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DAVITA Exam Final Exam New Latest Version Updated 2023-2024 with All Questions, Exams of Nursing

DAVITA Exam Final Exam New Latest Version Updated 2023-2024 with All Questions from Actual Past Exam and 100% Correct Answers

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2023/2024

Available from 10/06/2023

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Download DAVITA Exam Final Exam New Latest Version Updated 2023-2024 with All Questions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! DAVITA Exam Final Exam New Latest Version Updated 2023-2024 with All Questions from Actual Past Exam and 100% Correct Answers what is the purpose of UF profiling? -------- Correct Answer -------- change the way fluid is remodeled during the tx and allows for vascular refilling Which of the following is a basic principle of patient self-management? a) focusing primarily on dialysis prescription and adherence to treatment b) dealing with the consequences of illness, rather than just the physical disease c) taking on responsibility of the medical management of the illness d) allowing care providers to help with the day-to-day management of the disease -------- Correct Answer -------- b) dealing with the consequences of the illness, rather than just the physical disease Andragogy takes into account a) that adults desire to take responsibility for what they learn b) that adults are more set in their ways and need more direction than children c) the adults recognize the instructor's expertise and responsibility for the curriculum d) that adults depend on the instructor's instructions when learning complex skills -------- Correct Answer -------- a) that adults desire to take responsibility for what they learn Motivational Interviewing a) is based on the healthcare provider's motives to assist patients in making good healthcare decisions b) allows healthcare providers to motivate patient's to making better healthcare decisions c) assists healthcare providers in confronting patients harmful beliefs d) helps healthcare providers understand the patient's concerns and perceptions about living with ESRD -------- Correct Answer -------- d) helps healthcare providers understand the patient's concerns and perception about living with ESRD The definition of health literacy includes a) the degree to which individuals understand basic health information b) the degree to which individuals are knowledgeable in healthcare terminology c) the degree to which individuals an perform appropriate self-care d) the degree to which individuals understand their rights and healthcare consumers ---- ---- Correct Answer -------- a) the degree to which individuals understand basic health information healthcare professionals can help patients with low health literacy by: a) asking patients if they can read before giving them written instructions b) organizing information so that the most important points stand out and repeating this information c) asking simple questions that a patient can answer with a "yes" or "no" -------- Correct Answer -------- b) organizing information so that the most important points stand out and repeating this information Educational tips for visual learners include: a) providing soft background music b) using lively hand gestures when delivering long lectures c) allowing plenty of time for the patients to talk d) selecting quiet surroundings -------- Correct Answer -------- d) selecting quiet surrounding Educational tips for auditory learners include: a) providing background music of the patient's choice b) incorporating the patient's secondary learning style c) using word associations and mnemonics d) minimizing use of written materials -------- Correct Answer -------- c) use word association and mnemonics What does DARN stand for? -------- Correct Answer -------- desire, ability, reason, need FYI from Meghan: know the questions at the end of the motivational interviewing hand out (one of the PCTs at Red Hawk told me this_) -------- Correct Answer -------- fyi when should the communication style "directing" be used? -------- Correct Answer -------- best used when training to perform procedures what are the three core communication skills to be used w/in the communication style? - ------- Correct Answer -------- asking listening informing what is the righting reflex? -------- Correct Answer -------- automatic intervention of a healthcare practitioner who observes pt doing something detrimental to his/her health What is reflective listening? -------- Correct Answer -------- includes main aspects of what the pt said during the entire communication what are the four transport mechanisms that play a role in hemodialysis? -------- Correct Answer -------- ultrafiltration convection diffusion osmosis what is important when monitoring pt weight and BP? -------- Correct Answer -------- keep patients wet and avoid hypotensive episodes b/c it can cause kidney injury what do you need to consider in regards to their vascular access? -------- Correct Answer -------- follow P&P to prevent infections why is it important to know what caused your patient's CRF? -------- Correct Answer ----- --- to inquire