DAANCE: All modules| Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Latest 2023, Exams of Nursing

Download DAANCE: All modules| Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Latest 2023 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! DAANCE: All modules| Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Latest 2023 1. Pulmonary artery - Correct answer One of two arteries that carry venous (oxygen poor) blood from heart to lungs 2. What type of intubation is preferred with emesis with aspiration? - Correct answer ETT. LMA or combitube acceptable. 3. What emergency would a cricothyrotomy typically be performed? - Correct answer Airway obstruction 4. Atropine would be given in which emergency? - Correct answer Symptomatic bradycardia 5. Adenosine would be given in which emergency? - Correct answer SVT 6. Amiodarone would be given in which emergency? - Correct answer V. Tach 7. What medications can be given for a sever case of hyperventilation? - Correct answer Versed, Valium, or Propofol 8. PVC's are treated with which medicine? - Correct answer Lidocaine 9. Epi is given in which two emergencies? - Correct answer V. Fib and asystole 10.Max dose of epi for cardiovascular disease pt - Correct answer .04mg 11.A beta blocker would be given in which emergency? - Correct answer Hypertension Page 1 of 33 12.A fluid bolus of NS and ephedrine can be given with what emergency? - Correct answer Hypotension 13.What medications are used to treat malignant hypothermia? - Correct answer Dantrolene, IV cold saline (not Ringer's) 14.Nasopharyngeal airway - Correct answer When tongue is obstructing airway. Tube is lubricated and passed through the nose into nasal cavity. Sits in oropharynx behind tongue. Well tolerated and can be used on awake pts. 15.Oropharyngeal airway - Correct answer Also placed to position tongue in more anterior position. Often interfere with intra oral procedures. Not tolerated well with awake pts. 16.Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) - Correct answer Device that sits over top of larynx. Can be placed blindly. Does not protect against aspiration. Inflated with 30cc to create seal. 17.Endotracheal intubation - Correct answer End of tube passes through vocal cords and terminates half way between vocal cords and bifurcation of trachea. Important to listen to both lungs after placement. May or May not be cuffed. 18.Combitube - Correct answer Generally used for specific emergencies. Both cuffs inflated. 19.Pts predisposed to bronchospasm - Correct answer Allergies, asthma, copd, bronchitis Page 2 of 33 43.Facial nerve - Correct answer 7th cranial nerve. Supplies motor fibers to muscles of facial expression. 44.Trigeminal nerve - Correct answer 5th cranial nerve. Supplies sensation to teeth and jaws. 45.Vagus nerve - Correct answer 10th cranial nerve. Supplies fibers to many parts of body. (Ears, tongue, pharynx, larynx, thoracic/abdominal viscera). 46.Pulmonary veins - Correct answer Return oxygenated blood to left atrium from lungs. Only veins that carry oxygenated blood. 47.Superior vena cava - Correct answer Drains head, neck, and upper extremities into right atrium. 48.Adrenal glad - Correct answer Secretes epinephrine, norepinephrine, and corticosteroids. 49.Ectopic focus - Correct answer Displaced central point of origin for cardiac dysrhythmias. 50. Inferior alveolar artery - Correct answer Supplies blood to teeth, mandible, lower lip, and chin. 51. Inferior vena cava - Correct answer Drains lower extremities and abdominal viscera into right atrium. 52.Brachial artery - Correct answer Supplies blood to shoulder, arm, forearm, and hand. Page 5 of 33 53.Facial artery - Correct answer Supplies blood to face, tonsil, palate, and submandibular gland. 54.T's of pulseleas electrical activity - Correct answer Toxins, trauma, thrombosis, tension pneumothorax, tamponade 55.H's of pulseless electrical activity - Correct answer Hydrogen ion, hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypoglycemia, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypothermia. 56.Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) - Correct answer Normal appearing tracing, but patient has no pulse. 