CNOR Practice Exam Questions and Answers (2024) - Perioperative Nursing, Exams of Nursing

Download CNOR Practice Exam Questions and Answers (2024) - Perioperative Nursing and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Aseptic technique is also known as: A. Clean technique B. Sterile technique C. Sterilization D. Decontamination - Correct Answer ✅A. Clean technique Aseptic technique refers to clean methods of containing microbial contamination in the environment. The environment cannot be sterilized. An intrinsic factor that contributes to the development of a pressure injury is: A. Pressure B. Hypothermia C. Diabetes mellitus D. General anesthesia - Correct Answer ✅C. Diabetes mellitus CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) An intrinsic factor is related to the health of the patient. Diabetes mellitus is an intrinsic factor that contributes to the development of a pressure injury. Which of the following helps determine a patient's discharge destination? A. Written discharge instructions from anesthesiology and medical staff B. Risk of postoperative complications C. Standardized pain scoring D. General condition and readiness for discharge - Correct Answer ✅B. Risk of postoperative complications The choice of discharge site is based on patient acuity, access to follow-up care, and the potential for postoperative complications. Central nervous system (CNS) signs and symptoms of local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) include: CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) B. Positioning the patient as far from the image intensifier as possible C. Positioning the patient as far from the monitor as possible D. Positioning the patient as close to the image intensifier as possible - Correct Answer ✅D. Positioning the patient as close to the image intensifier as possible The x-ray beams originate from the tube and are captured by the image intensifier. Multiple studies have demonstrated that positioning the patient closer to the image intensifier results in a significantly decreased dose of radiation. A perioperative nurse is assisting an anesthesia professional with a rapid-sequence induction by providing cricoid pressure using the Sellick maneuver. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of this technique? A. Exerting down-and-up pressure on the cricoid cartilage to compress the trachea CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) B. Palpating for the thyroid cartilage and exerting pressure on it with a dominant index finger and thumb to occlude the esophagus C. Applying pressure on the cricoid cartilage to occlude the esophagus D. Maintaining pressure on the thyroid cartilage until anesthesia verifies placement - Correct Answer ✅C. Applying pressure on the cricoid cartilage to occlude the esophagus The Sellick maneuver, more commonly known as cricoid pressure application, involves exerting downward pressure on the cricoid cartilage with the thumb and index finger of one hand to compress the esophagus. The Sellick maneuver is used to prevent potential aspiration during induction of anesthesia. A diagnostic procedure that replies on radio-frequency waves to reproduce cross-sectional images of the body without exposing the patient to ionizing radiation is: A. Ultrasonography CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) B. Position emission tomography C. Computed tomography D. Magnetic resonance imaging - Correct Answer ✅D. Magnetic resonance imaging Magnetic resonance imaging stimulates disequilibrium in the nuclei of hydrogen atoms and the water of body cells. As nuclei return to their original state, they emit radiofrequency signals. Which of the following movements of a powered instrument is used to drill holes or to insert screws, wires, and pins? A. Reciprocating B. Oscillating C. Alternating D. Rotating - Correct Answer ✅D. Rotating Rotary movement is used to drill holes or to insert screws, wires, or pins. Reciprocating and oscillating movements are CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) C. Administer a liter of normal saline prior to surgery to ensure that the patient is well hydrated D. Allow a family member or friend to sit with the patient in the preoperative area and in the post anesthesia care unit. - Correct Answer ✅A. Raise the temperature in the operating room to between 26.7*C and 29.4*C (80*F and 85*F). The sickle cell patient must be kept warm to prevent hypothermia and meet increased demands for oxygen. A _______ type of fire extinguisher should be used in an operating or procedure room. A. Wet chemical B. Carbon dioxide C. Halogen D. Dry powder - Correct Answer ✅B. Carbon dioxide The National Fire Protection Association recommends using either a water mist or carbon dioxide extinguisher for extinguishing fires in the operating room. CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) _______ requires purposeful, outcomes-directed thought and is driven by patient need. A. Critical thinking B. Assessment C. Diagnosis