Understanding the Impact of Bond Yields on Rates and Markets, Exams of Economics

Download Understanding the Impact of Bond Yields on Rates and Markets and more Exams Economics in PDF only on Docsity! FINAL EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS 1) If a $12,000 coupon bond has a coupon rate of 8 percent, then the coupon payment every year is A) $480. B) $240. C) $48. D) $960 E) none of the above. 2) Which of the following are true for the current yield? A) The current yield is defined as the yearly coupon payment divided by the price of the security. B) The current yield and the yield to maturity always move together. C) The formula for the current yield is identical to the formula describing the yield to maturity for a discount bond. D) All of the above are true. E) Only A and B of the above are true. 3) The return on a 5 percent coupon bond that initially sells for $1,000 and sells for $1,100 next year is A) 10 percent. B) 5 percent. C) 15 percent. D) 14 percent. 4) A fully amortized loan is another name for A) a fixed-payment loan. B) a simple loan. C) an unsecured loan. D) a commercial loan. 5) In Japan in 1998, interest rates were negative for a short period of time because investors found it convenient to hold six-month bills as a store of value because A) the bills still returned more than cash. B) the bills were denominated in small amounts and could be stored electronically. C) these bills sold at a discount from face value. D) the bills were denominated in large amounts and could be stored electronically. E) of the high inflation rate. 6) Comparing a discount bond and a coupon bond with the same maturity, A) the discount bond has the greater effective maturity. B) the coupon bond has the greater effective maturity. C) both bonds have the same effective maturity. D) effective maturity cannot be calculated for a discount bond. E) effective maturity cannot be calculated for a coupon bond. 7) For a bond selling for $4000, with a par value of $5000 and a coupon rate of 10 percent, the current yield is A) 10 percent. B) 5 percent. C) 25 percent. D) 20 percent. E) 12.5 percent. Figure 5-1 8) In Figure 5-1, factors that could cause the supply of bonds to increase (shift to the right) include: A) an increase in government budget deficits. B) a decrease in expected inflation. C) expectations of more profitable investment opportunities. D) all of the above. E) only A and C of the above. 9) Factors that decrease the demand for bonds include A) a decrease in the inflation rate. B) an increase in the liquidity of stocks. C) an increase in the volatility of stock prices. D) all of the above. E) only A and B of the above. 10) In Keynes's liquidity preference framework, as the expected return on bonds increases (holding everything else unchanged), the expected return on money _____, causing the demand for _____ to fall. A) rises; money B) falls; money C) falls; bonds D) rises; bonds 11) A fall in the savings rate will ______ interest rates, and ________ investment in capital goods A) decrease; decrease B) increase; increase C) increase; decrease D) decrease; not affect E) decrease; increase 12) A lower level of income causes the demand for money to _____ and the demand curve for money to shift to the _____. A) decrease; left B) increase; left C) increase; right D) decrease; right 13) Factors that decrease the demand for bonds include A) an increase in the liquidity of stocks. B) an increase in the inflation rate. C) a decrease in the volatility of stock prices. D) 10%. E) less than 5%. 29) Which of the following is the primary source of external funds used by American businesses to finance their activities? A) Bonds and commercial paper B) Other loans C) Bank loans D) Stock 30) Because of the adverse selection problem, A) lenders typically require collateral before making a loan. B) lenders may choose to lend only to those who "do not need the money." C) lenders may refuse loans to individuals with low net worth. D) all of the above. 31) A key finding of the economic analysis of financial structure is that A) the existence of the free-rider problem for traded securities helps to explain why banks play a predominant role in financing the activities of businesses. B) economists do not have a very good explanation for why securities markets are so heavily regulated. C) given the great extent to which securities markets are regulated, free-rider problems are not of significant economic consequence in these markets. D) while free-rider problems limit the extent to which securities markets finance some business activities, nevertheless the majority of funds going to businesses are channeled through securities markets. 32) Adverse selection is a problem associated with equity and debt contracts arising from A) the lender's relative lack of information about the borrower's potential returns and risks of his investment activities. B) the borrower's lack of incentive to seek a loan for highly risky investments. C) the lender's inability to legally require sufficient collateral to cover a 100% loss if the borrower defaults. D) none of the above. 33) Financial intermediaries provide their customers with A) reduced transactions costs. B) greater liquidity. C) increased diversification and reduced risk. D) all of the above. E) only B and C of the above. 34) Financial systems in developing and transition countries face several difficulties that keep them from operating efficiently, including: A) self-serving governments that use their financial systems to direct credit to favored sectors of the economy by setting interest rates at artificially low levels. B) poorly developed legal systems that make it extremely difficult for lenders to enforce restrictive covenants. C) under-developed regulatory systems that retard the provision of adequate information to the marketplace. D) all of the above. 35) The fact that the largest, most established corporations are the most likely to raise funds by issuing securities is know as A) the pecking order hypothesis. B) the "only those that don't need the money can borrow" hypothesis. C) the "too-big-to-fail" hypothesis. D) the "larger is better" hypothesis. E) the efficient markets hypothesis. 36) In the absence of regulation, banks would probably hold A) too much capital, reducing the efficiency of the payments system. B) too little capital. C) too much capital, reducing the profitability of banks. D) none of the above. 37) The benefits to a bank from making loans include A) safety. B) liquidity. C) high returns. D) all of the above. E) both A and C of the above. 38) A bank holding insufficient reserves can meet its reserve requirements by A) borrowing federal funds. B) selling secondary reserves. C) borrowing from the Fed. D) all of the above. E) both A and B of the above. 39) Banks' attempts to solve adverse selection and moral hazard problems help explain loan management principles such as: A) credit rationing. B) collateral and compensating balances. C) screening and monitoring of loan applicants. D) all of the above. E) only A and B of the above. 40) Since depositors, like any lender, only receive fixed payments while the bank keeps any surplus profits, they face the _____ problem that banks may take on too _____ risk. A) moral hazard; little B) adverse selection; little C) adverse selection; much D) moral hazard; much 41) Which of the following statements are true? A) Checkable deposits are payable on demand. B) Checkable deposits include NOW accounts. C) Checkable deposits are the primary source of bank funds. D) All of the above are true. E) Only A and B of the above are true. 42) If the First State Bank has a gap equal to a positive $20 million, then a 5 percentage point drop in interest rates will cause profits to A) decline by $1.0 million. B) increase by $1.0 million. C) decline by $10 million. D) increase by $10 million. 43) A commercial bank is classified as a depository institution because it A) accepts deposits from institutions. B) makes loans. C) accepts deposits from individuals. D) does all of the above. E) does both A and B of the above. 44) Of the four players in the money supply process, most observers agree that the most important player is A) banks. B) depositors. C) the Fed. D) borrowers. 45) If a bank has excess reserves of $20,000 and demand deposit liabilities of $80,000, and if the reserve requirement is 20 percent, then the bank has total reserves of A) $36,000. B) $20,000. C) $6,000. D) $16,000. E) $26,000. 46) When the Fed buys $100 worth of bonds from the First National Bank, reserves in the banking system A) decrease by more than $100. B) increase by $100. C) increase by more than $100. D) decrease by $100. 47) When a member of the nonbank public withdraws currency from a bank, A) bank reserves fall, but the monetary base remains unchanged. B) both the monetary base and bank reserves fall. C) the monetary base falls, but bank reserves remain unchanged. D) both currency in circulation and the monetary base rise. 48) U.S. Treasury deposits at the Fed are a(n) _____ for the Fed but a(n) _____ for the Treasury. Thus an increase in U.S. Treasury deposits _____ the monetary base. A) asset; liability; increases B) asset; liability; decreases C) liability; asset; increases D) liability; asset; decreases 49) An increase in which of the following leads to an increase in the monetary base? A) Float B) Foreign currency deposits C) U.S. Treasury deposits at the Fed D) All of the above E) Only A and B of the above 50) If the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, currency in circulation is $400 billion, checkable deposits are $1000 billion, and excess reserves total $1 billion, then the money multiplier is approximately A) 2.5. B) 2.0. C) 0.7. D) 2.8. 51) A _____ in market interest rates relative to the discount rate will cause discount borrowing to _____ A) fall; decrease B) rise; remain unchanged C) rise decrease D) rise; increase E) fall; increase 52) The M2 money multiplier is A) positively related to the time deposit ratio. B) positively related to the required reserve ratio. C) negatively related to high-powered money. D) positively related to the excess reserves ratio. 53) For a given level of the monetary base, a decrease in the time deposit ratio will mean a(n) _____ in the M2 money multiplier and a(n) _____ in the M2 money supply. A) increase; increase B) increase; decrease C) decrease; increase D) decrease; decrease 54) Because an increase in the monetary base will mean an increase in the level of currency in circulation, A) a given change in the monetary base will lead to a smaller increase in checkable deposits than indicated by the simple deposit multiplier. B) a given change in the monetary base will lead to a larger increase in checkable deposits than indicated by the simple deposit multiplier. 1) D 2) E 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) A 7) E 8) E 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) E 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) D 41) E 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) E 50) D 51) D 52) A 53) D 54) A 55) D 56) D 57) D 58) D 59) C 60) D 61) D 62) B 63) E