57.Asystole - Correct answer Cessation of all contractions. "Flat line" usually follows v. fib or v. tach. Treated with CPR. 58.Ventricular fibrillation v. fib - Correct answer Course v. fib with prominent, erratic baseline or fine v. fib with far less pronounced vacillations. No p, qrs, or t. Often precedes asystole. 59.Class III - Correct answer Pt has severe systemic disturbance or disease. 60.Class IV - Correct answer Patient has a severe, life threatening systemic disorder. 61.Class V - Correct answer Patient is moribund with little chance of survival. Surgery is done in desperation. 62.Class II - Correct answer Patient has mild to no systemic disturbance. Smokers included. Page 6 of 33 63.Class I - Correct answer Patient has no organic, biochemical, psychiatric, or physiological disturbance. 64.Beta blockers - Correct answer Reduce the rate and force of contraction of the heart. (Atenolol) 65.Vasodilators - Correct answer Reduce the pressure vasculature. (Norvasc, lisinopril, diovan) 66.Diuretics - Correct answer Reduce the volume of fluid in system. Used to treat coronary artery disease. (HCTZ, Lasix) 67.Hypertension - Correct answer Blood pressure of 140/90 or greater. (Hx of nosebleeds, headaches, and dizziness) 68.Rate of ventricles - Correct answer 20-40 69.Rate of AV node - Correct answer 40-60 70.Rate of atria - Correct answer 60-80 71.Arrest rhythms - Correct answer Ventricular dysrhythmias 72.Rate of SA node - Correct answer 60-100 73.Social history review of systems - Correct answer Patients smoking and alcohol history/current use should be noted along with illegal drug use. 74.Ventricular foci - Correct answer Located in ventricles 75.Supraventricular foci - Correct answer Located above level of ventricles in atria. Page 7 of 33 94.4 key questions to ask patient in evaluation - Correct answer Are they currently under physicians care, do they take any meds, do they have any allergies and reactions they have, review of systems. 95.Asthma - Correct answer Usually associated with allergies. Increased secretions in the muscles membranes lining bronchioles. Mucus plugs block smaller bronchi making movement of air in and out if lungs difficult. More difficulty with expiration. 96.Focus (foci) - Correct answer Site in atria or ventricles which is center for generation of impulse. 97.Cushing's disease - Correct answer Non life threatening. Hyper secretion of glucocorticoids. 98.Glucocorticoids - Correct answer Allow the body to respond to stress. 99.Addison's disease - Correct answer Life threatening. Hypo secretion of glucocorticoids. 100. Cirrhosis - Correct answer Fibrosis or scar tissue in liver. Patients with cirrhosis may have difficulty metabolizing medications and may have prolonged effects of medications. 101. Risks of liver cirrhosis - Correct answer Prolonged effects of medications, prolonged mental depression can cause hepatic coma, trouble clotting, peripheral edema, ascites. 102. Dyspnea - Correct answer Difficulty breathing or breathlessness. Page 10 of 33 103. Bronchitis - Correct answer Inflammation of the mucous membranes lining the bronchial tubes. Sx should be delayed. 104. Smoking - Correct answer Predisposes patients to laryngospasm and bronchospasm. 105. Upper respiratory infection (URI) - Correct answer Common cold or cough which produces increased secretions in airway. Best to delay surgery. Involves sinuses, nasal passages, pharynx, and larynx. 106. Diabetes mellitus - Correct answer Metabolic impairment where the body is unable to metabolize glucose properly causing increased blood glucose levels. This prevents the body from metabolizing carbs properly. 107. Type I - Correct answer Insulin dependent diabetes. 108. Type II diabetes - Correct answer Non insulin dependent 109. Considerations for diabetic patients - Correct answer Patients with diabetes do not heal as quickly and are more prone to infection. Often placed on antibiotics. 110. Fasting blood sugar (FBS) - Correct answer 125 mg/dL normal or in control 111. Insulin overdose - Correct answer Give patient sugar, candy, or sugar containing beverage. Glucose IV or glucagon IM if patient is sedated. 112. Emphysema - Correct answer Enlargement of alveolar sac in lungs along with destruction and scarring of alveoli which makes less surface area available for exchange of O2 and CO2. Smokers. Page 11 of 33 113. Risks of kidney disease - Correct answer Patients with kidney disease may have difficulty eliminating medications from their body. Sx should not be scheduled on same day as dialysis. 114. Epilepsy - Correct answer Seizures. If an incident occurs during anesthesia Valium IV can be given. 115. TIA (transient ischemic attack) - Correct answer Mini stoke. Sudden neurological loss of function with full recovery in 24 hrs. 116. Cerebrovascular accidents (CVA/stroke) - Correct answer Neurological impairment caused by disruption of blood supply to area of brain. 117. Ischemic stroke - Correct answer 85% caused by occluded blood vessel. 118. Hemorrhagic stroke - Correct answer 15% caused by ruptured artery (aneurysm) 119. Trimester to best perform surgery - Correct answer 2nd trimester. Most risk to fetus in 1st trimester. 120. Obesity - Correct answer 20 % above ideal body weight 121. [(wt in lbs/height in inches)2] x 703 122. Modifiable risk factors of stroke - Correct answer High blood pressure, diabetes, heart disease, smoking, TIA, increased red blood cells, sickle cell disorder. 123. Unmodifiable risk factors for stroke - Correct answer Male, age 55 or older, two times African American, previous stroke, heredity. Page 12 of 33 145. External respiration - Correct answer O2 is inspired and enters the body by coming in contact with blood and alveoli. 146. Pharynx - Correct answer Located between nose and trachea. 3 parts nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx 147. Synapse - Correct answer A junction between two neurons. 148. Hypoxia - Correct answer Lack of O2 149. Automaticity - Correct answer Ability of heart muscle to contract on it's own without nerve stimulation. 150. Best places to check for patients pulse - Correct answer Carotid arteries and radial arteries. 151. Trachea - Correct answer Wind pipe. 152. Neurons - Correct answer Nerve cells 153. Tachycardia - Correct answer HR above 100 bpm 154. Sensory nerves - Correct answer Receive messages from environment and and conduct messages back to CNS. 155. CAC (cardioacceleratory center) - Correct answer Located within medulla. Sympathetic fibers travel down spinal cord to SA node. When stimulated release norepinephrine with increases HR and strength of contractions. Page 15 of 33 156. Cardiac output - Correct answer Total amount of blood pumped from left ventricle in one minute. 157. Brain stem - Correct answer Pons, medulla oblongata, midrain 158. Cephalic vein - Correct answer Located on outer (lateral) aspect of forearm. 159. Epiglottis - Correct answer Soft tissue valve located at base of tongue covers larynx. Allows air into lungs and keeps foreign material out. 160. AV node - Correct answer Located between atria and ventricles. Bundle of His cause ventricles to contract. 161. Thoracic cage - Correct answer Consists of ribs, sternum, intercostal muscles, diaphragm. 162. Accessory muscles of respiration - Correct answer Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, abs which are most important. 163. Central nervous system (CNS) - Correct answer Consists of brain and spinal column 164. Median cubital vein - Correct answer Bridge between cephalic and basilic veins. 165. Sinuses - Correct answer Frontal, maxillary, sphenoid, ethmoid 166. CIC (cardioinhibitory center) - Correct answer Parasympathetic fibers reach vagus nerve and release acetylcholine which decreases HR and force of contractions. Page 16 of 33 167. Spinal column - Correct answer Cerebrum, cerebellum, medulla oblongata 168. Right ventricle - Correct answer Sends deoxygenated blood to lungs via pulmonary artery. 169. Respiration rate - Correct answer 12-16 per minute 170. QRS complex - Correct answer Ventricular depolarization 171. Left ventricle - Correct answer Pumps oxygenated blood to peripheral circulation via aorta. 172. Cricothyrotomy/coniotomy - Correct answer The passage of a large needle through the cricothyroid ligament. Used in upper airway obstruction. 