D. Planning - Correct Answer ✅A. Critical thinking Scientific nursing interventions, critical thinking and clinical reasoning, and caring, comforting behaviors are at the heart of perioperative nursing. Critical thinking is a thoughtful process important in the performance of perioperative nursing care versus being part of the nursing process. A hemoglobin value considered to be within normal limits for an adult woman is: A. 10 g/dL to 14 g/dL B. 12 g/dL to 16 g/dL CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) C. 14 g/dL to 18 g/dL D. 16 g/dL to 20 g/dL - Correct Answer ✅B. 12 g/dL to 16 g/dL Normal hemoglobin values are 12 g/dL to 16 g/dL for women and 14 g/dL to 18 g/dL for men. What technique is the safest to use when securing the arms at the patient's sides? A. Drawing a sheet under the arms, over the patient, and using non-penetrating clamps to secure it to the opposite side B. Drawing a sheet over the arm and then sliding it between the mattress and the bed C. Drawing a sheet over the arm and tucking it between the patient and the mattress D. Wrapping the patient's arm with padding and securing it to the body with a safety strap - Correct Answer ✅C. Drawing a sheet over the arm and tucking it between the patient and the mattress CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Methyl methacrylate can penetrate many latex compounds. Methyl methacrylate fumes may irritate the eyes; therefore, eye protection must be worn when mixing and inserting methyl methacrylate bone cement. PPE is defined as any clothing or other equipment that protects a person from exposure to chemicals. PPE may include gloves, aprons, chemical splash goggles, and impervious clothing. Which of the following nursing actions would be best support a positive outcome for a nursing diagnosis of potential for alteration in skin integrity? A. Place a warming blanket on the OR bed prior to the patient coming into the operating room B. Obtain an appropriate positioning device that will aid in redistribution of pressure C. Place several layers of linen material on the OR bed D. Position the patient in a supine position with arms tucked at sides and palms facing down to protect the ulcer nerve - Correct Answer ✅B. Obtain an appropriate positioning device that will aid in redistribution of pressure CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Warming blankets and extra layers of material should not be placed under the patient. The goal is to use equipment that is designed to redistribute pressure and that decreases the risk for positioning injuries. Palms should face the patient when the arms are tucked. Which of the following describes point-of-use cleaning of a surgical instrument? A. Prior to the procedure, the instrument is cleaned with a moist sponge B. During the procedure, the instrument is cleaned with a moist sponge after each use C. After the procedure, the instrument is cleaned with a moist sponge in the sterile processing area D. Continually clean the instrument with a sponge moistened with saline - Correct Answer ✅B. During the procedure, the instrument is cleaned with a moist sponge after each use CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) One type of point-of-use cleaning of a surgical instrument is when the instrument is cleaned with a sterile, water-soaked sponge after each use during the procedure. Point-of-use cleaning also occurs when an instrument is cleaned at the point of use immediately following the procedure. Saline should not be used for point-of-care cleaning. Cleaning at the point of use prevents bioburden from building up on the instrument and helps maintain the life of the instrument. Venous air embolism is most likely to occur when the patient is in the ________ position. A. Supine B. Sitting C. Lithotomy D. Lateral - Correct Answer ✅B. Sitting Venous air embolism can occur when air or gas is drawn into the circulation by the veins above the level of the heart and is most likely to occur during neurosurgery or open shoulder surgery in the sitting or semi-sitting position. CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) When performing time out, which of the following should be verified? A. Laboratory studies B. Instruments C. Suture D. Procedure - Correct Answer ✅D. Procedure Ensuring correct-site surgery requires affirmation of the following: correct patient, position, site, procedures, equipment, images, and implants (if required). Pneumatic tourniquets should be deflated under the direction of: A. The surgeon and the scrub person B. The anesthesia professional and the circulating nurse C. The circulating nurse and the surgeon D. The surgeon and the anesthesia professional - Correct Answer ✅D. The surgeon and the anesthesia professional CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Hemodynamic changes may occur when the tourniquet is deflated. As the tourniquet cuff deflates, the anesthetic agent may be released into the circulatory system, causing systemic effects. Coordination among members of the perioperative team under the direction of the surgeon and the anesthesia professional can facilitate management of the patient's physiologic status during this period of rapid change. Which organization should be consulted about a perioperative RN's scope of practice related to administration of medications for moderate sedation? A. Association of periOperative Registered Nurses B. The Joint Commission C. State Board of Nursing D. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services - Correct Answer ✅C. State Board of Nursing CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) The professional registered nurse's scope of practice is defined by the individual state board of nursing. A perioperative nurse is monitoring a patient under local anesthesia during a hernia repair when the patient reports a strange taste in the mouth. What is the most appropriate response by the perioperative nurse? A. Reassure the patient that it is a common sensation and will resolve soon after surgery B. Check the patient's hemoglobin and hematocrit C. Ask the patient to confirm nothing by mouth status D. Call for help - Correct Answer ✅D. Call for help The patient's symptom may represent a local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST), which would require urgent treatment under the direction of a qualified health care provider such as an anesthesia professional or a code team. In addition to altered taste (eg, metallic taste), other symptoms of LAST are consistent with neurologic (eg, CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Wet and moist mopping produce fewer aerosols and are most effective in reducing organic soil in the environment. A coworker in the operating room asks to see the patient's chart for the nurse's next case, stating that the patient is her neighbor. The nurse should: A. State this would be a violation of the patient's privacy B. Hand over the patient's chart because they are neighbors C. Consult with the doctor about letting the coworker see the chart D. Ask their director to make the decision - Correct Answer ✅A. State this would be a violation of the patient's privacy The federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) granted patients significant rights in respect to how their health information is used. Only health care personnel involved in direct patient care should have access to patient information. CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Surgery of the liver requires incising the external covering referred to as: A. Glisson's capsule B. Gerota's fascia C. Porta hepatis D. Hepatic fascia - Correct Answer ✅A. Glisson's capsule The covering of the liver is made up of dense connective tissue called Glisson's capsule. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for hair removal prior to surgery? A. A depilatory should be used in the operating room B. The patient should shave at home the night before surgery C. A wet shave should be done in the operating room D. The patient's hair should be clipped in the preoperative area - Correct Answer ✅D. The patient's hair should be clipped in the preoperative area CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) When necessary, hair at the surgical site should be removed in the area outside of the procedure room and in a manner that minimizes injury to the skin, such as by clipping or depilatory methods. Joey is a 4-year-old scheduled to have surgery. During preoperative teaching, the perioperative nurse knows that Joey's age-specific needs can best be met by: A. Allowing his parent or caregiver to explain what will happen B. Providing him privacy whenever possible C. Allowing him to handle the oxygen mask and ride in the wagon that will later take him to the OR D. Giving him a thorough explanation of everything that will happen - Correct Answer ✅C. Allowing him to handle the oxygen mask and ride in the wagon that will later take him to the OR CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) B. Implementation C. Assessment D. Outcome identification - Correct Answer ✅D. Outcome identification Outcome identification describes the desired patient condition that can be achieved through nursing interventions. Which of the following statements on wearing safety glasses is true? A. Eye protection must be worn if splashes, spray, or droplets of potentially hazardous materials can be reasonably anticipated B. Corrective lenses fulfill the personal protective equipment requirements for ocular safety C. Safety glasses enhance the visual field of the wearer D. Wearers of corrective lenses are not permitted to wear either contacts or eyeglasses with their safety glasses - Correct Answer ✅A. Eye protection must be worn if CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) splashes, spray, or droplets of potentially hazardous materials can be reasonably anticipated Health care personnel must wear eye protection when splashes, spray, spatter, or droplets of blood or other potentially infectious materials