not exceed any obstruction standards and would not be a hazard to aviation 5. FAA will issue a Determination of Hazard to Air Navigation when proposed structure exceeds obstruction standards or would have a substantial aeronautical impact How can the FAA regulate obstructions? - Correct answer 1. Request the airport or obstruction owner to remove, light, or mark the hazard 2. Relocate a threshold (declared distances), raise approach minimums, or increase visibility requirements How many operations are needed to classify as a GA Reliever? - Correct answer 25,000 Bookkeeping - Correct answer The process of recording all financial transactions in a journal What 2 AIP funded projects don't require DBE goals? - Correct answer Snow removal equipment and Airport Rescue & Fire Fighting equipment Airline Deregulation Act of 1978 - Correct answer 1. Dissolved the CAB P a g e 52 | 138 What is the short range radar (60 NM) used to identify and separate traffic in and around the airport? - Correct answer Airport surveillance radar Where is the Outer Marker for an instrument landing system located? - Correct answer 4-7 NM from the runway threshold What is the platform that shares real time, or near real time, and identical information among pilots, ATC, airline dispatchers, etc? It is part of the NextGen program. - Correct answer System Wide Information Management (SWIM) What is being replaced by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)? - Correct answer Outer, middle, and inner markers Which entity uses the Airport Acceptance Rate (AAR) to calculate the desired interval between arrival aircraft? - Correct answer Air Route Traffic Control Centers (FAA) What specifies the exact order in which aircraft are to take off or land? - Correct answer Sequencing What is the minimum threshold beyond which delays increase exponentially? - Correct answer 4-6 minutes What does a terminal provide? - Correct answer Safe, efficient, and comfortable transfer of passengers and their baggage to and from aircraft and ground transportation Air carrier airports attempt to accommodate what terminal conditions? - Correct answer Peak passenger and baggage Flight interface - Correct answer Concourses, departure lounges, passenger boarding devises, airline operational and maintenance space, non-public vendor storage areas (concessions) P a g e 55 | 138 Passengar processing - Correct answer Ticket counters, baggage claims, concessions, interline baggage and bag sort, security screening, airport admin Access Interface (community to curbside) - Correct answer Intermodal connection including curb frontage, parking, public transit, pedestrian walkways, delivery areas FAA terminal desires - Correct answer 1. Terminal building not interfere with aircraft What 3 areas effect terminal planning? - Correct answer 1. FAA Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF) 2. Master Plan 3. A4A and airline forecasting Non-passenger terminal desires - Correct answer Cell phone parking lot, concessions Airport operator terminal desires - Correct answer Low maintenance costs, HVAC, revenue generation from concessions, modern facility Airline terminal desires - Correct answer Accommodate existing and future fleets, efficient passenger & baggage flow, effective safety & security Business passenger terminal desires - Correct answer Business centers, close-in car rental, airline travel clubs Leisure passenger terminal desires - Correct answer Curbside check-in, remote parking options International passenger terminal desires - Correct answer Duty-free stores, currency exchanges P a g e 56 | 138 Passenger (all) terminal desires - Correct answer Convenient access, variety of food options, personal comforts, short walking distances, entertainment, minimum landside congestion, graphics and signs Key elements in terminal design - Correct answer 1. Peak hour vehicle volumes (volume determines initial terminal size) 2. Hourly passenger volume (peak hour is the hourly design volume, usually 3%-5% of annual passenger volume) 3. Affected by airline schedules, fleet mix, international flights (most airline flight schedules are at similar times, international flights have longer turnaround times) What are the 3 airport types? - Correct answer 1. Origination/Destination - high percentage of local passengers and turnaround flights, max handling services for passenger processing due to significant passenger flow 2. Transfer - significant enplaned passengers transferring to other flights, typically when more than 50% of enplaned passengers are transferring to another flight, less need for passenger processing, but better bag transfer and passenger transfer 3. Through - high percentage of originating passengers/low percent of originating flights, some are Essential Air Service airports (usually Non-Hub) What is non-rentable space, and what percent of the terminal? - Correct answer Hallways, maintenance and electrical rooms, other necessary infrastructure 10-15% What is the percent of usable space by concessions and airport admin functions? - Correct answer 15-25% P a g e 57 | 138 What are the 2 overlying principles of passenger way finding? - Correct answer 1. Consider the entire