FNP PATHOPHYSIOLOGY– RETAKE EXAM/ PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FNP RETAKE EXAM 2022-2023 GRADED A+, Exams of Nursing

Download FNP PATHOPHYSIOLOGY– RETAKE EXAM/ PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FNP RETAKE EXAM 2022-2023 GRADED A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 FNP PATHOPHYSIOLOGY– RETAKE EXAM/ PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FNP RETAKE EXAM 2022-2023 What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells? a.Coagulative c.Caseous b.Liquefactive d.Gangrene - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Liquefactive What type of necrosis is often associated with pulmonary tuberculosis? a.Bacteriologic c.Liquefactive b.Caseous d.Gangrenous - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Caseous What type of necrosis is associated with wet gangrene? a.Coagulative c.Caseous b.Liquefactive d.Gangrene - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Liquefactive The abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation is called: a.Dysplasia c.Hyperplasia b.Pathologic dysplasia d.Pathologic hyperplasia - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Pathologic hyperplasia After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. This process is an example of hormonal: a.Hyperplasia c.Hypertrophy b.Dysplasia d.Anaplasia - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Hyperplasia Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing compensatory: a.Atrophy c.Hyperplasia b.Metaplasia 2 d.Dysplasia - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Hyperplasia Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells? a.Hyperplasia c.Dysplasia b.Metaplasia d.Anaplasia - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Metaplasia The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarily as a consequence of hormonal: a.Atrophy c.Anaplasia b.Hyperplasia d.Dysplasia - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Hyperplasia Dysplasia refers to a(n): a.Abnormal increase in the number of a specific cell type b.True adaptive process at the cellular level c.Modification in the shape of a specific cell type d.Lack of oxygen at the cellular level - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Modification in the shape of a specific cell type What organs are affected by the type of necrosis that results from either severe ischemia or chemical injury? (Select all that apply.) a.Lungs b.Brain c.Kidneys d.Muscles e.Heart - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Kidneys e.Heart A couple has two children diagnosed with an autosomal dominant genetic disease. What is the probability that the next child will have the same genetic disease? a.One sixth c.One third b.One fourth d. One half - -CORRECT ANSWER- d. One half When a child inherits a disease that is autosomal recessive, it is inherited from: a.Father c.Both parents b.Mother d.Grandparent - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Both parents Which is an important criterion for discerning autosomal recessive inheritance? a.Consanguinity is sometimes present. b.Females are affected more than males. c.The disease is observed in both the parents, as well as in the siblings. d.On average, one half of the offspring of the carrier will be affected. - -CORRECT ANSWER- a. Consanguinity is sometimes present. Males are more often affected by which type of genetic disease? 5 b.Thyroid gland d.Smooth and skeletal muscles - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Tubules of nephrons A child diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has an increased risk of developing: a.Non-Hodgkin lymphoma c.Epstein-Barr b.Retinoblastoma d.Leukemia - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Non-Hodgkin lymphoma When a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is how many times greater? a.2 c.6 b.3 d.10 - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.2 What percentage of all cases of breast cancer are identified as an autosomal dominant form? a.5 c.15 b.10 d.20 - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.5 The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women? a.Ovarian c.Uterine b.Lung d.Pancreatic - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Ovarian Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by: a.Reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces b. Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells c.Obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas d.Stimulating the liver to increase glucose production - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells Which genes are responsible for an autosomal dominant form of breast cancer? (Select all that apply.) a.LCAT b.CHK1 c.CHK2 d.BRCA1 e.BRCA2 - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.BRCA1 e.BRCA2 Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized? a.Dysplasia c.Myoplasia b.Hyperplasia d.Anaplasia - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Anaplasia The survival rate for stage IV Hodgkin disease can be as high as: 6 a.99% c.40% b.70% d.20% - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.70% What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? a.Nausea c.Hair loss b.Fatigue d.Weight loss - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Fatigue What cellular characteristics are affected by anaplasia? (Select all that apply.) a.Size