can be reasonably anticipated. When delegating a task, the circulating nurse should: A.Verify the task is within the scope of practice of the designee B. Provide a minimum of instructions on how to complete the task C. Give feedback to the designee based on personal experiences D. Assume the designee has the skills to perform the task - Correct Answer ✅A.Verify the task is within the scope of practice of the designee CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) When delegating tasks, the circulating nurse must verify that the person being assigned the task can perform them within their scope of practice. Clear instructions and appropriate feedback are vital to ensuring safe execution of the task being delegated. A medication that should be administered for treatment of local anesthetic systemic toxicity crisis is: A. Lidocaine B. Epinephrine C. 20% Lipid emulsion D. Propofol - Correct Answer ✅C. 20% Lipid emulsion A medication that should be administered for treatment of local anesthetic systemic toxicity is 20% lipid emulsion. The lipid emulsion is used to draw the local anesthetic out of the bloodstream. CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) should not be used for facial preps because corneal damage can occur if the cleanser is accidentally introduced into the eye(s) Facial preps can risk injury to the eyes and ears in particular. Chlorhexidine gluconate can cause corneal and inner ear damage if the agent enters these areas. Cotton applicators can be used (with caution). Eyebrows should not be shaved as they are likely to grow back incompletely and/or unevenly. The hair should not be included in the prep unless the area is part of the sterile field. Medication errors related to ______ may be prevented by the medication reconciliation process. A. Procuring and prescribing B. Transcribing and procuring C. Prescribing and monitoring D. Transcribing and prescribing - Correct Answer ✅D. Transcribing and prescribing CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) The medication reconciliation process has been implemented to help prevent transcribing and prescribing errors. Deviation from a standardized procedure that is hospital policy suggests the need for: A. A root cause analysis B. A verbal warning C. An evaluation of the procedure or staff D. Better communication - Correct Answer ✅C. An evaluation of the procedure or staff Standardization of procedures helps help develop skill and efficiency. Policies and procedures based on standards and guidelines help to incorporate evidence-based practice into patient care. Deviation from those policies should lead to an evaluation of the processes and staff involved to discover if the process needs to be improved. A patient reports to the ambulatory surgery center for local anesthesia without sedation and claims that the surgeon CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) gave him permission to drive himself home. The most appropriate action for the perioperative nurse is to: A. Cancel the surgery and reschedule when the patient has a ride B. Contact the social worker to assist in finding transportation for the patient C. Check for an order stating that the patient may drive himself home D. Allow the patient to leave when his postoperative Aldrete score is 10. - Correct Answer ✅C. Check for an order stating that the patient may drive himself home It may be permissible for the patient to drive himself home if the surgery was performed under local anesthesia without sedation and if there is a physician's order. Which of the following are methods of sterilization? A. Chemical, mechanical, and biological B. Decontamination, disinfection, and pasteurization CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) A. 7 to 10 days B. 10 to 20 days C. 20 to 40 days D. 60 to 90 days - Correct Answer ✅C. 20 to 40 days Absorbable gelatin is treated to retard absorption, which allows the hemostatic agent to absorb 20 to 40 days after placement. The gelatin pad absorbs 40 times its weight and may be used wet or dry. A collection of blood in a body cavity or space caused by uncontrolled bleeding or oozing is called: A. Hematoma B. Pseudoaneurysm C. Varicosity D. Contusion - Correct Answer ✅A. Hematoma CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Hematomas form when there is uncontrolled bleeding or oozing into a body space or cavity. The hematoma may cause pain and require drainage. Policies and procedures for standardized transfer of care should reflect rules and recommendations from regulatory agencies and accreditation agencies as well as: A. A contingency plan should a patient's status change B. Verbal confirmation via read-back of cardiac monitoring and oxygen needs C. Use of a checklist to ensure all parameters for transfer of patient care have been met D. Approval of regulatory agencies for transfer of patient care processes, as documented in the institution's policies and procedures - Correct Answer ✅A. A contingency plan should a patient's status