way finding chain 2. Don't overload users (give them enough information to get to the next sign) What are three examples of Federal Inspection Services (FIS)? - Correct answer Customs, Immigration, and USDA What is an important concept in Federal Inspection Services (FIS) design? - Correct answer Keep passenger routing as short and direct as possible What are the three types of Federal Inspection Services (FIS) facilities? - Correct answer 1. Custom Accelerated Passenger Processing Service (CAPIS) - 2-step process (customs and immigration are separate), slowest of the three systems 2. One Stop - combines customs and immigration, usually Non-Hub, GA, and used worldwide 3. Red-Green - allows travelers with nothing to declare to proceed through the immigration process without inspection Where should Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting (ARFF) and Snow Removal Equipment (SRE) buildings be placed and what are their requirements? - Correct answer ARFF - primary objective to save lives, so should be close to the runway SREB - warm/sheltered to protect equipment; on apron to reduce reaction time ARFF and SREB can be centralized at smaller airports due to staffing; FAA encourages co-locating at smaller airports due to smaller staff How does the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) effect facilities? - Correct answer 1. New buildings must be free of architectural and communication barriers P a g e 60 | 138 2. Existing buildings and facilities readily accessible 3. Must provide auxiliary aids, services, and/or telecommunication devices What is the planning document for the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? - Correct answer Americans with Disabilities Act Accessibility Guidelines (ADAAG) What is the definition of "disability"? - Correct answer A person must meet any of the following to be considered a disabled person per the ADA A physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of an individual A record of any such impairment Being regarded as having such impairment Application of ADA to tenants - Correct answer Places of public accommodation under Title III must comply with ADA Environmental obligations started under what act? - Correct answer National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) What act required an environmental review for certain types of projects? - Correct answer Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 FAA is responsible for what portions of NEPA? - Correct answer 1. Determining if an airport action is a categorical exclusion 2. Reviewing environmental assessments (EA) prepared by an operator, and that the EAs meet FAA requirements P a g e 61 | 138 Preparing environmental impact statements FAA requires preparation of environmental statements for all major federal airport development actions that _______ the quality of the environment. - Correct answer Significantly affect What three levels of approval are given to the ALP? - Correct answer 1. Conditional - environmental processing has not been completed for all the proposed development 2. Unconditional - all proposed development items requiring environmental processing have received environmental approval 3. Mixed approval - some near-term projects on ALP have completed the environmental process, but long-term projects haven't What does "near term" mean for an ALP? - Correct answer A project is "ripe for decision", but a timeframe is not given What does NEPA require from each federal agency? - Correct answer Disclose to the public a clear, accurate description of potential environmental impacts for the proposed action and reasonable alternatives What do federal actions include? - Correct answer 1. ALP approvals (even without AIP funding) 2. Federal funding requests 3. AIP funded maintenance projects PFC approvals, including locally funded items that require ALP approval What are the three NEPA categories of environmental action? - Correct answer 1. Categorical Exclusion - no environmental impact expected by the nature of the project P a g e 62 | 138 2. Communicate compliance goals to employees, tenants, and the community 3. Identify and asses the current level of compliance through an audit 4. Establish programs to attain compliance 5. Create processes and procedures to correct and maintain compliance, including good record keeping and training Establish and implement strategies for building environmental capacity. Who is responsible for designating areas that are attainment, nonattainment, or maintenance for each criteria of air quality pollutants? - Correct answer States More than ______ of all US airports are presently located in nonattainment areas. - Correct answer 25% What must airports conform to with regards to air quality? - Correct answer State Implementation Plans (SIP) How does contamination of surface and groundwater occur (from airports)? - Correct answer Runoff leaches pollutants from products or waste Who regulates discharges of potentially contaminated wastewater and storm water into waters of the US? - Correct answer National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) What must the airport operator have with regards to the