HAZWOPER Final Exam Questions with 100% Correct verified Answer Latest Updated 2023., Exams of Workplace Safety

Download HAZWOPER Final Exam Questions with 100% Correct verified Answer Latest Updated 2023. and more Exams Workplace Safety in PDF only on Docsity! HAZWOPER Final Exam Questions with 100% Correct verified Answer Latest Updated 2023. 1. Which of the following is not an employee right under OSHA? - Correct answer To shut down a job you believe is unsafe [Type here] 2. A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) ____. - Correct answer Must be provided for chemicals used at a facility 3. The term "Superfund" is another name for which of the following? - Correct answer CERCLA 4. To protect the worker from exposure, which does OSHA indicate should occur first? - Correct answer Engineering controls 5. Operations that employ workers who must comply with the 29 CFR 1910.120 regulations do not include [Type here] Communication Standard? - Correct answer Respirator training 12. Which Act has the primary responsibility for hazardous waste? - Correct answer Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 13. A vertical standard is specific to a particular industry - Correct answer True 14. By identifying lines of authority, communication, and coordination among personnel and managers, the [Type here] ____ is being defined according to the General Health and Safety Program (HASP). - Correct answer Organizational Structure 15. The OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard requires that new employees at hazardous waste sites receive which of the following training? - Correct answer 40-hour training course on health and safety 16. Through planning, potential hazards may be anticipated and steps may be taken to reduce the risk of harm to workers, the public, and the environment using which of [Type here] the following? - Correct answer Safety and Health Program 17. Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response training is required for a person working at a hazardous waste at a Treatment, Storage, Disposal Facility. - Correct answer True 18. The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals is associated with which of the following? - Correct answer Safety data sheets [Type here] 25. When should monitoring be conducted at a hazardous waste site? - Correct answer Upon initial entry to identify and IDLH conditions 26. Atmospheric monitoring is only required after the workers have entered the site. - Correct answer False 27. A change in weather will not affect the hazards at a work site. - Correct answer False 28. When locating a Command post, which of the following can have the [Type here] greatest impact on employee safety? - Correct answer Wind direction 29. The Site Health and Safety Plan should contain contingency plans for unpredictable events such as fire or physical injury. - Correct answer True 30. After the plan for a hazardous waste site is implemented, it should be periodically examined to reflect any site condition changes. - Correct answer True 31. The primary purpose of a site health and safety plan is which of the [Type here] following? - Correct answer To ensure the safety and health of workers and responders 32. Emergencies are not effected by which of the following? - Correct answer Location of the laboratory 33. It is the responsibility of the personnel involved at the site to comply with the requirements of the health and safety plan. - Correct answer True [Type here] 39. Upon completion of a site characterization, an activity that is not implemented is which of the following? - Correct answer Correct all instruments for elevation 40. When determining if immediately dangerous to life or health parameters are present in the workplace or an area, which of the following is not the most important parameter to be monitored? - Correct answer Water quality 41. Using LD50 as the measure of toxicity, which chemical is the most [Type here] toxic? - Correct answer Cyanide LD50 of 3 mg/kg 42. ACGIH defines Short-Term Exposure Limit (STEL) as a 15- minute TWA exposure that should not be exceeded at any time during the workday without the proper protective measures. A waste-site worker uses the STEL to protect himself/herself by ____. - Correct answer Realizing low STEL values represent more toxic chemicals 43. An IDLH atmosphere is an atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible [Type here] adverse health effects, or would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere. - Correct answer True 44. Legally enforceable exposure levels are established by____. - Correct answer OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) 45. TLV is an acronym for ____. - Correct answer Threshold limit value 46. The most common route of entry for exposure to toxic materials in the [Type here] 52. A Potentiation Effect is defined as which of the following? - Correct answer In some cases, a chemical without any known