change Should a patient's status change, having a contingency plan in place has been shown to improve the effectiveness of the CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) transfer of patient information in settings with high consequence for failure. A perioperative nurse is reviewing a patient's chart and notes that the patient will undergo a brain biopsy for symptoms of progressive dementia. Which of the following suspected pathogens would prompt the nurse to take additional actions during the perioperative period of this patient's care? A. Treponema pallidum bacteria B. Culex triaeniorhynchus virus C. Neuro-Cutaneous Leishmania protozoa D. Proteinaceous prion - Correct Answer ✅D. Proteinaceous prion Prions are proteinaceous infectious agents that are resistant to routine sterilization and disinfection practices. When a discrepancy is identified in the surgical count, the perioperative RN should: CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) The perioperative nurse identifies the patient's medical history in which phase of the nursing process? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Planning D. Evaluation - Correct Answer ✅A. Assessment Assessment is the collection and analysis of relevant health data about the patient. Most complications occur within the first ________ after surgery. A. 4 hours B. 12 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours - Correct Answer ✅C. 48 hours CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Most complications occur within the first 48 hours after surgery; therefore, a registered nurse should call to check on the patient's progress and to reiterate postoperative instructions the next day or, at most, within 2 days of discharge. The hand-over/hand-off report should be a standardized transfer of patient information from the current caregiver to the receiving caregiver. Strategies to avoid breakdown in hand-over communication include: A. Ensuring that the person reporting has had a rest break B. Documenting the unit personnel receiving the report C. Using a standardized documentation format such as SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) D. Asking the anesthesia professional to confirm accuracy of the hand-over report - Correct Answer ✅C. Using a standardized documentation format such as SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) A standardized format for passing on crucial patient information from the operative staff to the staff of the receiving unit (eg, PACU staff) facilitates communication. Communication breakdown is the root cause of many sentinel events according to The Joint Commission. For which of the following should an incident report be completed? A. Surgeon arriving late for scheduled surgery B. Equipment malfunctioning during procedure C. Sponge, sharps, and instrument counts correct D. Scrub person not relieved for lunch break - Correct Answer ✅B. Equipment malfunctioning during procedure Accidents or unusual occurrences involving a patient, employee, or property should be reported according to facility policy. Unusual situations requiring an incident report include falls, needlesticks, fire, theft, malfunctioning equipment, medication error or reaction, and retained surgical items. CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) or incisional subcutaneous tissue that occurs within 30 days of the surgical procedure SSIs are defined according to specific criteria into three categories, including superficial incisional, deep incisional, and organ/space. The Correct Answer is defined as a superficial incisional infection. Which of the following is a measure of the Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP)? A. Performing strict hand hygiene protocols B. Administering prophylactic antibiotic within 1 hour of surgical incision C. Damp-dusting prior to the first case of the day D. Performing a surgical count prior to the start of surgery - Correct Answer ✅B. Administering prophylactic antibiotic within 1 hour of surgical incision Administering the prophylactic antibiotic within 1 hour of the surgical incision is the only option that is a SCIP measure. CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Which of the following statements regarding radiation safety is true? A. All personnel in the operating room should wear wrap- around lead aprons when ionizing radiation is used B. When a C-arm is in use, radiation emanates from the top part of the C-arm that is over the patient C. Time, distance, and shielding are important components of radiation safety D. When only one x-ray badge is worn, the proper placement is underneath the lead apron and along the neck line - Correct Answer ✅C. Time, distance, and shielding are important components of radiation safety For all x-ray procedures, time, distance, and shielding affect dose levels sustained. At the end of the case, loaned instruments should be: CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) A. Disassembled, cleaned, decontaminated, inspected, and