b.Ability to differentiate c.Life expectancy d.Tissue structure e.Shape - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Size b.Ability to differentiate d.Tissue structure e.Shape Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia? a.Iron deficiency c.Sideroblastic b.Pernicious d.Hemolytic - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Pernicious After a person has a subtotal gastrectomy for chronic gastritis, which type of anemia will result? a.Iron deficiency c.Folic acid b.Aplastic d.Pernicious - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Pernicious What causes the atrophy of gastric mucosal cells that result in pernicious anemia? a.Erythrocyte destruction c.Vitamin B12 malabsorption b.Folic acid malabsorption d.Poor nutritional intake - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Vitamin B12 malabsorption Which condition resulting from untreated pernicious anemia (PA) is fatal? a. Brain hypoxia c. Heart failure b. Liver hypoxia d. Renal failure - -CORRECT ANSWER- c. Heart failure Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes? a.Folic acid 7 c.Iron deficiency b.Hemolytic d.Pernicious - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Iron deficiency Which type of anemia is characterized by fatigue, weakness, and dyspnea, as well as conjunctiva of the eyes and brittle, concave nails? a.Pernicious c.Aplastic b.Iron deficiency d.Hemolytic - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Iron deficiency What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)? a.Decreased dietary intake c.Vitamin deficiency b.Chronic blood loss d.Autoimmune disease - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Chronic blood loss In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following? a.Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes b.Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes c.Lack of DNA to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes d.Lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes - -CORRECT ANSWER- Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes When considering hemolytic anemia, which statement is true regarding the occurrence of jaundice? a.Erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen. b.Heme destruction exceeds the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin. c.The patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT). d.The erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Heme destruction exceeds the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin. Which medications are associated with an intermediate increase in a person's risk for developing aplastic anemia? (Select all that apply.) a.Penicillin b.Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin) c.Phenytoin (Dilantin) d.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) e.Thiazides - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin) c.Phenytoin (Dilantin) d.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) Which conditions are generally included in the symptoms of pernicious anemia (PA)? (Select all that apply.) a.Weakness b.Weight gain c.Low hemoglobin d.Paresthesias 10 b.Rate of progression A patient's blood gases reveal the following findings: pH, 7.3; bicarbonate (HCO3) 27 mEq/L; carbon dioxide (CO2), 58 mm Hg. What is the interpretation of these gases? a.Respiratory alkalosis c.Respiratory acidosis b.Metabolic acidosis d.Metabolic alkalosis - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Respiratory acidosis Males, having only one X chromosome (as is expected), are said to be: a.Homozygous c.Hemizygous b.Heterozygous d.Ambizygous - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Hemizygous Males are more often affected by which type of genetic disease? a.Sex-linked dominant c.Sex-linked b.Sex-influenced d.Sex-linked recessive - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Sex-linked recessive What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases? a.10% c.50% b.30% d.70% - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.50% Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in a(an): a.Decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development b.Deactivation of MLH1 to halt DNA repair c.Increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant d.Over-expression of microRNA, resulting in tumorigenesis - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant When considering white blood cell differentials, acute inflammatory reactions are related to elevations of which leukocyte? a.Monocytes cNeutrophils b.Eosinophils d.Basophils - -CORRECT ANSWER- cNeutrophils IFN- is secreted from which cells? a.Virally infected cells c.Macrophages b.Bacterial infected cells d.Mast cells - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Macrophages Which cytokine is produced and released from virally infected host cells? a.IL-1 c.TNFa b.IL-10 d.IFNa - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.IFNa Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? 11 a.Passive-acquired immunity c.Passive-innate immunity b.Active-acquired immunity d.Active-innate immunity - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Active-acquired immunity What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? a.Passive-acquired immunity c.Passive-innate immunity b.Active-acquired immunity d.Active-innate immunity - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Passive-acquired immunity Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? a.IgA c.IgG b.IgE d.IgM - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.IgA Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response? a.IgG c.IgA b.IgM d.IgE - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.IgM An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody? a.IgG c.IgA b.IgM d.IgE - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.IgA Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the: a.Strong response from IgM c.Memory cells for IgE b.Level of protection provided by IgG d.Rapid response from IgA - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Level of protection provided by IgG Which statement is true concerning the IgM? a.IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen. b.IgM mediates many common allergic responses. c.IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins. d.IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen. Mediates many common allergic responses IgA IgE IgG - -CORRECT ANSWER- IgE Is predominantly found in the blood and body secretions IgA IgE 12 IgG - -CORRECT ANSWER- IgA Crosses the placenta. IgA IgE IgG - -CORRECT ANSWER- IgG Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to: a.Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation b.Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation c.Cytotoxic T cells that attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues d.Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (Select all that apply.) a.Crohn disease b.Addison disease c.Rheumatoid arthritis d.Systemic lupus erythematosus e.Noninsulin-dependent diabetes - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Crohn disease b.Addison disease c.Rheumatoid arthritis d.Systemic lupus erythematosus Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection? a.Staphylococcus aureus c.Helicobacter pylori b.Clostridium perfringens d.Treponema pallidum - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Treponema pallidum What is the effect of increased secretions of epinephrine, glucagon, and growth hormone? a.Hyperglycemia c.Bronchodilation b.Hypertension d.Pupil dilation - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Hyperglycemia What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer? a.Herpes simplex virus type 6 c.Human papillomavirus b.Herpes simplex virus type 2 d.Human immunodeficiency virus - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Human papillomavirus The function of arachnoid villi is to: a.Produce cerebrospinal fluid b.Provide nutrients to the choroid plexuses c.Transmit impulses within the meninges d.Absorb cerebrospinal fluid into the cerebral venous sinuses - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Absorb cerebrospinal fluid into the cerebral venous sinuses 15 What statement concerning the pathogenetic mechanisms of polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS) is true? a. POS causes a decrease in leptin levels; this decrease reduces the hypothalamic pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, which reduces the number of follicles that mature. b. POS is a result of a disorder in the anterior pituitary that increases the follicle- stimulating hormone, which reduces the luteinizing hormone released. c. POS is a result of a combination of conditions that include oligo-ovulation or anovulation, elevated levels of androgens, or clinical signs of hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovaries. d. POS inhibits testosterone, which stimulates androgen secretion by the ovarian stroma and indirectly reduces sex hormone-binding globulin - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.POS is a result of a combination of conditions that include oligo-ovulation or anovulation, elevated levels of androgens, or clinical signs of hyperandrogenism and polycystic ovaries. What is the leading cause of infertility in women? a.Pelvic inflammatory disease c.Salpingitis b.Endometriosis d.Polycystic ovary syndrome - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Polycystic ovary syndrome Which statement regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is true? a.An episode of mild PID can decrease the possibility of a successful pregnancy by 80%. b.Such an inflammation results in temporary changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian tubes. c.PID has not been associated with an increased risk of an ectopic pregnancy. d.Contracting this infection increases the risk of uterine cancer. - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Contracting this infection increases the risk of uterine cancer. Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer? a.Human papillomavirus (HPV) c.Herpes simplex II virus (HSV) b.Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) d.Cytomegalovirus (CMV) - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Human papillomavirus (HPV) Cryptorchidism can be defined as which of the following? a.Normal developmental state of the testes b.Abnormal state in which the testes are overdeveloped c.Lack of scrotum d.Testicular maldescent - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Testicular maldescent The risk of which cancer is greater if the man has a history of cryptorchidism? a.Penile c.Prostate b.Testicular d.Epididymal - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Testicular hydrocele - -CORRECT ANSWER- collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis 16 Testicular torsion - -CORRECT ANSWER- Rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord How is gonorrhea transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus? a.Unbound in the blood via the placenta b.Attached to immunoglobulin G (IgG) via the placenta c.Across amniotic membranes by the direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes during labor monitoring d.Predominately through infected cervical and secretions during the birth process - - CORRECT ANSWER- d.Predominately through infected cervical and secretions during the birth process In women, what is the usual site of original gonococcal infection? a.Endocervical canal c.Fallopian tube b.Vagina d.Labia majora - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Endocervical canal Which statement is false about the factors that facilitate the ascent of gonococci into the uterus and fallopian tubes? a. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the cervical plug disintegrates during menstruation. b. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the vaginal pH decreases to 2 or 3. c. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the uterine contractions may cause retrograde menstruation into the fallopian tubes. d. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the bacteria may adhere to sperm and be transported to the fallopian tubes - -CORRECT ANSWER- b. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the vaginal pH decreases to 2 or 3. What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men? a.Epididymis c.Urethra b.Lymph nodes d.Prostate - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Urethra What local complication of a gonococcal infection is diagnosed in approximately 10% of affected women? a.Acute salpingitis c.Vaginitis b.Cystitis d.Cervicitis - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Acute salpingitis Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? a.Neisseria syphilis c.Haemophilus ducreyi b.Treponema pallidum d.Chlamydia trachomatis - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Treponema pallidum Which is a characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis? 17 a.Condylomata lata c.Chancroid b.Gummas d.Donovan bodie - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Condylomata lata By which method is the organism that causes syphilis best identified? a.Acid-fast stain c.In vitro culture b.Gram-stained slide d.Darkfield microscopy - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Darkfield microscopy Which age group should be targeted for testicular cancer education and screening? a.15 to 35 year olds c.30 to 55 year olds b.20 to 45 year olds d.45 to 70 year olds - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.15 to 35 year olds Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts? a.Chlamydia c.Human papillomavirus (HPV) b.Adenovirus d.Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Human papillomavirus (HPV) After a person has a subtotal gastrectomy for chronic gastritis, which type of anemia will result? a.Iron deficiency c.Folic acid b.Aplastic d.Pernicious - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Pernicious Which conditions are generally included in the symptoms of pernicious anemia (PA)? (Select all that apply.) a. Weakness b. Weight gain c. Low hemoglobin d. Paresthesias e. Low hematocri - -CORRECT ANSWER- a. Weakness c. Low hemoglobin d. Paresthesias e. Low hematocrit Which type of hemophilia affects only men? 20 a.Hypoxemia c.Bronchiectasis b.Hypoxia d.Cor pulmonale - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Cor pulmonale Which statement best describes acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? a.An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation b.A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and the presence of bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray imaging c.A respiratory disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens d.A pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and the presence of bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray imaging Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis? a.Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation b.Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging c.Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens d.Pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens Cystic Fibrosis genes - -CORRECT ANSWER- Autosomal recessive Deficit of IL-10 and an excess of IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-a Which clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection may be demonstrated in an 85- year-old individual? a.Confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort b.Dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain c.Hematuria and flank pain d.Pyuria, urgency, and frequency - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort Goodpasture syndrome is an example of which of the following? a.Antiglomerular basement membrane disease b.Acute glomerulonephritis c.Chronic glomerulonephritis d.Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Antiglomerular basement membrane disease Prerenal injury from poor perfusion can result from which condition? (Select all that apply.) a.Bilateral ureteral obstruction b.Renal vasoconstriction c.Renal artery thrombosis 21 d.Hemorrhage e.Hypotension - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Renal vasoconstriction c.Renal artery thrombosis d.Hemorrhage e.Hypotension By what mechanism does intussusception cause an intestinal obstruction? a.Telescoping of part of the intestine into another section of intestine, usually causing strangulation of the blood supply b.Twisting the intestine on its mesenteric pedicle, causing occlusion of the blood supply c.Loss of peristaltic motor activity in the intestine, causing an adynamic ileus d.Forming fibrin and scar tissue that attach to the intestinal omentum, causing obstruction - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Telescoping of part of the intestine into another section of intestine, usually causing strangulation of the blood supply Which term is used to identify an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine? a.Meconium cecum c.Meconium obstruction b.Meconium ileus d.Meconium vivax - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Meconium ileus With which medical diagnosis is meconium ileus often associated? a.Muscular dystrophy c.Cystic fibrosis b.Cerebral palsy d.Congenital aganglionic megacolon - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Cystic fibrosis Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of which nervous system? a.Central c.Sympathetic b.Parasympathetic d.Somatic - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Parasympathetic Which medication compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis? a.Salt tablets c.Antihypertensives b.Pancreatic enzymes d.Antibiotics - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Pancreatic enzymes What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily? a.Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption b.Bone marrow function depression c.Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias d.Prescribed daily warfarin (Coumadin) - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption Physiologic jaundice in a newborn is caused by: a.Reabsorption of bilirubin in the small intestine b.Impaired hepatic uptake and excretion of bilirubin 22 c.Increased bilirubin production d.Mild conjugated (indirect-reacting) hyperbilirubinemia - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Mild conjugated (indirect-reacting) hyperbilirubinemia By the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination, up to what percent of bone has been lost? a.30% c.50% b.40% d.60% - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.30% A bone density of 645 mg/cm2 would support which diagnosis? a.Osteoplasia c.Osteopenia b.Osteoporosis d.Osteomalacia - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Osteoporosis Considering the pathophysiologic process of postmenopausal osteoporosis, which changes are believed to play a significant role in the development of age-related bone loss? a.Increased oxidative stress and increased intracellular reactive oxygen species b.Hypoparathyroidism c.Increased body weight d.Decreased formation and short life span of osteoclast - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Increased oxidative stress and increased intracellular reactive oxygen species Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal-regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of nuclear factor B ligand (RANKL) on osteoblasts and osteoclasts? a. ERKs increase the life span of osteoclasts, and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoblasts. b. ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoclasts and decrease the life span of osteoblasts. c. ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoblasts and decrease the life span of osteoclasts. d. ERKs increase the life span of osteoblasts, and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoclasts - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoclasts and decrease the life span of osteoblasts. Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of osteosarcoma? a.Slow-growing tumor that begins in the bone marrow and infiltrates the trabeculae b.Solitary tumor that most often affects the metaphyseal region of the femur or tibia c.Aggressive tumor most often found in the bone marrow of long bones d.Tumor that infiltrates the trabeculae in spongy bone and implants in surrounding tissue by seeding - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Aggressive tumor most often found in the bone marrow of long bones Which statement is false concerning giant cell tumors? a.Giant cell tumors are an overexpression of genes including osteoprotegerin ligand (OPGL). b.The tumors are malignant, solitary, and irregularly shaped. 25 c.Warts (Verrucae) b.Cytomegalovirus d.Herpes zoster - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Herpes zoster What is the medical term for a fungal infection of the nail plate? a.Paronychia c.Tinea corporis b.Onychomycosis d.Tinea capitis - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Onychomycosis Which leukocytes are elevated in atopic dermatitis? a.Eosinophils c.Basophils b.Neutrophils d.Monocytes - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Eosinophils Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis? a.Papular rash c.Vesicles that burst and form crusts b.High fever d.Itching - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Itching The disruption in cellular adhesion observed in bullous impetigo is caused by an exfoliative toxin related to which organism? a.Staphylococcus aureus c.Escherichia coli b.Streptococcus pyogenes d.Candida albicans - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Staphylococcus aureus The staff member of a crowed day care center is a source for which bacterial infection? a.Atopic dermatitis b.Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome c.Impetigo d.Tinea capitis - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Impetigo Skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust, are the hallmark clinical manifestation of which skin disorder? a.Rubella c.Atopic dermatitis b.Tinea capitis d.Bullous impetigo - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Bullous impetigo Skin lesions caused by tinea corporis are best described as: a.Pink-to-red coalescing maculopapular rash on the scalp or trunk b.Vesicles that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust c.Circular (round or oval) lesions with erythema and scaling patches d.Red papules, vesicles, and pustules in clusters - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Circular (round or oval) lesions with erythema and scaling patches What is a common contact source of tinea corporis? a.Mites c.Ponies b.Kittens d.Ticks - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Kittens 26 What is the cause of chickenpox? a.Poxvirus c.Adenovirus b.Varicella-zoster virus d.Human papillomavirus - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Varicella-zoster virus What mechanism causes organ injury in primary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a.Impaired immune response c.Impaired perfusion b.Impaired glucose use d.Impaired ventilation - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Impaired perfusion In secondary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), what stimulates the normal endothelial cells to change to a proinflammatory state? a. Interleukin (IL)-4 (IL-4) and IL-13 b. IL-1, IL-6, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) c. Interferon gamma (IFN-) and granulocyte cell-stimulating factor d.Prostaglandin, leukotrienes, histamine, and bradykinin - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.IL- 1, IL-6, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) What stimulates the respiratory burst and production of highly toxic free radicals in the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a.Neutrophils adhering to the endothelium b.Activation of the complement cascade c.Release of prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes d.Activation of the fibrinolytic system - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Neutrophils adhering to the endothelium In multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), the gut hypothesis attempts to explain which phenomena? a.Paralytic ileus b.Translocation of bacteria c.Maldistribution of blood flow d.Massive diarrhea accompanying septic shock - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Translocation of bacteria What is the most common type of shock in children? a.Hypovolemic c.Neurogenic b.Cardiogenic d.Septic - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Hypovolemic Hypotension is likely to occur when an infant or child is greater than % dehydrated. a.2 c.7 b.5 d.10 - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.10 Which behaviors in newborns would support the possibility of shock? (Select all that apply.) a.Decreased heart rate variability 27 b.Temperature instability c.Hyperalertness d.Increased muscle tone e.Hypoglycemia - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Decreased heart rate variability b.Temperature instability e.Hypoglycemia What medical term is used to identify an inflammatory disorder of the skin that is often considered synonymous with dermatitis and characterized by pruritus with lesions that have an indistinct border? a.Eczema c.Atopic dermatitis b.Psoriasis d. Pityriasis rosea - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Eczema URTICARIA (allergic rxn) - -CORRECT ANSWER- Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter What is the primary cause of peptic ulcers? a.Hypersecretion of gastric acid c.Helicobacter pylori b.Hyposecretion of pepsin d.Escherichia coli - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Helicobacter pylori A peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following areas except the: a.Stomach c.Jejunum b.Duodenum d.Esophagus - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Jejunum Which term is used to identify a condition in which the developing colon remains in the upper right quadrant instead of moving to its normal location? a.Intestinal malrotation c.Duodenal obstruction b.Ileocecal displacement d.Pyloric stenosis - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Intestinal malrotation Which term is used to identify an intestinal obstruction caused by meconium formed in utero that is abnormally sticky and adheres firmly to the mucosa of the small intestine? a.Meconium cecum c.Meconium obstruction b.Meconium ileus d.Meconium vivax - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Meconium ileus With which medical diagnosis is meconium ileus often associated? a.Muscular dystrophy c.Cystic fibrosis b.Cerebral palsy d.Congenital aganglionic megacolon - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Cystic fibrosis Spermatocele - -CORRECT ANSWER- *Painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis *epididymal cyst * "milky" 30 d.Neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities - - CORRECT ANSWER- a.Inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands A patient exhibits symptoms including hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin as the major protein. These data suggest the presence of which disorder? a.Cystitis c.Glomerulonephritis b.Chronic pyelonephritis d.Nephrotic syndrome - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Glomerulonephritis Which muscular dystrophy syndrome develops from an X-linked recessive mode of inheritance? a.Duchenne c.Myotonic b.Facioscapulohumeral d.Limb girdle - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Duchenne What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood? a.Chondrosarcoma c.Ewing Sarcoma b.Fibrosarcoma d.Osteosarcoma - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Osteosarcoma Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with which gene? a.TP53 c.myc b.src d.TSC - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.src Osteosarcoma usually metastasizes to the: a.Pancreas c.Lungs b.Liver d.Brain - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Lungs Ewing sarcoma arises from the: a.Bone marrow c.Metadiaphysis of long bones b.Bone-producing mesenchymal cells d. Embryonal osteocytes - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Bone marrow Rubeola is a highly contagious acute disease in children caused by which type of infection? a.Bacterial c.Yeast b.Fungal d.Viral - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Viral Which clinical manifestation is present in rubeola but not in rubella? a.Conjunctivitis c.Presence of a cough 31 b.Enlarged lymph nodes d.Runny nose - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Conjunctivitis The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder? a.Osteogenesis imperfecta c.Osteochondrosis b.Rickets d.Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Rickets An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children? a.C c.B6 b.B12 d.D - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.D A bone density of 645 mg/cm2 would support which diagnosis? a.Osteoplasia c.Osteopenia b.Osteoporosis d.Osteomalacia - -CORRECT ANSWER- b.Osteoporosis Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, after being activated by receptor activator of nuclear factor B ligand (RANKL), receptor activator of nuclear factor B (RANK) activates which of the following? a.Osteoclast apoptosis c.Osteoprotegerin b.Osteoblast survival d.Osteoclast survival - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Osteoclast survival Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, which hormone exerts antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts? a.Parathyroid hormone c.Growth hormone b.Glucocorticoid d.Estrogen - -CORRECT ANSWER- d.Estrogen DEAFFERENTATION PAIN - -CORRECT ANSWER- o Pain that results from tumor infiltration of nerve tissue, from trauma or chemical injury to the nerve, or from damage from radiation, chemotherapy, or surgical sectioning of the nerve What disease is linked with low Vit C levels? - -CORRECT ANSWER- Scruvy What disease is linked with low Vit B12 levles - -CORRECT ANSWER- Parkinsons LICHEN PLANUS-DESCRIBE - -CORRECT ANSWER- Autoimmune -chronic inflammatory dx of skin/hair/mucous T cell-apoptosis of eqithelial cells Raised papules, purple, polygonal shape Itchy Varicocele 32 A. Painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis B. Collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis C. Rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord D. Abnormal dilation of the vein within the spermatic cord - -CORRECT ANSWER- D. Abnormal dilation of the vein within the spermatic cord Low Vit D is associated with what disease? - -CORRECT ANSWER- Rickets (bone) Which hormones are produced by the kidney? (Select all that apply.) a.Renin b.Erythropoietin c.1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 d.Calcitonin e.Aldosterone - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Renin b.Erythropoietin c.1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 Which statements are true regarding exudative effusion? (Select all that apply.) a.Exudative effusion contains high concentrations of white blood cells. b.Exudative effusion produces a very thick exudate. c.Exudative effusion may occur in response to an inflammatory process. d.The presence of a malignant cancer can trigger exudative effusion. e.Exudative effusion is a result of increased capillary permeability - -CORRECT ANSWER- a.Exudative effusion contains high concentrations of white blood cells. c.Exudative effusion may occur in response to an inflammatory process. d.The presence of a malignant cancer can trigger exudative effusion. e.Exudative effusion is a result of increased capillary permeability What medical term is used to identify the presence of pus in the pleural space? a.Plural effusion c.Empyema b.Asthma d.Pneumonia - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Empyema In which type of pleural effusion does the fluid become watery and diffuse out of the capillaries as a result of increased blood pressure or decreased capillary oncotic pressure? a.Exudative c.Transudative b.Purulent d.Large - -CORRECT ANSWER- c.Transudative