about possible problems during data collection and assessment how often do we screen for Hep C? -------- Correct Answer -------- yearly for patients and teammates tips to remember for successful lab draws -------- Correct Answer -------- 1) follow order of lab draws to prevent specimens from being contaminated with other tube additives 2) double labeling tubes prohibits processing rules for spinning samples -------- Correct Answer -------- only spin tube of same kind, size, and fill level and should be placed opposite of each other systemic effects of CRF what would you advise for a pt who complains of dry, itchy, skin -------- Correct Answer -------- hyperfatty soaps and lotions systemic effects of CRF- what would you advise for a patient who complains of peripheral neuropathy? -------- Correct Answer -------- no walking barefoot, check water temp before baths what would you advise for a patient who complains of psychological problems? -------- Correct Answer -------- depression, brain fogginess what are the foru key elements affected in CKD-MBD -------- Correct Answer -------- Ca2+ Phosphorus Calcitrol Parathyroid what are symptoms of CKD-MBD in addition to bone disease? -------- Correct Answer --- ----- soft tissue classification what treatment factors decrease K in the Kt/v to decrease? -------- Correct Answer ------- - not waiting 3-5 minutes after heparin, decreasing BFR, DFR, and BVP what factors influence "V" in Kt/v -------- Correct Answer -------- accurate data entry by nurses in snappy, sex age, weight, and amputation what are the needle gauges and prescribed blood flow rates? -------- Correct Answer ---- ---- they are inversely related 17g 200-250 15g 250-350 15g 350-400 14 g 400 - 450 what is the procedure for post BUN lab draw? -------- Correct Answer -------- if pt wants off early, still draw the labs and educate patient about the risks. Redraw next time a pt runs full tx to show pt difference what lab draw mistakes would falsely increase Kt/V -------- Correct Answer -------- not waiting the full 15 seconds What is important when monitoring weight and BP in AKI patients? -------- Correct Answer -------- keep patients wet (hydrated) and avoid hypotensive episodes = cause renal ischemia What do you need to consider in regards to CVCs? -------- Correct Answer -------- follow P&P b/c the risk of infection is so high Why is it important to know what caused a patients chronic renal failure? -------- Correct Answer -------- we need to know about possible problems during data collection and assessment What is the role of the PCT prior to tx initiation? -------- Correct Answer -------- assessment of pt if any abnormal findings or if the pt is in an acute condition what happens in the BP cuff is the wrong size -------- Correct Answer -------- loose BP--> high reading tight BP --> low reading why is it so bad to squeeze the BP cuff if its connected to the machine? -------- Correct Answer -------- it can damage the internal BP mechanism Why is it so important that we document in the medical record? -------- Correct Answer -- ------ it provides data for continuity and planning of care when do pre-treatment data collection and assessment take place? -------- Correct Answer -------- collection: before tx assessment: w/in 1 hr if pt is stable when is post-treatment data collection and assessment performed? -------- Correct Answer -------- post treatment-- not before treatment or when they are disconnected what are the consequences of poor or incomplete documentation -------- Correct Answer -------- can open attack on your care What are the six items needed in charting meds? -------- Correct Answer -------- 1. med/dosage 2. date/time 3. route 4. reason (remember this!) 5. pt response 6. signature What are the 5 Ws to be used when completing an AOR? -------- Correct Answer -------- who what when where why how What are the 4 consequences of sodium loading during dialysis? -------- Correct Answer -------- 1. increased thirst 2. increased fluid intake Which of the following statements is NOT an underlying assumption of self management? a) regardless of the chronic condition, people have similar challenges with self- management b) people can learn the skills needed to better manage their diseases day to day c) people with complex chronic conditions such as ESRD have more difficulties with successful self-management d) people who understand and take control of their condition will be healthier and happier -------- Correct Answer -------- c) people with complex chronic conditions such as ESRD have more difficulties with successful self-management educational tips for kinesthetic learners include: a) taking short breaks allowing your patient to get up and walk around b) allowing the patient to doodle during long lectures c) using outlines, pictures, graphs, charts, and diagrams whenever possible d) letting the patient watch videos -------- Correct Answer -------- a) take short breaks and allow your patients to get up and walk around What is the 2-4-8 rule for teaching patients complex skills? -------- Correct Answer -------- 2 hours: maximum length of uninterrupted training 4 hours-- maximum total of training per day 8 days-- minimum number