returned to the lending facility B. Disassembled, cleaned, decontaminated, inspected, sterilized, and returned to the lending facility C. Disassembled, decontaminated, sterilized, inspected, reassembled, and returned to the lending facility D. Placed in a biohazard plastic container, sealed, labeled, and returned to the lending facility - Correct Answer ✅A. Disassembled, cleaned, decontaminated, inspected, and returned to the lending facility Loaned instruments should be disassembled, cleaned, decontaminated, and inspected before they are returned to the vendor or lending facility. The instruments do not have to be sterilized as they will have to undergo sterilization at the lending facility. Postoperative phone calls to the patient: A. Should be documented on the intraoperative record CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) An oxygen-enriched environment is present when the oxygen concentration in the operating room is greater than: A. 21% B. 22% C. 26% D. 28% - Correct Answer ✅A. 21% An oxygen-enriched environment is present when the oxygen concentration is greater than 21% by volume. In an oxygen- enriched environment, the temperature and energy required for fuels to ignite is lower than that of ambient or medical environments. Which of the following forms of protection is not considered part of standard precautions? A. Gloves B. Eye protection CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) C. Head covers D. Sharps safety - Correct Answer ✅C. Head covers Standard precautions include gloves, masks, eye protection, face shields, and sharps to avoid injury and contamination. Head covers are not impervious, are considered as part of the surgical attire, and are not part of standard precautions. Oxidized cellulose is a hemostatic agent that is absorbable but is contraindicated to be left in place after closure on: A. Bone B. Organs C. Vessels D. Ovaries - Correct Answer ✅A. Bone Oxidized cellulose left on bone inhibits regrowth and can interfere with healing. CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) When a surgical item is left in the patient, which of the following is a potential result of ensuing litigation? A. The surgical team could be found guilty of assault and battery B. The surgical team could be found liable under the doctrine of respondent superior ("let the master answer") C. The facility could be found liable under the doctrine of corporate negligence D. The surgical team could be found liable under the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur ("the thing speaks for itself") - Correct Answer ✅D. The surgical team could be found liable under the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur ("the thing speaks for itself") Res ipsa loquitur ("the thing speaks for itself") is a doctrine likely to be involved in cases involving retained surgical items, to prove medical negligence and making the litigation nearly indefensible. Corrective measures that may be implemented based on a multidisciplinary risk assessment following a variance in the CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) When using a medical interpreter to speak with a patient, the perioperative nurse should: A. Maintain eye contact with the interpreter B. Speak loudly to ensure understanding C. Talk directly to the patient D. Smile at the interpreter for reassurance - Correct Answer ✅C. Talk directly to the patient Speaking directly to the patient shows respect for the patient and allows the perioperative nurse to view body language and facial expression. The perioperative nurse should also speak slowly, use simple language, avoid raising their voice, and obtain verbal feedback to be certain the patient understands. Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting products for use in the operating room? A. Indirect costs and reimbursement potential CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) B. Reimbursement potential and group purchasing organization contract pricing C. Direct costs and group purchasing organization contract pricing D. Direct costs, indirect costs, reimbursement potential, and group purchasing organization contract pricing - Correct Answer ✅D. Direct costs, indirect costs, reimbursement potential, and group purchasing organization contract pricing The financial impact analysis should include cost of the product, replacement strategy, associated equipment, training, depreciation, reimbursement potential, and group purchasing organization (GPO) contract pricing. What is a desirable characteristic of antimicrobial skin cleansing agents? A. Broad spectrum B. Slow acting C. Abrasive D. Pathogen specific - Correct Answer ✅A. Broad spectrum CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) The following are desirable characteristics of antimicrobial skin cleansing agents: broad spectrum, fast acting, effective, non-irritating and non-sensitizing, and prolonged action (ie, leaves an antimicrobial residue on the skin to temporarily prevent growth of microorganisms). When a parent is present during induction of a 6-month-old patient, the perioperative nurse explains the sequence of events and the atmosphere of the operating room. This is done to: A. Ensure cooperation of the child B. Decrease the parent's anxiety C. Comply with the surgical consent D. Minimize anesthesia distractions - Correct Answer ✅B. Decrease the parent's anxiety During induction, a parent will watch his or her child go from being animated to lethargic to anesthetized. This gives the appearance of helplessness or death and can be upsetting to CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) A. Open the tray starting with the closest flap B. Leave the tray until it has cooled C. Open the tray and return for processing D. Consult with the surgeon - Correct Answer ✅C. Open the tray and return for processing Any sterile item that has any type of moisture on it is considered contaminated. The item(s) must be opened - to prevent others from mistakenly thinking the item is sterile - and sent back for reprocessing. When should discharge teaching begin? A. In the PACU B. During preoperative teaching C. On the day of discharge D. In the surgeon's office prior to surgery - Correct Answer ✅B. During preoperative teaching CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) The patient needs to know preoperatively when to get assistance with discharge care if needed. Which of the following is true about chromic suture? A. It is used most often as a fine suture material for the eye B. It should be used immediately after removal from the packet C. It is well suited for closing skin edges D. It is a synthetic absorbable suture produced from strands of polymers - Correct Answer ✅B. It should be used immediately after removal from the packet Surgical gut suture is wet-packaged in an alcohol solution to provide maximal pliability and should be used immediately after removal from the packet. When a gut suture is removed from its packet and is not used at once, the alcohol evaporates, which causes the strand to lose its pliability. The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) is one of the 12 agencies within the Department of Health and CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) Human Services (DHHS). They are committed to safety and quality, effectiveness, and: A. Equality B. Culture C. Public information D. Efficiency - Correct Answer ✅D. Efficiency The overall focus of AHRQ activities is: safety and quality, effectiveness, and efficiency. Safety and quality reduces the risk of harm. Effectiveness improves healthcare outcomes with the use of research. Efficiency then transforms research into practice. A body mass index (BMI) equal to or above _______ kg/m is considered obese. A. 22 kg/m B. 28 kg/m C. 30 kg/m CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) D. After waiting five minutes - Correct Answer ✅B. After the skin and hair have dried Solutions used for skin prep must dry before application of surgical drapes. Before the patient's discharge and transfer to the surgical unit, the nurse completes a final: A. Assessment B. Evaluation C. Hand-off/hand-over report D. Standardized scoring - Correct Answer ✅A. Assessment Before a patient can be discharged, the registered nurse completes a final assessment to verify patient status for discharge to the next level of care. Critical items should be processed by: CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) A. Low-level disinfection B. High-level disinfection C. Intermediate-level disinfection D. Sterilization - Correct Answer ✅D. Sterilization Critical items contact sterile tissue or the vascular system and thus require sterilization. The biggest risk associated with the supine position for obese patients is: A. Respiratory distress B. Spinal pressure C. Foot drop D. Shearing - Correct Answer ✅A. Respiratory distress Obese patients have a decreased respiratory reserve and are at an increased risk for rapid respiratory distress in the supine position. CNOR Practice Exam100 Question and Answers (latest Update 2024) What is the correct workflow traffic pattern for instrument processing? A. Decontamination area, set assembly room, sterile processing, sterile storage, and case cart packing room B. Set assembly room, sterile processing, sterile storage, case cart packing room, and decontamination area C. Case cart packing room, decontamination area, set assembly room, sterile processing, and sterile storage D. Decontamination area, sterile processing, set assembly room, sterile storage, and case cart packing room - Correct Answer ✅A. Decontamination area, set assembly room, sterile processing, sterile storage, and case cart packing room First, the instruments must be decontaminated and disinfected prior to use. Then they are assembled in sets/trays and sterilized per manufacturer's instructions for use and care. Next, they are transported to sterile storage where they are rotated out to be placed on case carts for posted procedures.