toxic effect may act together with a known toxic substance to make the toxic substance even more potent and more dangerous 53. An Antagonism Effect is defined as which of the following? - Correct answer The interaction of two toxic chemicals may be such that the effect produced is actually less than would be expected [Type here] 54. Which of the following is common to airborne hazards? - Correct answer The normally enter the body through breathing 55. A chemical that deprives the victim's tissues of oxygen is which of the following? - Correct answer Asphyxiate 56. Which exposure route is most likely to cause the immediate response of a burned esophagus to appear? - Correct answer Ingestion [Type here] 57. Ceiling Limit (C) is the level that should never be exceeded in the workplace without correct procedures and protective equipment. - Correct answer True 58. How can chemicals enter your bloodstream? - Correct answer All answers are correct 59. How much a worker is affected by an exposure to a chemical may depend upon ____. - Correct answer All answers are correct [Type here] 67. A Carcinogen can cause which of the following? - Correct answer Cancer 68. A Teratogen can cause which of the following?! - Correct answer Damage fetus development 69. A Mutagen can cause which of the following? - Correct answer Damage to Genes in sperm and egg cells 70. The NFPA 704-M system (hazard diamonds) identifies the hazards of materials in terms of____ excluding [Type here] the 4th category. - Correct answer Reactivity, health and flammability 71. A hazard is defined as which of the following? - Correct answer The capability of something causing you harm 72. Risk can be defined as which of the following? - Correct answer The probability and severity of a hazard 73. The white section of the NFPA 704-M hazard diamond provides information for which of the [Type here] following? - Correct answer Special hazards 74. The blue section of the NFPA sign designates which hazard?! - Correct answer Health 75. The number "4" in the red section of the NFPA sign indicates the material is which of the following? - Correct answer Extremely flammable 76. The yellow section of the NFPA sign indicates the material is which of the following? - Correct answer Reactive [Type here] 82. Safe work practices are important in hazardous waste operations. - Correct answer True 83. An unsafe condition can also be a physical hazard. - Correct answer True 84. A Job Hazard Analysis is performed to determine which of the following? - Correct answer Unsafe worker conditions 85. An unsafe condition, such as wet floors or broken equipment, could be [Type here] described as which of the following? - Correct answer Physical hazard 86. Heat stroke and hypothermia are examples of which of the following? - Correct answer Thermal stress 87. Which of the following forms of radiation will generally not penetrate intact skin but can be a serious hazard if ingested or inhaled? - Correct answer Alpha 88. What can you do to protect yourself from Gamma ionizing radiation exposure? - Correct answer [Type here] Limit your time of exposure to radiation 89. Roentgen Equivalent Man (REM) takes into account the energy absorbed (dose) and the biological effect on the body due to different types of radiation. - Correct answer True 90. iological effects of acute radiation exposure may include which of the following? - Correct answer All answers are correct [Type here] 97. A sheet of paper can block what type of radiation? - Correct answer Alpha 98. Protection from radiation does not include which of the following? - Correct answer Isotope half-life 99. Gamma and X radiation have a LET or QF of 1. - Correct answer True 100.Alpha particles have a QF of 20 and are considered as sever external radiation hazards. - Correct answer False [Type here] 101. If Level B PPE worn by a worker is contaminated with radiation material that can not be decontaminated then the contaminated Level B PPE can be used in future radiation jobs. - Correct answer False 102.A scintillation radiation instrument is used to detect which of the following types of radiation? - Correct answer X Rays 103.Electricity generation in the USA using nuclear power plants has [Type here] provided approximately which of the following percent of the net generation? - Correct answer 20% 104.Which of the following is the correct inspection schedule for respirators? - Correct answer Before and after each use 105.What precautionary measures should workers take when using a North half-face air purifying respirator to reduce their risk of exposure? - Correct answer Remove contact lenses [Type here] hazard, hazard concentration, oxygen content 112. In an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life and health, the best respiratory protection is which of the following?! - Correct answer Self-contained, positive pressure demand breathing apparatus 113.Only your lungs can be damaged when breathing toxic