National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit process? - Correct answer A Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP) P a g e 65 | 138 Are Best Management Practices (BMPs) required in a SWPPP? - Correct answer Yes What does the Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure Plan (SPCC) require? - Correct answer 1. Points of contact 2. Facility layout 3. Locations of fuel storage facilitates and other sources of contamination What are the reporting elements of the Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure Plan (SPCC), and what are emergency and non-emergency spills? - Correct answer 1. Discharge, discovery, and reporting for emergency and non-emergency spills, with or without discharge 2. Emergency spills are where the stormwater system was reached. Non-emergency spills are where the stormwater system wasn't reached What are the 3 categories of hazardous wast generators? - Correct answer 1. Conditionally exempt small quantity generator - less than 100 kg of hazardous waste/month 2. Small quantity generator - 100-1,000 kg of hazardous waste/month 3. Large quantity generator - more than 1,000 kg of hazardous waste/month Who is a Potentially Responsible Party (PRP)? - Correct answer 1. The owner/operator of a facility that manages hazardous waste 2. Owner/operator of the facility at the time of disposal where the hazardous wastes were disposed 3. Who arranged for hazardous substance treatment or disposal P a g e 66 | 138 4. Who accepts/accepted hazardous substances for transport to disposal or treatment facilities, incineration vessels, or other selected sites Lawsuits and ______ can be extended to employees. - Correct answer Penalties (held personally responsible) What 3 basic factors are considered to determine if a public or private employee is personally liable - Correct answer 1. Ability to make a timely discovery 2. Power to direct the activities of persons who control the mechanisms causing the problem 3. Ability to prevent and abate the damage What are the EPA's levels of response (which correspond to the gravity/circumstances)? - Correct answer 1. An informal response (eg notice of non- compliance or a warning letter) from the FAA or EPA 2. Formal administrative responses, which are legal orders 3. Civil judicial responses, which are formal lawsuits brought to federal court 4. Criminal judicial responses, which are used when a person or company knowingly and willfully violated the law; may be investigated by the EPA's criminal investigation agents and/or the FBI How are environmental violations remedied? - Correct answer 1. Comply with the law 2. Carry out a supplemental project (offset) P a g e 67 | 138 Flight Restriction Zone (FRZ) - Correct answer Exists immediately around Washington DC Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) - Correct answer Exists temporarily and no unauthorized fight during the time it's active (eg Super Bowl, wild land fire fighting, presidential movement) Tower, aka "local control" - Correct answer Controls traffic on the runway, in the traffic pattern, and in the surrounding airspace Ground Control - Correct answer Controls traffic on the taxiways, into the Movement Area, and handoff to the Tower Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS) - Correct answer Provides winds, weather, and other relevant data to arriving and departing aircraft (recorded by the tower hourly or as needed for weather changes) Ramp control - Correct answer Some large airports have a ramp control tower (non- movement area, pushback, and taxi to movement area control) Typically staffed by airlines or airport employees Terminal Radar Approach Control Facility (TRACON) - Correct answer Handles aircraft in terminal airspace, departing, and arrival aka "approach control" and "departure control" Clearance delivery - Correct answer Provides initial departure information to pilots (while the plane is still at the parking position) P a g e 70 | 138 Instrument flight plan must be filed an hour early to receive clearance What to do after taking off Unicom or Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) - Correct answer Common radio frequency for airports without control towers. Some unicoms are staffed by FBOs Departure leg - Correct answer The rectangular pattern is a straight course aligned with, and leading from, the takeoff runway Crosswind leg - Correct answer Is the part of the rectangular pattern that is horizontally perpendicular to the extended centerline Downwind leg - Correct answer Is a course flown parallel to the landing runway, but in a direction opposite to the intended landing direction. Recommended entry is on the downwind leg Base leg - Correct answer The transitional part of the traffic pattern between the downwind leg and the final approach leg Upwind leg - Correct answer The course flown parallel to the landing runway, but in the same direction to the intended landing direction; the term is used when a pilot aborts their approach and goes around Final approach leg - Correct answer The descending flight path starting from the completion of the base-to-final turn and extending to the point of touchdown Contract Tower Program - Correct answer Public use, NPIAS airports only Must adhere to grant assurances Meet the cost/benefit ratio P a g e 71 | 138 Compares the cost of preventing accidents and the efficiencies of reduced flying time due to the control tower's presence, versus the cost of establishing, staffing, and maintaining the tower A location is eligible for a control tower when the benefits derived from operating the tower exceed the installation and operation costs, BPV/CPV>=1.0 Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) - Correct answer 60 NM range - terminal airspace Used by Terminal Radar Approach Control Facility (TRACON) Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR) - Correct answer 100-250 NM range En route airspace Used by Control Centers Primary return - Correct answer The radar signal that goes out, hits an object, and returns Doesn't tell you what the object is Transponder (secondary return) - Correct answer Tells the radar what the object is (sends data) Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE) - Correct answer Ground surveillance on airports Low visibility conditions Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) - Correct answer Tracks inbound aircraft on ILS High speed, near approach path of airport Especially parallel runways P a g e 72 | 138 Level B - include smaller hubs or airports that have worse than average weather; contract human observers Level C - Augmented by tower controllers or FSS specialists, who report thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, and tower visibility. All towered airports are considered Level C airports (from an ASOS perspective) during hours of normal tower operations. Contract weather observers may supplement Level C observations. Level D - completely automated, and are not augmented What does an Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) measure? - Correct answer A basic AWOS measures barometric pressure and altimeter setting NextGeneration (NextGen) Air Traffic Control - Correct answer Moving from land based to satellite based navigation Requires ADS-B (Automatic-Dependent-Surveillance-Broadcast) Airport enhancements - GIS integration to provide detailed geospacial data about obstructions; transponder for surface vehicle operations ADS-B (Automatic-Dependent-Surveillance-Broadcast) - Correct answer Always on Depends on GPS signals for position data Provides "radar-like" surveillance Continuously broadcasts position Airspace is a _____ resource - Correct answer Limited P a g e 75 | 138 Capacity - Correct answer The ability of a portion of airspace or an airport to handle a given volume of traffic (demand) within a specified time-period What are the 4 parts of capacity analysis? - Correct answer 1. Airspace (# of runways) 2. Airfield (how much space on taxiways and ramps) 3. Terminal (# of gates) 4. Ground access (ability to handle landside traffic) Throughput capacity - Correct answer Rate aircraft operate without regard for delay Software modeling Practical Hourly Capacity (PHOCAP_) - Correct answer Total combined capacity measure of the runway, taxiway, and gate areas Practical Annual Capacity (PANCAP) - Correct answer Level of operation that results in not more than 4 min average delay per aircraft in a normal peak 2-hour operating period Airport Acceptance Rate (AAR) - Correct answer Agreed upon number of aircraft that can land at a given airport in a 1-hour period Used by ATC Delays will increase exponentially beyond _____ of delay. ______ of delay is severely congested - Correct answer 4-6 minutes over 9 minutes FAA historically used what money to build airport capacity to accommodate all demand? - Correct answer Trust Fund revenues Benefit to Cost ration ________ by building to accommodate all demand. - Correct answer Decreased P a g e 76 | 138 Traffic Management Initiatives - Correct answer 1. Mile-in-trail or minute-in-trail restrictions; keeping aircraft 1 mile (or 1 minute) apart 2. Traffic reroutes - provides spacing, more time in air to sequence aircraft 3. Ground delay - held at departure airport; usually due to weather at arrival airport 4. Ground stops - major ground delay, all clearances cancelled 5. Metering - matching the Airport Acceptance Rate (AAR) 6. Sequencing - aircraft lined up by capability; fast aircraft in front, slow aircraft in back; have to be able to move aircraft around ramps and taxiways Allocate and restrict airport access (Administrative Management) - Correct answer 1. Slot allocation 2. Diversion - use a reliever airport 3. Balancing - distribute aircraft among regional airports 4. Rehubbing/redistributing - transfer traffic to underutilized airports Economic Demand Management - Correct answer Differential pricing establishes peak- hour surcharges; determined to be unjust discrimination, and was therefore dropped Slot auctions Slot Management - Correct answer 1. Block of time allocated to airport user to perform aircraft operation 2. Max limit on hourly number of allocated IFR operations 3. High density airports allocated slots to scheduled air carriers, scheduled commuters, and GA (only applicable to O'Hare, JFK, Reagan National, and LaGuardia) 4. Slots issued by the FAA through admin determinations, negotiation, or assignment to the airlines/reservation system with GA 5. Slots can be bought, sold, and considered assets in bankruptcy P a g e 77 | 138 Subpart D - Regulatory Operational Requirements (specific airfield safety and maintenance requirements and required safety programs for a commercial service airport) What are the Part 139, Subpart A classifications? - Correct answer Class I - scheduled large and small aircraft (10-30 seats), unscheduled large aircraft (more than 30 seats) Class II - scheduled small aircraft, unscheduled large aircraft Class III - Scheduled small aircraft Class IV - Unscheduled large aircraft Scheduled essentially means Part 121 operation Unscheduled essentially means Part 135 or other Part 121 supplemental operation What do airports that meet the Part 139 requirements receive, and what does it allow them to do? - Correct answer Airport Operating Certificate (AOC) Operate as a commercial service airport FAA will perform surprise inspections Prior to ____, the primary difference between Class I versus II or III was "negotiated standard" where the FAA and airport operator would determine the acceptable standard at a particular airport - Correct answer 2004 Class II and III airports are held to what standard? - Correct answer Class I. Class II and III standards are used for smaller air carrier airports that may have temporarily lost carrier service, but desire to maintain their certificate while they look for new carrier service. P a g e 80 | 138 GA airports aren't required to have a Part 139 Airport Operating Certificate (AOC), but many do for what reasons? - Correct answer Enhanced safety, marketing, desire to accommodate Part 135 operations or future Part 121 operations Alaska is the exception to the Part 139 rule. Why? - Correct answer Alaskan airports that serve air carrier aircraft with less than 30 seats are exempt from federal certification requirements What does Part 139 Subpart B address? - Correct answer Administrative requirements, including exemption, deviations, and limitations Exemption (Subpart B) - Correct answer A rule-making action and necessitates a review by the FAA legal staff. The most common exemption is ARFF requirements to airports enplaning less than one-quarter of 1% of the total US emplanements over a year Deviations (Subpart B) - Correct answer Allowed for aircraft emergencies, such as allowing an air carrier to use a runway that does not meet the safety of the Airport Certification Manual. Must self report within 14 days to the FAA. Limitations (Subpart B) - Correct answer Identify an unusual operational characteristic of an airport, such as limiting air carrier operations to aircraft of a certain weight due to pavement strength What does Part 139 Subpart C address? - Correct answer The Airport Certification Manual (ACM) What is the central purpose of the Airport Certification Manual (ACM)? - Correct answer The ACM explains how the airport complies with Part 139 Specific requirements and how standards will be met P a g e 81 | 138 The airport operator writes the ACM to explain to the FAA how that specific airport meets part 139 The ACM must be approved by the FAA Once approved it becomes the "FAR Part 139" for that airport What plans are used in the Airport Certification Manual (ACM)? - Correct answer Wildlife Hazard Plan Airport Emergency Plan Snow and Ice Plan Vehicle & Pedestrian Plan Signs-Lights-Markings Plan What does Part 139 Subpart D address? - Correct answer Lists the regulatory requirements that must be met in order to comply with Part 139 The stuff that must be maintained and inspected on a daily basis Airport Self Inspection (Part 139 Subpart D) - Correct answer 1. Airports conduct inspections using their own personnel 2. Personnel must be trained annually 3 Airport must have "sufficiently qualified personnel" Components include inspecting for, and reporting and correcting deficiencies (a NOTAM and work order must be issued if the discrepancy cannot be immediately corrected) Record keeping and personnel requirements Inspection personnel (Part 139 Subpart D) must be trained annually for these items - Correct answer 1. Airport inspection techniques 2. Airport familiarization 3. Airport Emergency Plan and other related plans 4. How to issue NOTAMs 5. Rules regarding pedestrian and ground vehicle operations P a g e 82 | 138 What is the most effective means of preserving airport runways, taxiways, and other paved areas? - Correct answer Implementation of an Airport Pavement Management System (APMS) Asphalt categories of defects - Correct answer 1. Cracking (longitudinal, transverse, alligator). Longitudinal is more severe than transverse due to aircraft tires getting stuck in crack. 