of training days Organ donation in the US adheres to a) the "opt-in" principle b) presumed consent -------- Correct Answer -------- a) the "opt-in" principle Which of the following is NOT a task of organ procurement organizations a) recover the organ from deceased organs for transplantation b) collaborate w/ health care professionals to approach families of potential organ donors c) manage the national transplant waiting list, matching donors to recipients d) educate the public about organ donation -------- Correct Answer -------- I think it's b, but I'm not completely sure What is the kidney donor profile index? -------- Correct Answer -------- it is a measure of how long a deceased donor kidney is expected to function relative to all othb) improved immunosuppressive therapy over the last years has made it possible to achieve good outcomes, even if there is a zero antigen match between the donor and the recipient, especially if the kidney comes from a living donorer kidneys recovered in the US How do organs recovered from a deceased non-beating donor affect graft function and survival? -------- Correct Answer -------- while there is a higher incidence of delayed graft function, there is no difference in the graft survival and 5 and 10 years A wife willing to donate a kidney to her husband is considered a _____? -------- Correct Answer -------- non-related living donor an active infection is considered _______ to transplantation -------- Correct Answer ------ -- An absolute contraindication Which statement is true regarding histocompatibility testing? a) improved immunosuppressive therapy over the last 10 years has made histocompatibility testing unnecessary b) improved immunosuppressive therapy over the last years has made it possible to achieve good outcomes, even if there is a zero antigen match between the donor and the recipient, especially if the kidney comes from a living donor c) the histocompatibility antigen test requires an antigen match of at least 4 to guarantee a successful transplantation outcome d) the histocompatibility antigen test is only required for patients with ESRD due to an autoimmune disease -------- Correct Answer -------- b) improved immunosuppressive therapy over the last years has made it possible to achieve good outcomes, even if there is a zero antigen match between the donor and the recipient, especially if the kidney comes from a living donor Your patient is active on the deceased kidney donor waiting list. Due to an acute drop in her hemoglobin, she was admitted to the hospital to receive two units of RBCs. What should you do in regards to her transplantations status -------- Correct Answer -------- Not a 100% sure but I think its.... inform the transplant program of the transfusion as the patient could have become sensitized to the foreign HLAs Crossmatching Is final pre-transplant process performed to determined if the transplant recipient's immune system will reject the donor kidney. What does a negative result mean? -------- Correct Answer -------- The recipient's immune system does not react to the organ and the transplant can be performed What does creating "mixed chiasm" mean in the context of transplant research? -------- Correct Answer -------- blending the donor's and recipient's immune system to create an environment where they donated kidney is recognized as the body's own tissue what is ultrafiltration? -------- Correct Answer -------- a controlled fluid removal by manipulation of hydrostatic pressure what is convection -------- Correct Answer -------- solids move with water, solutes are dragged across the semipermeable membrane with fluid what is diffusion? -------- Correct Answer -------- the movement of solute particles only from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration what is osmosis? -------- Correct Answer -------- the movement of fluids from area of low concentration to high concentration what are the kidneys' endocrine functions -------- Correct Answer -------- Renin--> BP contro epogen/erythropoietin --> make RBCs Vitamin D --> calcitriol --> used to treat mineral bone diseaese what is the function of bicarbonate in the dialysate solution? -------- Correct Answer ------ -- it buffers the acid what is the function of bicarbonate when it diffuses into the patient's blood? -------- Correct Answer -------- it helps normalize the body's pH How is mineral bone disease treated? -------- Correct Answer -------- MBD treated w/ binders before eating that bind to phosphate and help excrete it in stool, also treated in center w/ vit-D what are the consequences of organ stunning? -------- Correct Answer -------- hypotension can have many adverse affects including impaired tissue profusion of vital organs and organ injury what is the proper intervention for muscle cramps -------- Correct Answer -------- stretch, turn off UF, give saline if needed what is the definition of fever and chills? -------- Correct Answer -------- any temp greater than 100 F or any 2 degrees over baseline with symptoms what is the definition of a pyrogen reaction -------- Correct Answer -------- endotoxins in H2O w/in first 45-75 (approx. 1 hr)
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