chemicals. - Correct answer False [Type here] 114. It is acceptable to wear a dust mask as protection against spray paint vapors. - Correct answer False 115.The primary purpose of quantitative or qualitative fit testing is to identify the specific model, make, and size of respirator that best suites each person. - Correct answer False 116.A person's eyes are better protected by which of the following respirators? - Correct answer Full face [Type here] 117.Methanol has a TLV of 200 ppm; the odor of methanol is not detected until a concentration of 2000 ppm in air is reached. For protection, the best respirator to wear is which of the following? - Correct answer A SAR with escape bottle 118. It is permissible to modify a respirator to make a different brand of cartridge to fit the respirator. - Correct answer False 119.Select the incorrect statement relating to respirators. - Correct answer You must wear contact [Type here] 125.Using Level C personal protective equipment includes which of the following?! - Correct answer Wearing an air-purifying respirator 126.The Level of Protection that provides the highest degree of respiratory and skin protection against gases and vapors is? - Correct answer Level A 127.A written comprehensive PPE program should include? - Correct answer Medical monitoring, Hazard [Type here] identification, Decontamination procedures 128.Selection of chemical protective clothing will depend on the chemicals present and the tasks to be accomplished.! - Correct answer True 129.Heat stress on the human body includes both "heat exhaustion" and "heat stroke." Which statement about "heat stroke" is true? - Correct answer Heat stroke is a life- threatening emergency [Type here] 130.Over-protection and under- protection can be hazardous and should be considered carefully when selecting chemical protective clothing. - Correct answer True 131.Selection of a chemical resistant glove is intended to protect the wearer ___. - Correct answer Against specific chemicals 132.Chemical reactions can degrade some protective clothing. - Correct answer True [Type here] 139.The ensemble of equipment referred to as Level A protection is generally the minimum level recommended for an initial entry until the site hazards have been further identified.! - Correct answer True 140.Level D protective ensembles provide no protection to a worker at all. - Correct answer False 141.Class C helmets provide protection for which of the following? - Correct answer Impact hazards, limited chemical [Type here] 142.The following protective equipment is required for a worker handling toxic chemicals that when dispensed or handled may splash. - Correct answer All of the answers are correct 143.Employers must provide training to employees who are required to use PPE. This training must include all of the following except which of the following? - Correct answer How to purchase cost-effective PPE 144.Safety shoes and boots worn when working in areas where there is a danger of foot injuries must comply [Type here] with which of the following organization specifications? - Correct answer ANSI 145.Class G (formerly A) helmets provide impact and penetration resistance as well as protection from: - Correct answer Low-voltage electrical hazards (2,200 volts) 146.Class E (formerly B) helmets can provide electrical protection from high-voltage conductors and are proof-tested to 20,000 volts. - Correct answer True [Type here] answer It should be used when working in the Exclusion Zone 153.What is the function of the Contamination Reduction Zone? - Correct answer All of the answers are correct 154.Which of the following is not true of the Support Zone? - Correct answer Should be as close to the Exclusion Zone as possible 155.The most important reason to set up "work zones" at a waste site is ____. - Correct answer To isolate a [Type here] hazardous area and lessen the risk to the public and waste site workers 156.Site Control Preparation includes all of the following except ____.: - Correct answer Developing a sampling plan 157.When should a site map be developed? - Correct answer Prior to initial site entry 158.Which of the following zones is considered to be least contaminated? - Correct answer Support Zone [Type here] 159.The exclusion zone is an area that is least contaminated and does not require special PPE to enter. - Correct answer False 160.The hot line can be described by which of the following? - Correct answer The point where the worker enters or leaves an exclusion zone 161.The following facilities are located in the Support Zone. - Correct answer Command post, worker rest area, medical station [Type here] 167.The decontamination procedure discussed in class has how many steps? - Correct answer 6 steps 168.Decontamination takes place in which of the following zones? - Correct answer Contamination Reduction Zone 169.A Responder's PPE apparel may become contaminated while working at a hazardous substance