2. Disintegration (raveling, potholes) 3. Distortion (ruts, depressions, swelling) 4. Loss of skid resistance (polished aggregate, contaminants, fuel/oil spillage) Concrete categories of defects - Correct answer 1. Cracking (longitudinal, transverse, shrinkage, shattered slab) 2. Disintegration (scaling, map cracking, crazing/hairline cracks, Alkali-Silica Reaction, spalling/slab breakdown) 3. Distortion (pumping, settlement, shoving [unstable concrete mix]) 4. Loss of skid resistance (polished aggregate, contaminants, fuel/oil spillage) What are the top reasons for most pavement deterioration? - Correct answer Weather, aging, structural loads Can a plane use your runway? - Correct answer ACN (Aircraft Classification Number) - based on weight and wheel base PCN (Pavement Classification Number) - based on pavement testing If ACN > PCN, aircraft CANNOT operate without restrictions If ACN < PCN, aircraft CAN operate without restrictions What is a decelerometers (DEC)? - Correct answer Pavement friction measurement device that assesses friction properties P a g e 85 | 138 Mechanical or electrical Continuous Friction Measuring Equipment (CFME) - continuous graphic record Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) - Correct answer Used to report the condition of the runway Based on Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment (TALPA) working group Believed to be more comprehensive and standardized method of assessing and reporting surface conditions Airport operators use RCAM to categorize runway conditions, while pilots use it to interpret reported runway conditions Unpaved areas for air carrier use - Correct answer Maintain and repair surfaces of gravel, turf, or other unpaved runway, taxiway, loading ramp Inspection of safety areas (RSA and TSA) - Correct answer 1. Cleared, drained, compacted, and graded 2. Check the storm sewer system to verify inlets and drainage channels are free of debris. Note standing water. 3. Conduct a special inspection before reopening a RW or TW following construction or maintenance. Ensure no hazardous conditions - equipment left in safety areas, unacceptable pavement lips, ruts 4. Check any time an aircraft has left the pavement and entered a safety area. Check to ensure no ruts or holes have been made by the aircraft or personnel and equipment during recovery operation. 5. Inspect EMAS, if installed, for damage or deterioration 6. Drive or walk the safety areas to check for any discrepancies P a g e 86 | 138 Runway edge lights - Correct answer White, except for last 2,000 ft (or half the RW length, whichever is less) where lights are yellow Runway centerline lights - Correct answer White, except for last 3,000 ft where they alternate red/white for 2,000 ft. RW centerline lights are red for the last 1,000 ft of runway. Taxiway lead-on, lead-off lights - Correct answer In-pavement that alternate green and yellow, lead from RW centerline onto a taxiway (and vice versa) Taxiway edge lights and centerline lights - Correct answer TW edge lights are blue TW centerline lights are green Runway threshold lights - Correct answer Green in the direction of landing prior to reaching runway (facing away from the runway), and red facing towards the runway High Intensity lights (HIRL) - Correct answer Used for runways with precision instrument approaches Medium Intensity lights (MIRL) - Correct answer Used for runways with non-precision instrument approaches Low Intensity lights (LIRL) - Correct answer Used for runways with visual approaches Many airfields that do not have a control tower have ________ lighting, which is activated by ________. - Correct answer Pilot controlled VHF radio in the pilot's cockpit Surface Movement Guidance and Control System SMCGS) - Correct answer A lighting system used at airports with low visibility that helps guide aircraft operators to their P a g e 87 | 138 Runway Distance Remaining signs - Correct answer Provides remaining runway length in 1,000-foot increments White lettering on black background ILS Critical Area Boundary marking - Correct answer Denotes entrance to an area to be protected for an ILS signal TW/TW Holding Position marking - Correct answer Denotes location on TW or apron where aircraft hold short of another TW Non-Movement Area Boundary marking - Correct answer Delineates Movement Area under control of ATC What is the least disruptive Traffic Management Initiative? - Correct answer Mile-in-trail or minute-in-trail What is Datacom? - Correct answer Basically texting between ATC and pilots What is environmental justice? - Correct answer Reviewing adverse impacts on minority or low-income populations What does being on the List of Violating Facilities mean financially? - Correct answer No federal money What is the slowest passenger screening method? - Correct answer Custom Accelerated Passenger Processing Service (CAPIS) What are places of public accommodation for? - Correct answer Americans with Disabilities Act P a g e 90 | 138 What are visual aids for pilots by the terminal? - Correct answer Stand Guidance Systems What is the second component of the Airport Reference Code (ARC)? - Correct answer Aircraft Design Group (ADG) What are 66% of delays caused by? - Correct answer Weather What is the separation between close parallel runways? - Correct answer Less than 2,500 feet What does a good faith effort due in legal proceedings? - Correct answer Makes it harder to prosecute What do light emissions effect? - Correct answer Residential What is the nose gear steering angle? - Correct answer No more than 50-degrees What is the name of the business plan that addresses environmental matters? - Correct answer Environmental Management System What is the total number of paying passengers on a flight? - Correct answer Enplanements ______ add additional pavement to maintain the taxiway edge safety margin - Correct answer Fillets What is replacing radar? - Correct answer ADS-B (Automatic-Dependent-Surveillance- Broadcast) Local conditions forecasting technique? - Correct answer Smoothing P a g e 91 | 138 The ability for an airport to handle aircraft - Correct answer Capacity Visual runway standard markings - Correct answer Designation Runway centerline Non-precision standard markings - Correct answer Designation Runway centerline Aiming point Precision standard markings - Correct answer Designation Runway centerline Aiming point Touchdown zone markings Runway edges What are the elements of inspecting markings? - Correct answer Correct color coding Evaluate for possible peeling, blistering, chipping, fading, obscured location, or positioning What are the elements of inspecting signs? - Correct answer Readable, in accordance with color standards, have no missing/damaged/faded panels, properly illuminated at night What are the elements of inspecting lighting? - Correct answer Operable with no vegetation or foreign matter deposits interfering with illumination Proper color and orientation Report/repair all lights that are missing or appear dim P a g e 92 | 138 What group publishes FDC NOTAMs, including Temporary Flight Restrictions? - Correct answer National Flight Data Center (NFDC) Snow and Ice Control Plan (SICP) - Correct answer 2 phases Phase 1 - addresses pre and post winter subjects that prepare the airport for the winter season; completed during the summer Phase 2 - addresses instruction and procedures that should be taken by the airport when dealing with winter storms, and notifying airport users in a timely manner What are the key outcomes during snow? - Correct answer 1. Start the operation in a timely manner 2. Promptly remove snow to a "no worse than wet" condition 3. Position snow away from Movement Areas 4. Notify airport users about the conditions (FICON NOTAM) 5. Airports should have sufficient equipment to clear 1-inch within a reasonable time for the Priority 1 areas What are the Priority 1 areas of a Snow and Ice Control Plan? - Correct answer Primary RW, ARFF route, TWs, and ramp areas Snow brooms/sweepers - Correct answer Used primarily to clean up the residue left on the pavement surface by a plow or blower, or for sweeping and cleaning debris from airport operational areas P a g e 95 | 138 Displacement plows - Correct answer Consist of a cutting edge that shears snow from the pavement, and a moldboard that lifts and casts the dislodged snow to the side of the cleared path Melters - Correct answer Melt snow that is delivered by carrier trucks. Affects stormwater plans and permits Carrier trucks - Correct answer Haul snow away Spreaders - Correct answer Spread sand and/or de-icing materials Rotary snow blowers - Correct answer Used primarily to cast heavy concentrations of snow away Multi-function equipment - Correct answer Provides the ability to plow snow with a front- end blade, broom residue with a center-mounted broom, then air blast the residue and apply sand/deicing (or both) with a rear-mounted carriage Airport Rescue and Fire Fighting Index - Correct answer Based on the longest air carrier aircraft that serves the airport with 5 or more average daily departures Identifies the airport's level of emergency capability Primary responsibility of the ARFF crew members? - Correct answer Create a path for the evacuation and/or rescue of passengers and crew members. Putting out the fire is second to saving lives. Responsibilities of the ARFF crew members? - Correct answer 1. Create a path for the evacuation and/or rescue of passengers and crew members. Putting out the fire is second to saving lives. P a g e 96 | 138 2. First responders (in full gear) must be able to reach the mid-point of the furthest air carrier runway and apply the firefighting agent within 3 minutes from alarm. All other vehicles (if required) must reach the same point within 4 minutes. 3. ARFF equipment is required to be available 15 minutes prior to the air carrier arrival and remain for 15 minutes after it departs When must NOTAMs NOT be used? - Correct answer To restrict access or be redundant. Access restriction is only allowed during an emergency What must the airport issue when it falls below its ARFF index? - Correct answer Issue a NOTAM ARFF personnel, training, and exercise requirements - Correct answer 1. Personnel must be trained in Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting (min 40 hour school) 2. At least one ARFF person on duty must be trained in basic medical care 3. ARFF must conduct at least one live fire drill per year 4. Class 1 commercial service airports must conduct at least 1 full scale emergency exercise every 3 years What standards are used for safe handling and storage of hazardous materials? - Correct answer National Fire Protective Association (NFPA) 407 standards Daily hazardous substances and materials look for what type of common problems? - Correct answer Smoking, parking, leaks P a g e 97 | 138