173. T wave - Correct answer Ventricular repolarization 174. Angina pectoris - Correct answer Chest pain. Caused by ischemia. Can be treated with nitroglycerin. 175. Robinul or atropine - Correct answer Inhibits parasympathetic stimulation of increased saliva. Decreases secretions. 176. Erythrocytes - Correct answer Red blood cells 177. Dorsal venous plexus - Correct answer Back of hand. 178. Normal HR - Correct answer 60-100 bpm Page 17 of 33 200. Treatment for anaphylaxis - Correct answer Activate EMS, 100% O2, monitor vitals, epinephrine, Benadryl, decadron, ACLS protocol while waiting for EMS 201. Treatment for stroke (CVA) - Correct answer Activate EMS, not time if incident, monitor vitals closely, place in position of comfort, 100% O2, IV access give bolts of NS/lactated ringers solution, do not treat BP unless greater than 220/120, transport to hospital, note time 202. Treatment for mild allergic reaction - Correct answer Place patient in upright or reclined position, 100% O2, monitor vitals, Benadryl 203. Treatment for seizures - Correct answer IV access, Valium 5mg IV or medazolam 3mg, continue to monitor vitals, activate EMS 204. Treatment of syncope (fainting) - Correct answer Tredelenburg position, ABC's, head tilt chin lift, 100% O2, monitor vitals, relax/reassure patient 205. Treatment of acute adrenal deficiency - Correct answer Terminate procedure, monitor vitals, tredelenburg position if hypotensive, activate EMS,IV access, steroid administration, fluid bolus, transport to hospital 206. Treatment of hypoglycemia - Correct answer Activate EMS, IV access, measure blood sugar with glucometer, 1 amp of glucose, IV infusion of dextrose or glucogan IM if no IV 207. Treatment of intra arterial injection - Correct answer Activate EMS, secure catheter DO NOT REMOVE, 10 cc lidocaine w/o epinephrine, ice pack to limb Page 20 of 33 208. Propofol - Correct answer Mimics barbiturates. Rapidly redistributed and metabolized due to being highly bound to fat.Does not tend to predispose to laryngospasm and has antiemetic properties. Discard after 12 hrs. 209. Treatment for high blood pressure 200/100 - Correct answer Terminate procedure, check monitor function, attempt to determine cause, record vitals every 5 min, consider EMS, IV access, beta blockers (labetalol, esmolol, atenolol) 210. Treatment for asystole/PEA - Correct answer CPR, epinephrine IV may repeat every 3-5 min, one dose of vasopressin may be given to replace 1st and 2nd dose of epi 211. Treatment of ventricular fibrillation - Correct answer Activate EMS, CPR/AED, cont CPR and establish IV, give epinephrine 1 mg every 3-5 min, CPR/repeat shocks as above, may give single dose vasopressin to replace 1st and 2nd dose epi, amiodarone, lidocaine, and magnesium considered as well. 212. Treatment of ventricular tachycardia - Correct answer 100% O2, amiodarone 150mg IV over 10 min, prepare for synchronous cardio version 213. Treatment for premature ventricular contractions (PVC) - Correct answer Try to determine cause (ie hypoxia) and correct, lidocaine IV repeat every 5-10 min until 3mg/kg administered 214. Treatment of supraventricular tachycardia - Correct answer Place patient in supine position, adenosine 6mg, after 1-2 min adenosine 12mg, 3rd dose given in 1-2 min as needed. 215. MONA - Correct answer Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin Page 21 of 33 216. Treatment for symptomatic bradycardia - Correct answer Terminate procedure, 100% O2, establish IV, atropine, may need ER for transcutaneous pacing. 217. Treatment for heart attack - Correct answer Activate EMS, closely observe vitals, 100% O2 via mask, make pt comfortable/reassure, attach AED/defibrillator, aspirin 325mg, establish IV with normal saline slow drip, morphine 2-4 mg every 5-10 min 218. Symptoms of heart attack - Correct answer Chest pain, anxiety, weakness, sweating, cardiac dysrhythmias, drop in blood pressure. 219. Black - Correct answer Nitrogen 220. Yellow - Correct answer Compressed air 221. Topical anesthetics - Correct answer Benzocaine and lidocaine. 222. Treatment for angina attack - Correct answer 100% O2 via mask, nitroglycerin under tongue 3 times every 5 min, if not relieved by third dose pt is having a heart attack, monitor pt, loosen tight clothing, put pt in comfortable position. 