HAZWOPER Final Exam Study Guide | 315 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Lat, Exams of Materials science

Download HAZWOPER Final Exam Study Guide | 315 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Lat and more Exams Materials science in PDF only on Docsity! HAZWOPER Final Exam Study Guide | 315 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest Update | 41 Pages 1. Which of the following is not an employee right under OSHA? - Correct answer To shut down a job you believe is unsafe 2. A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) ____. - