Phlebotomy Final Review Exam Questions with Verified Answers, Exams of Social structure and social organization

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Hartman's Phlebotomy Final Review Exam Questions with Verified Answers. 1) Provider - Correct answer a person or organization that provides health care, including doctors, nurses, clinics, and agencies. 2) Facility - Correct answer a place where health care is delivered or administered; may be a hospital, doctor's office, clinical laboratory, treatment center, etc. 3) Payer - Correct answer a person or organization paying for healthcare. 4) Diagnose - Correct answer to make a medical determination of illness. 5) Inpatient - Correct answer a type of medical care provided to patients who stay at a facility overnight. 6) Outpatient - Correct answer a type of medical care that does not require an overnight stay. 7) Acute - Correct answer as related to illness, short-term and requiring immediate care. 8) Discharge - Correct answer to release a patient from a medical facility. 9) Admit - Correct answer to check a patient in to a medical facility for inpatient care. 10)Long-term care facility - Correct answer a center that provides skilled care 24 hours a day to residents who live there. 11)Clinical laboratory - Correct answer a facility that collects and analyzes specimens from patients in order to provide doctors and other healthcare professionals with information. 12)Specimen - Correct answer a portion or sample of something larger, collected for study or analysis. 13)Reference laboratory - Correct answer facility that primarily analyzes specimens sent from other locations. 14)Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) - Correct answer federal regulations regarding the staffing and operation of clinical laboratories. 15)Accredit - Correct answer officially approve through a specific process. 16)Joint Commission - Correct answer an independent, nonprofit organization that evaluates and accredits. Page 1 of 24 17)Chemistry - Correct answer in a clinical laboratory, the department concerned with analyzing specimens for the presence of particular chemicals. 18)Hematology - Correct answer in a clinical laboratory, the department concerned with analyzing specimens to study properties, diseases, or disorders of the blood. 19)Coagulation - Correct answer the process of blood clotting. 20)Microbiology - Correct answer in a clinical laboratory, the department concerned with the study of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other microorganisms. 21)Microorganisms - Correct answer living things so small they can only be seen under a microscope. 22)Culture - Correct answer in medicine, to cause any microorganisms present to multiply. 23)Immunology - Correct answer in a clinical laboratory, the department concerned with analyzing specimens to study the body's response to disease. 24)Antibody - Correct answer a protein made by the body to protect against foreign substances. 25)Blood bank - Correct answer a facility or department within a facility concerned with collecting and preparing blood for transfusion. 26)Pathology - Correct answer in a clinical laboratory, the department concerned with the study of the causes and effects of disease. 27)Cytology - Correct answer in a clinical laboratory, the department concerned with the examination of the structure and function of cells in specimens. 28)Urinalysis - Correct answer the visual, microscopic, and chemical testing of urine specimens. 29)Stat - Correct answer in medical facilities, a designation of urgency. 30)Licensure - Correct answer a legally required process that must be completed to practice a profession. 31)Chain of command - Correct answer the line of authority at a facility 32)Liability - Correct answer a legal term that means someone can be held responsible for harming someone 33)Scope of practice - Correct answer the range of tasks a healthcare worker is allowed to perform according to state or federal law or to facility policy. Page 2 of 24 68)Abuse - Correct answer purposeful mistreatment that causes physical, mental, or emotional pain or injury to 69)Someone. - Correct answer 70)Mandated reporter - Correct answer person who is legally required to report suspected or observed abuse or neglect due to regular contact with vulnerable populations. 71)Consent - Correct answer in health care, acknowledgement of agreement to treatment or to a procedure. 72)informed consent - Correct answer in health care, acknowledgement of agreement to treatment or to a procedure that is given after receiving information regarding risks and benefits; informed consent must usually be documented before treatment begins. 73)Express consent - Correct answer consent that is actively, consciously acknowledged. 74)Assault - Correct answer the use of words or actions to cause another person to feel fearful of being harmed. 75)Battery - Correct answer the intentional touching of another person without permission. 76)Minor - Correct answer a person less than 18 years of age. 77)Cognitive - Correct answer related to the ability to think and process information. 78)implied consent - Correct answer the assumption that a person agrees to treatment or to a procedure; allows medical treatment to be provided in emergency situations, for example, even if the patient is not able to express consent. 79)American Hospital Association (AHA) - Correct answer a nonprofit membership organization concerned with providing information to the healthcare industry and the public regarding healthcare issues and trends. 80)Advance directive - Correct answer a legal document that allows people to decide what kind of medical care they wish to have in the event they are unable to make those decisions themselves. 81)living will - Correct answer a type of advance directive that outlines specific medical care a person wants, or does not want, in case he becomes unable to make those decisions. Page 5 of 24 82)Do-not-resuscitate (DNR) - Correct answer a medical order that instructs medical professionals not to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest. 83)Durable power of attorney for health care - Correct answer a signed, dated, and witnessed legal document that appoints someone else to make the medical decisions for a person in the event he or she becomes unable to do so. 84)Medical social worker - Correct answer employee at a health care facility who deals with patients' social, emotional, and financial needs. 85)Communication - Correct answer the process of exchanging information with others by sending and receiving messages. 86)Verbal communication - Correct answer communication involving the use of spoken or written words or sounds. 87)Nonverbal communication - Correct answer communication without using words. 88)Cliché - Correct answer phrase that is used over and over again and does not really mean anything. 89)Syncope - Correct answer loss of consciousness; also called fainting. 90)Cyanotic - Correct answer blue or gray, in reference to skin color. 91)Anticoagulant - Correct answer a substance that stops blood from clotting. 92)Hemostasis - Correct answer the stopping of a flow of blood 93)Hemoglobin - Correct answer an oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells. 94)Documentation - Correct answer in health care, the creation of a record of care given to a patient. 95)Incident - Correct answer an accident, problem, or unexpected event during the course of care that is not part of the normal routine in a healthcare facility. 96)Objective - Correct answer based on what a person sees, hears, touches, or smells. 97)Impairment - Correct answer a loss of function or ability. 98)Populations - Correct answer in health care, a particular and distinct group of patients. 99)Pediatrics - Correct answer a branch of medicine dealing with people under the age of 18. Page 6 of 24 100) Geriatrics - Correct answer a branch of medicine dealing with elderly patients. 101) developmental disability - Correct answer a disability that is present at birth or emerges during childhood or early adulthood that restricts physical and/or mental ability. 102) Infection prevention - Correct answer the set of methods practiced in healthcare facilities to prevent and control the spread of disease. 103) Infection - Correct answer the state resulting from pathogens invading the body and multiplying. 104) Pathogen - Correct answer microorganism that is capable of causing infection and disease. 105) Localized infection - Correct answer an infection that is limited to a specific location in the body and has local symptoms. 106) Systemic infection - Correct answer an infection that travels through the bloodstream and is spread throughout the body, causing general symptoms. 107) Healthcare-associated infection (HAI) - Correct answer an infection acquired in a healthcare setting during the delivery of medical care. 108) Chain of infection - Correct answer a way of describing how disease is transmitted from one human being to another. 109) Causative agent - Correct answer a pathogenic microorganism that causes disease. 110) Reservoir - Correct answer a place where a pathogen lives and multiplies. 111) Portal of exit - Correct answer any body opening on an infected person that allows pathogens to leave. 112) Mode of transmission - Correct answer the way a pathogen travels. 113) Direct contact - Correct answer a way of transmitting pathogens through touching the infected person or his secretions. 114) Indirect contact - Correct answer a way of transmitting pathogens from touching an object contaminated by the infected person. 115) Portal of entry - Correct answer any body opening on an uninfected person that allows pathogens to enter. Page 7 of 24 147) Sterilization - Correct answer cleaning measure that destroys all microorganisms, including pathogens. 148) Flammable - Correct answer able to catch fire easily. 149) Ergonomics - Correct answer the science of designing equipment, areas, and work tasks to make them safer and to suit the worker's abilities. 150) Hazard Communication Standard - Correct answer OSHA's system of identifying potential hazards in the workplace. 151) Safety Data Sheet (SDS) - Correct answer document describing the composition and possible hazards of chemicals in the workplace. 152) Aerosolize - Correct answer to disperse a substance through the air in such a way that it might be inhaled. 153) Centrifuge - Correct answer a machine commonly used to separate substances within liquids through rapid spinning. 154) Homeostasis - Correct answer the condition in which all of the body's systems are balanced and are working together to maintain internal stability. 155) Metabolism - Correct answer physical and chemical processes by which substances are broken down or transformed into energy or products for use by the body. 156) Organ - Correct answer structural unit in the human body that performs a specific function. 157) Tissue - Correct answer group of cells that performs a similar task. 158) Cell - Correct answer basic structural unit of the body that divides, develops, and dies, renewing tissues and organs. 159) Integument - Correct answer a natural protective covering 160) Dilate - Correct answer to widen. 161) Constrict - Correct answer to narrow. 162) Antibody - Correct answer a protein made by the body to protect against foreign substances. 163) Joint - Correct answer the place at which two bones meet. 164) Muscles - Correct answer group of tissues that provides movement of body parts, protection of organs, and creation of body heat. Page 10 of 24 165) Central nervous system (CNS) - Correct answer the part of the nervous system that is composed of the brain and spinal cord. 166) Peripheral nervous system (PNS) - Correct answer part of the nervous system made up of the nerves that extend throughout the body. 167) Respiration - Correct answer the process of inhaling air into the lungs and exhaling air out of the lungs. 168) Glucose - Correct answer natural sugar. 169) Hormone - Correct answer a chemical substance created by that body that controls body functions. 170) Diabetes - Correct answer a condition in which the pancreas produces too little insulin or does not properly use insulin. 171) Gestational diabetes - Correct answer a form of diabetes associated with pregnancy. 172) Nonspecific immunity - Correct answer a type of immunity that protects the body from disease in general. 173) Specific immunity - Correct answer a type of immunity that protects the body against a particular disease that is invading the body at a given time. 174) Lymph - Correct answer a clear yellowish fluid that carries disease- fighting cells called lymphocytes. 175) Renal panel - Correct answer series of tests ordered to evaluate kidney health 176) Bile - Correct answer green liquid produced by the liver that helps breakdown dietary fat 177) Peristalsis - Correct answer Involuntary waves of muscle contraction that keep food moving through the digestive system. 178) Urinary system - Correct answer function: eliminates waste products and maintains water balance in the body 179) Signs - Correct answer objective information 180) Symptoms - Correct answer subjective information 181) Skin - Correct answer largest organ and system in the body 182) Integumentary system - Correct answer function: prevents injury to internal organs, protect body against bacteria, and regulates body temperature Page 11 of 24 183) Voluntary muscle - Correct answer a muscle that is under conscious control 184) Involuntary muscle - Correct answer a muscle that is not under conscious control. 185) Nervous system - Correct answer function: control and message center of the body 186) Cerebrum - Correct answer largest section of the human brain 187) Inspiration - Correct answer breathing in 188) Expiration - Correct answer breathing out 189) Pleura - Correct answer membrane covering the lungs 190) Respiratory system - Correct answer function: bring oxygen into the body and eliminates carbon dioxide 191) Digestion - Correct answer process of preparing food physically and chemically so that it can be absorbed into the cells 192) Glands - Correct answer organs that produce and secrete hormones 193) Gastrointestinal system - Correct answer functions; digestion, absorption, and elimination 194) Absorption - Correct answer process of expelling wastes that are not absorbed into the cells 195) Endocrine system - Correct answer function: maintain homeostasis through hormone secretion 196) Acquired immunity - Correct answer kind of specific immunity the body acquires by fighting an infection or by vaccination 197) Septum - Correct answer in cardiology, the wall dividing the right and left sides of the heart. 198) Atria - Correct answer the two upper chambers of the heart (singular atrium). 199) Ventricles - Correct answer the two lower chambers of the heart. 200) Tricuspid valve - Correct answer the heart valve located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. Page 12 of 24 237) Megakaryocyte - Correct answer a cell produced in the bone marrow that fragments into platelets. 238) Complete blood count (CBC) - Correct answer a common blood test used to determine the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are in a patient's blood; CBC with differential specifies how many of each type of white cell is present. 239) Anemia - Correct answer a condition in which a person has either too few red blood cells or too little hemoglobin in the blood. 240) blood type - Correct answer designation based on the presence or absence of specific antigens on a person's red blood cells; A, B, AB, and O are the most common blood types. 241) ABO blood group system - Correct answer system of classifying blood type based on the presence or absence of A and B antigens on a person's red blood cells. 242) Rh factor - Correct answer a protein that may be present on a person's red blood cells. 243) Rh positive - Correct answer designation for people who have Rh factor on their red blood cells. 244) Rh negative - Correct answer designation for people who do not have Rh factor on their red blood cells. 245) Transfusion - Correct answer a transfer of blood from one person to the bloodstream of another. 246) Arterial blood - Correct answer blood in the arteries; oxygenated and marked by a bright red color. 247) Venous blood - Correct answer blood in the veins; it is deoxygenated and dark, deep red in color. 248) Syringe - Correct answer a tubular device with a plunger that, when pulled, acts to draw in fluid (e.g., blood). 249) Capillary blood - Correct answer blood in the capillaries; contains both arterial and venous blood and its color is somewhere between bright and deep red. 250) Thrombosis - Correct answer the formation of a clot within a blood vessel. 251) Hemostasis - Correct answer the stopping of an f low of blood. Page 15 of 24 252) Vasoconstriction - Correct answer reaction to injury in a blood vessel causing narrowing of muscular tissue at the site of the injury. 253) Enzyme - Correct answer a substance in the body that speeds up a specific reaction. 254) Thrombin - Correct answer an enzyme in plasma that controls platelet response. 255) Primary hemostasis - Correct answer the first stage of hemostasis, concluding with the formation of a platelet plug. 256) Fibrinogen - Correct answer a protein associated with blood clotting; fibrinogen is turned into fibrin when injury occurs, creating a mesh with platelets to stop bleeding. 257) Fibrin - Correct answer a protein that cannot be dissolved; forms a mesh with platelets to stop bleeding when injury occurs. 258) Hemostatic plug - Correct answer the mesh of fibrin and activated platelets formed at an injury site. 259) Secondary hemostasis - Correct answer the second stage of hemostasis, concluding with the formation of the hemostatic plug. 260) Fibrinolysis - Correct answer the breaking down of fibrin as an injury heals. 261) Plasmin - Correct answer enzyme that plays a vital role in breaking apart fibrin as an injury heals. 262) Clotting factor - Correct answer blood protein involved in the process of blood clotting. 263) Coagulation cascade - Correct answer the series of changes in the body to prevent blood loss while also avoiding unnecessary and dangerous excessive clotting. 264) Hemophilia - Correct answer a disorder that can cause excessive bleeding. 265) Thrombophilia - Correct answer a disorder that can cause excessive clotting. 266) Thrombus - Correct answer a clot formed within a blood vessel. 267) Pulmonary embolism - Correct answer a blood clot in the lungs; potentially deadly disorder. Page 16 of 24 268) Additive - Correct answer in phlebotomy, a chemical agent that affects how blood can be processed and tested. 269) Serum - Correct answer the liquid portion of blood that has been allowed to clot; it is distinct from plasma and does not contain fibrinogen. 270) Whole blood specimen - Correct answer an ant coagulated blood specimen that has not been separated into solid and liquid components by spinning in a centrifuge. 271) Buffy coat - Correct answer the middle layer of an ant coagulated blood specimen that has been spun in a centrifuge; contains white blood cells and platelets. 272) Blood culture - Correct answer a test for the presence of bacterial or fungal pathogens in the blood. 273) Peripheral blood smear - Correct answer a way of preparing blood for viewing under a microscope. 274) Preanalytical errors - Correct answer errors in diagnostic testing that occur prior to that actual analysis of a specimen (e.g., use of the wrong collection tube). 275) fasting - Correct answer in medicine, the requirement to not eat or drink anything but water for a specified amount of time, usually 8-12 hours, prior to a test or procedure. 276) Basal state - Correct answer a rested state in which no food or beverage except water has been consumed in the last 12 hours and no strenuous exercise has been performed. 277) Order of draw - Correct answer the standard sequence in which collection tubes are filled during a blood draw. 278) Evacuated tube system - Correct answer a needle, holder, and vacuum tube used together to collect blood specimens by venipuncture. 279) Multisampling needle - Correct answer a double-sided needle used in phlebotomy; one side pierces the patient's skin and the other punctures the stoppers of collection tubes. 280) Hub - Correct answer the threaded area at the base of a phlebotomy needle that can be screwed into a holder or syringe. 281) Bevel - Correct answer the angled opening of a phlebotomy needle. 282) Gauge - Correct answer indication of the size of a phlebotomy needle; higher gauge numbers correspond to thinner needles. Page 17 of 24 315) Hem concentration - Correct answer a buildup of blood cells (solid components) relative the liquid components of the blood. 316) Hemolysis - Correct answer destruction of red blood cells. 317) Antecubital fossa - Correct answer the area inside the elbow. 318) Median cubical vein - Correct answer well-anchored vein in the middle of the antecubital fossa; first priority site for venipuncture. 319) Cephalic vein - Correct answer one of the veins present in the antecubital fossa; may be used for venipuncture. 