223. Hypnosis - Correct answer Loss of consciousness. Patients want to lose consciousness and feel that they are asleep. (Propofol, brevital) 224. Relaxation and immobility - Correct answer Essential for patient to be relaxed and immobile during procedure. (Versed, Propofol, brevital, ketamine) 225. Treatment for hyperventilation - Correct answer Terminate treatment and remove foreign bodies from mouth and surgical instruments from sight, maintain Page 22 of 33 243. General anesthesia (GA) - Correct answer The pt is not arousable even with painful stimulation. Airway intervention is required and positive pressure ventilation may be required. CV function may be impaired. 244. Meds that help with nausea - Correct answer Antienimetics. Antihistamines, antipsychotics, reglan, zofran, corticosteroids, benzodiazepines 245. Benadryl - Correct answer Primary drug used in mild allergic reactions. 246. Treatment for bronchospasm - Correct answer 100% O2, albuterol, atrovent, epinephrine, intubation/ventilation, steroid injection, Benadryl, activate EMS. 247. Deep sedation analgesia - Correct answer The patient cannot be easily aroused bit has purposeful response after repeated or painful stimulation. Pt may require maintenance I'd airway and ventilation but CV function usually maintained. 248. Moderate sedation conscious sedation - Correct answer Purposeful response to verbal or light tactile stimulation with no compromise of the airway and spontaneous ventilation. CV function usually maintained. 249. Laryngospasm - Correct answer Protective reflex of vocal cords which attempt to prevent passage or foreign matter to lungs. Crowing sounds or labored breathing from patient. 250. Treatment for laryngospasm - Correct answer 100% O2, establish proper head position, suction with tonsillar, positive pressure O2 via bag/mask, succinylcholine. Page 25 of 33 251. Treatment for airway obstruction. Foreign bodies. - Correct answer 100% O2, tredelenburg position, retraction of tongue with gauze, forceps, or suture, suctioning of oropharynx. 252. Advanced: 253. Abdominal thrusts, direct laryngoscopy, cricothyrotomy. 254. Phenergan - Correct answer Potentiates narcotic effects. 255. Vistaril - Correct answer Potentiates narcotics and barbiturates. Useful in sedation technique. 256. Anticholinergics - Correct answer Decrease secretion of salivary glands. Block vagus nerve and can cause tachycardia. (Robinul, atropine, scopolamine). 257. Minimal sedation (anxiolytics) - Correct answer Normal response to verbal stimulation with airway reflexes, ventilation, and CV function unaffected. 258. Volume of one carpule of local anesthetic - Correct answer 1.7 mL 259. Mg/cc * 1.7 to get concentration. 260. Flumazenil - Correct answer Like narcan but used to reverse effects of benzodiazepam derivatives. 261. Narcan - Correct answer Used in treating respiratory depressant and sedative effects of narcotics. Most widely used narcotic agonist antagonist. 262. Mallampati class II - Correct answer Visualization of soft palate, fauces, and uvula. 263. Mallampati class I - Correct answer Visualization of soft palate, fauces, uvula, anterior/posterior pillars. Page 26 of 33 264. Mallampati class III - Correct answer Visualization of soft palate and base of uvula. 265. Mallampati class IV - Correct answer Soft palate not visible at all. 266. Which monitor tracks both ventilation and circulation? - Correct answer Pulse oximeter 267. Capnograph/capnometer - Correct answer Monitors ventilation in real time by measuring the level of O2 the patient exhales. 268. 1% solution equals - Correct answer One gram of medication in 100% mL solution. [1g also = 10oomg] 269. Concentration % - Correct answer Mg/cc 270. Receptor sites - Correct answer Specialized sites on ion channels to which natural neurotransmitter substances or drugs attach usually leading to opening of channel for passage of positively and negatively charged ions. 271. Drug reversal agents - Correct answer Narcan and flumazenil 272. Additional desirable attributes of anesthetics - Correct answer Maintenance if homeostasis, rapid, smooth, comfortable induction, lack of post up nausea/vomiting, retention of reflexes to prevent aspiration, feeling of well being post op, rapid recovery, easily adapted for use in children and seniors, easy administration, cost effective. Page 27 of 33 291. Analgesia - Correct answer Insensitivity to pain. Patient feels no pain during surgical procedure. (Fentanyl, local, ketamine). 