incident by which of the following? - Correct answer All of the answers are correct [Type here] 170.Decontamination of equipment and PPE is generally not dependent on which of the following? - Correct answer The overall cost 171.The most important factor to consider when deciding upon decontamination methods is which of the following? - Correct answer The type of contaminant involved 172.A low pressure warning alarm sounds on a SCBA unit, what should the worker do? - Correct answer Signal your partner and get out of the hazard area as soon as possible [Type here] 173.Decontamination procedures must be developed and implemented ___. - Correct answer Before anyone enters a hot zone work site 174.A decontamination plan will have which of the following elements? - Correct answer Methods and procedures, type of decon station, disposal methods, written plan 175.Which is the highest priority during an emergency decontamination involving a chemically contaminated worker who [Type here] Correct answer A designee of the individual 182.Under the record keeping requirements of the OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard, the employer must maintain and preserve medical records of a worker's exposure to hazardous materials for what period of time? - Correct answer For the term of employment, plus 30 years 183.How often should a Team Member be examined according to federal regulations? - Correct answer Upon entering, on a periodic basis; [Type here] following appearance of symptoms that indicate exposure; and upon termination from a Hazardous Materials Team 184.Why is assessment of the cardiovascular system an important part of a baseline medical surveillance exam? - Correct answer It identifies people with cardiovascular risk factors so they will not be permitted to use personal protective equipment including respirators [Type here] 185.Who is required to pay for work- related medical surveillance exams? - Correct answer The employer 186.Which statement about medical exams is false? - Correct answer All medical conditions must be reported to the employer by the examining physician whether or not they affect work performance 187.Which of the following is the most important relating to heat stroke? - Correct answer Professional medical treatment must be administered as soon as possible [Type here] examining physician whether or not they affect work performance. - Correct answer False 194.According to OSHA standards, any hazardous waste site worker that wears a respirator more than 30 days a year must enter into the medical surveillance program. - Correct answer True 195. . According to OSHA, employees who are required to wear respirators should have a medical evaluation prior to using a respirator.! - Correct answer True [Type here] 196.The employer can require that workers take a pre-placement medical examination as a condition of employment - Correct answer True 197.All medical examinations and procedures shall be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, preferably one knowledgeable in occupational medicine. - Correct answer True 198.Alcohol helps to retain body fluid for longer periods of time. - Correct answer False [Type here] 199.There should be a specific medical program for each hazardous waste site.! - Correct answer True 200.Workers being exposed to a hazardous substance above its PEL value must have a medical examination - Correct answer True 201. In hot environments, wait until you are thirsty before drinking water. - Correct answer False 202.When using portable air monitoring instruments, all of the [Type here] LEL = 9%. Which of the following is true regarding the CGI reading? - Correct answer Due to an oxygen deficient atmosphere, the actual concentration of flammable gas is higher than indicated by the meter. 208.An oxygen atmosphere of less than ___ is considered "oxygen deficient" by OSHA standards. 209.23% - Correct answer 19.5% 210. If a direct reading instrument indicates the air is 25 percent of the LEL, then you should. - Correct answer Leave the work area immediately [Type here] 211.A primary purpose of a CGI is to detect which of the following? - Correct answer Flammable atmospheres 212.Colorimetric tubes designed to be used for a specific chemical can be affected by other chemicals present.! - Correct answer True 213.Flame ionization detectors are generally used to detect and measure organic compounds. - Correct answer True [Type here] 214.Selectivity (specificity) is the ability of an instrument to detect and measure a specific chemical or class of chemicals. - Correct answer True 215.The LEL value is the explosive limit at the upper concentration of a flammable compound. - Correct answer False 216.Sampling techniques can include both area and personal sampling. - Correct answer True 217.Temperature, ambient pressure, and humidity have no effect on the [Type here] - Correct answer Passive sampling & Active sampling 224.What Subpart under OSHA standards contains at least 28 substances and requires a personal sampling plan to be initiated for waste site workers? - Correct answer Subpart Z 225. In addition to mechanical pumps, what else is required in order to get active sampling system results?! - Correct answer A laboratory to analyze collection media [Type here] 226.The following may be used for passive sampling except for which one? - Correct answer Air pump- sample medium samplers 227.Advantages of passive samplers include all except which of the following? - Correct answer A pump is required 228.Radiation dosimeters only detect alpha and beta radiation. - Correct answer False 229.Temperature and humidity have no effect on the accuracy (results) of [Type here] passive samplers. - Correct answer False 230.Calibration is required for all personal monitors. - Correct answer False 231.Personal dosimeters must always be direct reading. - Correct answer False 232.Passive samplers are all direct reading. - Correct answer False 233.Which of the following should be avoided while sampling drums? - [Type here] 240.A sample is considered not to be in a person's custody if it is: - Correct answer Out of view and unsecure 241.Chain of custody standard operating procedures do not apply to environmental sampling procedures. - Correct answer False 242.Sample locations do not need to be logged into an official site document. - Correct answer False 243.Over pumping a well can alter groundwater flow or affect the [Type here] movement of contaminants. - Correct answer True 244.Sampling can be one of the most dangerous activities on a hazardous waste site. The process of opening and sampling a hazardous waste container may place workers in direct contact with unidentified waste. - Correct answer True 245.The volume of purged water to be removed should be specified in the sampling plan. An alternative to volume-based removal is to monitor the water level, temperature, [Type here] conductivity, and pH, as the well is purged. - Correct answer True 246.Drum and container sampling is not a hazardous activities to a worker's safety and health because it involves sampling of materials that are contained. - Correct answer False 247.A COLIWASA is a devise used to collect a sample of hazardous wastes, liquids, slurry-type sludge's and semi-solids from drums. - Correct answer True [Type here] 254.The regulation pertaining to highway shipments of hazardous materials requires shipping papers to be located in which of the following? - Correct answer Driver's possession, in a holder of the driver's door or within the driver's reach in the cab 255.The large diamond-shaped DOT signs found on the outside of a highway transport truck are called what? - Correct answer Placards 256. "Overpacking" is a term used to describe the act of which of the [Type here] following? - Correct answer Placing one drum inside another 257.Where would you find the Department of Transportation shipping regulations for hazardous materials? - Correct answer 49 CFR 258.Lockout and tagout of equipment is required for which of the following?! - Correct answer During any maintenance procedure 259.Standing orders apply to which of the following? - Correct answer Should be reviewed with the field [Type here] crew at the beginning of each workday 260. If a drum exhibits radiation levels above background, which of the following is the correct procedure? - Correct answer Immediately leave the area contact a health physicist 261.Tagout of an electrical switch will keep it from being activated. - Correct answer False 262.Workplace hazards can include the following: thermal stress, radiation, noise, UV light, vapors, [Type here] 268.OSHA regulations do not cover worker health and safety concerns. - Correct answer False 269.Confined spaces should be tested for which of the following hazards before an entry? - Correct answer Carbon monoxide, oxygen, flammability, toxicity 270.The OSHA definition for a confined space contains which of the following? - Correct answer Not intended for habitation, limited means of entry and exit, can enter and perform work [Type here] 271.Which of the following confined space rescue procedures is considered the most advantageous? - Correct answer Self-rescue 272.Whose job responsibility is it to summon emergency medical assistance in the event of a medical problem? - Correct answer Attendant 273.Prior to entering a permit required confined space which of the following should be implemented? - Correct answer Personnel are trained, permit [Type here] is issued, air monitoring conducted, Correct PPE is used 274.Ventilation should be used prior to entry into a confined space for one of the following? - Correct answer A flammable atmosphere exists 275.Monitoring prior to entering a confined space must be completed in the following sequence: - Correct answer Oxygen deficiency, flammability, toxins 276.The leading cause of death in a confined space is which of the [Type here]