320) Basilica vein - Correct answer one of the veins present in the antecubital area; may be used for venipuncture, but 321) Considered to be the vein of last resort due to its proximity to nerves and an artery. - Correct answer 322) Median cephalic vein - Correct answer one of the veins present in the antecubital area. 323) Hematoma - Correct answer injury caused by leaked blood beneath the skin. 324) Iatrogenic anemia - Correct answer a type of anemia caused by excessive removal of a patient's blood (e.g., by phlebotomy); especially common in infants and patients in intensive care wards. 325) Phobia - Correct answer a strong fear, usually inexplicable or illogical. 326) Lymphedema - Correct answer a condition caused by faulty lymphatic draining; a risk if phlebotomy is performed on an arm on the same side as a previous mastectomy. 327) Arteriovenous (AV) fistula - Correct answer a connection between a vein and an artery. 328) Graft - Correct answer a place where a person's vein has been redirected to a surgically implanted vein. 329) Phlebitis - Correct answer inflammation of superficial veins. 330) Petechial - Correct answer a condition in which small, flat red or purple dots appear on the skin as a result of leaking capillaries. 331) Integrity - Correct answer having high quality and reliability. Page 20 of 24 332) Micro clotting - Correct answer formation of small clots within a blood specimen. 333) QNS - Correct answer laboratory marking for quantity not sufficient; indicates a specimen that is too small to allow ordered tests to be performed. 334) Aerobic bottle - Correct answer in phlebotomy, a receptacle for the portion of a blood culture specimen to be tested for aerobic (oxygen-requiring) microorganisms. 335) Anaerobic bottle - Correct answer in phlebotomy, a receptacle for the portion of a blood culture specimen to be tested for anaerobic (non-oxygen- requiring) microorganisms. 336) Glucose challenge test - Correct answer initial form of glucose testing performed in pregnant women to screen for gestational diabetes; patients whose results are high take the full glucose tolerance test. 337) Aerobic bottle - Correct answer in phlebotomy, a receptacle for the portion of a blood culture specimen to be tested for aerobic (oxygen-requiring) microorganisms. 338) Anaerobic bottle - Correct answer in phlebotomy, a receptacle for the portion of a blood culture specimen to be tested for anaerobic (non-oxygen- requiring) microorganisms. 339) Glucose challenge test - Correct answer initial form of glucose testing performed in pregnant women to screen for gestational diabetes; patients whose results are high take the full glucose tolerance test. 340) Pipette - Correct answer a narrow tube, often with a suction bulb, used to remove liquid from a specimen. 341) Aliquot - Correct answer a small amount of a larger specimen. 342) Lip emic - Correct answer description of a plasma or serum specimen that is cloudy or milky looking due to fats in a patient's recent meal(s). 343) Icteric - Correct answer description of a plasma or serum specimen that is markedly yellow due to high bilirubin levels. 344) Pneumatic tube system - Correct answer a type of automated specimen transport system used in some healthcare facilities. 345) Heating blocks - Correct answer a rack designed to hold tubes in an upright position while maintaining a specific 346) Temperature. - Correct answer 347) Ice slurry - Correct answer a mixture of crushed ice and water. Page 21 of 24 348) Jaundice - Correct answer an excess of bilirubin in the blood. 349) Edema - Correct answer swelling. 350) Calcaneus - Correct answer the heel bone. 351) Osteomyelitis - Correct answer a bone infection that can be caused if a lancet used for finger stick or heel stick strikes the bone. 352) Plantar surface - Correct answer the sole of the foot. 353) Arterialize - Correct answer in phlebotomy, to make capillary blood more closely resemble arterial blood by warming a capillary puncture site. 354) Phenylketonuria - Correct answer a rare condition that can cause brain damage if left untreated; newborns are tested for this and other metabolic disorders. 355) PT/INR - Correct answer blood testing to determine a patient's prothrombin time and international normalized ratio, measures of blood clotting. 356) Critical value - Correct answer range for diagnostic testing results that requires intervention and must be reported immediately. 357) Swab - Correct answer pad of synthetic material at the end of a stick or wire. 358) Aspirate - Correct answer to draw by suction. 359) Culture and sensitivity test - Correct answer test performed on urine to identify microorganisms present and to aid in antibiotic selection. 360) Routine urine specimen - Correct answer a urine specimen that can be collected at any time; also called a 361) Random urine specimen. - Correct answer 362) First void urine specimen - Correct answer urine specimen collected when a patient first urinates in the morning. 363) Clean-catch urine specimen - Correct answer urine specimen collected in such a way that contamination of the specimen is reduced. 364) 24-hour urine specimen - Correct answer urine specimen collected by adding all urine produced over a full day/night period. 365) Catheter - Correct answer a thin tube inserted into the body (e.g., into the bladder through the urethra to extract urine). 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