292. Basic requisites of an anesthesia - Correct answer Lack if toxicity, non flammable, non addictive, possess minimal allergenicity. 293. Rapid redistribution - Correct answer Release of drug from it's initial receptor site and it's movement through bloodstream to other body structures. 294. Pharmacodynamics - Correct answer Effects drugs have on various body systems. 295. Morphine - Correct answer Major effects on CNS. Major action analgesia, but also causes euphoria, drowsiness, and sedation. Side effects include nausea, respiratory depression and hypotension. 296. Demerol - Correct answer Same pharmacological effects as morphine. 297. Pharmacokinetics - Correct answer Effects body has on drugs 298. Homeostasis - Correct answer The body's normal state which there is minimal variation in respiration and circulation. 299. Fentanyl - Correct answer Rapid onset of action. Profound respiratory depressant. High doses may cause chest wall rigidity. 300. Vital centers - Correct answer Centers in brainstem that control physiological processes ie blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate. Page 30 of 33 301. Narcotic agonist antagonists - Correct answer Standard narcan. Narcotics reversible with drugs that antagonize effects. All relieve pain and provide some degree if sedation. (Narcan, talwin, stadol). 302. Green - Correct answer Oxygen 303. Blue - Correct answer Nitrous oxide 304. Opioid receptor sites - Correct answer Respond to natural opioids produced in body ie endorphins. Ketamine exerts some effects through these receptors. 305. Central sites - Correct answer Responsible for euphoric feeling that accompanies opioid administration. 306. Narcotic receptors - Correct answer 3 levels of activity. Opioids affect transmission of painful impulses initially at site of injury, then spinal cord on the way to brain, and finally at receptor sites in brain. 307. Relay center - Correct answer An ovoid structure in central portion of brain that relays sensory input to cerebral cortex. 308. Room air - Correct answer 20% oxygen 309. Anxiolytic - Correct answer Anxiety reducing. 310. Neo-cobefrin - Correct answer Vasoconstrictor compounded with marcaine. Less cardiac and CNS stimulation than epinephrine. 311. Hypnotic - Correct answer Sleep inducing. Page 31 of 33 312. Wakefulness system - Correct answer System in brain that maintains the state of consciousness or wakefulness. 313. Epinephrine - Correct answer Sympatho- mimetic amine (mimics sympathetic nervous system) with pronounced cardiovascular effects. 314. Symptoms of stroke - Correct answer Paralysis, localized weakness, headache, numbness, slurred speech, inability to speak (aphasia), memory loss, dizziness, blindness to one eye, confusion, loss of consciousness, double vision, ataxia. 315. Malignant hypothermia symptoms - Correct answer Genetically transmitted myopathy that is triggered by some inhalation agents and succinylcholine. First sign is tachycardia followed by massager muscle rigidity, elevates temperature, carbon dioxide retention, total body rigidity, or lethal arrhythmias. 316. Symptoms of syncope - Correct answer Syncope is a loss of consciousness due to sudden sharp, transient drop in blood pressure. This is caused by the shunting of blood flow to extremities by sympathetic nervous system which causes blood to pool in extremities decreasing blood flow to brain. Symptoms include diaphoresis, pallor, nausea, light headedness, and tachycardia 317. Symptoms of acute adrenal insufficiency - Correct answer Hypotension, pallor, diaphoresis, nausea, tachycardia, headache, extreme fatigue, high fever, shaking, abdominal pain and confusion. 318. Hyperventilation - Correct answer When patient is breathing at a rate faster than his or her normal breathing pattern or breathing more deeply than the Page 32 of 33