EMS Final Exam Questions With Verified Answers Latest Update, Exams of Nursing

Download EMS Final Exam Questions With Verified Answers Latest Update and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] EMS Final Exam Questions With Verified Answers Latest Update 1. A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? A) Liver B) Kidney C) Pancreas D) Gallbladder 2. A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: A) aphasia. B) dysarthria. C) dysphagia. D) paraplegia. 3. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: A) shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. B) a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C) a marked increase in the exhalation phase. D) labored breathing with reduced tidal volume. 4. Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the “M” in the SAMPLE history? A) “Have you ever had any major surgeries?” B) “How long have you had your chest pain?” C) “How much Tylenol do you take each day?” D) “When was the last time that you ate a meal?” 5. When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: A) count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy. B) count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by 4. C) count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by 2. D) count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading. 6. Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is MOST correct? A) Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets. B) Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] C) Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. D) Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia. 7. Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? A) Adrenaline B) Epinephrine C) Diphenhydramine D) Acetaminophen [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 14. Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A) the patient adamantly denies neck pain. B) lateral immobilization has been applied. C) it causes a problem managing the ABCs. D) sensory and motor functions remain intact. 15. Shock is the result of: A) hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. B) the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C) temporary dysfunction of a major organ. D) widespread constriction of the blood vessels. 16. The is a prominent bony mass that is located at the base of the skull and posterior to the ear. A) orbital socket B) sphenoid fossa C) zygomatic arch D) mastoid process 17. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the: A) testicles. B) gallbladder. C) urinary bladder. D) fallopian tubes. 18. Ketone production is the result of: A) acidosis when blood glucose levels are low. B) blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL. C) fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable. D) rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane. 19. Your partner, a veteran EMT-B who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? A) Remain quiet and simply request another partner. B) Report the incident to your EMS medical director. C) Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. D) Tell your partner that he must seek professional help. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 20. You respond to an office building to find a middle-aged male in cardiac arrest. Coworkers are performing CPR and state that the patient has been down for approximately 10 minutes. You attach the AED, push the analyze button, and receive a “shock advised” message. You should: A) ensure that nobody is touching the patient and then defibrillate. B) continue CPR for 1 minute and reanalyze the patient's rhythm. C) transport immediately and request a paramedic unit rendezvous. D) call medical control and request permission to stop resuscitation. 21. Vesicant agents include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) sarin. B) lewisite. C) sulfur mustard. D) phosgene oxime. 22. You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate that is “sick.” When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: A) apply a pulse oximeter. B) request a paramedic unit. C) provide assisted ventilation. D) obtain his blood pressure. 23. The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with head trauma is: A) fracturing the septum. B) damaging the turbinates. C) penetrating the cranium. D) causing severe bleeding. 24. Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: A) regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity. B) alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions. C) pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions. D) a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin. 25. Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as: A) high levels of protein in the patient's urine. B) hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy. C) seizures that result from severe hypertension. D) a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 26. In addition to external bleeding, the MOST significant risk that an open soft tissue injury exposes a patient to is: [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 33. Pain felt at a location other than its origin is called: A) referred pain. B) radiating pain. C) visceral pain. D) remote pain. 34. While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to: A) disregard all traffic control signals. B) drive as fast as the department allows. C) carefully exceed the posted speed limit. D) proceed through red lights without stopping. 35. The officer is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. A) triage B) medical C) treatment D) transportation 36. Erosion of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in: A) ileus. B) an ulcer. C) appendicitis. D) cholecystitis. 37. Which of the following statements regarding the incident command system (ICS) is MOST correct? A) The ICS is only activated if a natural disaster occurs. B) The ICS is designed for use in daily EMS operations. C) The EMS system developed and implemented the ICS. D) The ICS is only effective during a mass casualty incident. 38. Your BEST protection against legal liability when a competent patient refuses EMS care and transport is to: A) advise medical control of the situation. B) err on the side of caution and transport. C) ensure the family is aware of the risks. D) thoroughly document the entire event. 39. A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your initial assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] A) continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] B) remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C) insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. D) select a smaller sized oral airway and attempt to insert it. 40. Which of the following MOST accurately describes a focal seizure? A) A seizure that begins in one extremity B) A blank stare without muscle contractions C) A seizure that is not preceded by an aura D) Generalized seizures without incontinence 41. A frostbitten foot can be identified by the presence of: A) gross deformity. B) soft, smooth skin. C) mottling and blisters. D) blanching of the skin. 42. Normally, no more than two patients are placed in the same ambulance; however, if severe weather conditions exist, a patient may be transported in the passenger seat of the ambulance. A) red-tagged B) black-tagged C) green- tagged D) yellow-tagged 43. The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: A) on the dorsum of the foot. B) above the lateral malleolus. C) in the fossa behind the knee. D) behind the medial malleolus. 44. A 26-year-old woman complains of a stabbing pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. She states that her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago and that she had pelvic inflammatory disease approximately 3 months ago. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A) an acute appendicitis. B) an intrapelvic infection. C) a spontaneous abortion. D) an ectopic pregnancy. 45. Botulinum is: A) an acute viral infection. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] D) never become involved in the move, just direct the move. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 52. While on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should: A) tell your partner to quit kidding around and focus on his or her job. B) warn your partner that you will report him or her if it happens again. C) notify law enforcement personnel and have your partner arrested. D) tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor. 53. Which of the following is an example of a symptom? A) Cyanosis B) Headache C) Tachycardia D) Hypertension 54. The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the: A) pancreas. B) gallbladder. C) small intestine. D) large intestine. 55. A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? A) 100% oxygen administration B) Full immobilization of her spine C) Applying and inflating the PASG D) Rapid transport to a trauma center 56. Patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything by mouth because: A) it will create referred pain and obscure the diagnosis. B) food will rapidly travel through the digestive system. C) a full stomach may make emergency surgery dangerous. D) digestion prevents accurate auscultation of bowel sounds. 57. Patients with rib fractures will commonly: A) breathe rapidly and shallowly. B) take a series of deep breaths. C) prefer to lie in a supine position. D) develop a sucking chest wound. 58. To assess a patient's general temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the: A) neck. B) chest. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] C) abdomen. D) forehead. 59. Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process? A) “It is because of our lousy healthcare system that I developed this brain tumor.” B) “I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate.” C) “I understand that my death is inevitable and am ready to die when the time comes.” D) “The doctors must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy.” 60. Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? A) Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will B) Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury C) Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D) Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMT-Bs 61. Maintaining a “cushion of safety” when operating an ambulance means: A) remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. B) driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. C) driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 miles per hour. D) keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots. 62. Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: A) retinitis. B) cataracts. C) glaucoma. D) conjunctivitis. 63. What medication form does oral glucose come in? A) Gel B) Liquid C) Suspension D) Fine powder 64. Syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended to treat patients who have ingested a poisonous substance because it: A) has been linked to hypotension. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] D) Diaphoresis 71. Any unconscious trauma patient should be assumed to have: A) a history of diabetes mellitus. B) an accompanying spinal injury. C) a severe intracranial hemorrhage. D) internal bleeding in the abdomen. 72. In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A) an air embolism. B) a spinal fracture. C) an ischemic stroke. D) nerve fiber damage. 73. It is MOST important for the EMT-B to remember that suicidal patients may: A) inject illicit drugs. B) be self-destructive. C) be homicidal as well. D) have a definitive plan. 74. You respond to a call for a female pedestrian that has been struck by a car. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform an initial assessment. She is unconscious, has ineffective breathing, and bloody secretions in her mouth. You should: A) assist ventilations with a BVM device. B) quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway. C) assess the rate and quality of her pulse. D) immediately suction her oropharynx. 75. Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: A) weapons of mass destruction are distributed. B) chemical and biological weapons are stockpiled. C) antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. D) chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. 76. Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? A) Rectal B) Ingestion C) Inhalation D) Sublingual [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 77. The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: A) femoral arteries. B) peroneal arteries. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] C) anterior tibial arteries. D) posterior tibial arteries. 78. Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: A) hip. B) pelvis. C) femur. D) humerus. 79. When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or do not resuscitate (DNR) order cannot be located, you should: A) begin resuscitation at once. B) contact medical control first. C) determine the patient's illness. D) notify the coroner immediately. 80. A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A) is wearing only a lap belt. B) remains within the vehicle. C) experiences multiple impacts. D) is ejected or partially ejected. 81. Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: A) elevate her legs 6” to 8” and cover her with a blanket. B) firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. C) carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. D) place her legs together and position her on her left side. 82. The components of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) are: A) appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation. B) mental status, heart rate, and systolic blood pressure. C) skin condition, respiratory rate, and level of alertness. D) activity, respiratory quality, and level of consciousness. 83. You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should: A) begin assisting her ventilations with a BVM. B) apply a pulse oximeter and obtain vital signs. C) administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] B) provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. C) request a paramedic to give her a sedative drug. D) position her on her left side and transport at once. 90. Insulin shock will MOST likely develop if a patient: A) takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. B) markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. C) eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D) misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. 91. Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A) Motor B) Central C) Somatic D) Sensory 92. What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma? A) Tongue-jaw lift B) Jaw-thrust maneuver C) Head-tilt chin-lift D) Head-tilt neck-lift 93. The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: A) damage to the eyes. B) airway compromise. C) cervical spine injury. D) mandibular immobility. 94. The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting: A) when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask. B) if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions. C) if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required. D) when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth. 95. An incarcerated hernia is one that: A) spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. B) can be pushed back in the body cavity to which it belongs. C) loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. D) cannot be pushed back within its respective body cavity. [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] 96. In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: [Type here] [Type here] [Type here] A) requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs. B) is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. C) occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. D) is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure. 97. Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: A) worsen the pain. B) alleviate the pain. C) initiate the pain. D) change the pain. 98. A normal pulse should feel: A) strong and slow. B) bounding and rapid. C) thready and regular. D) strong and regular. 99. When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position, but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: A) assault. B) battery. C) negligence. D) abandonment. 100. The MOST effective way to gain a patient's trust when he or she is communicating with you is to: A) repeatedly ask questions for clarification. B) ask the same questions to every patient. C) document the patient's words verbatim. D) maintain eye contact and actively listen.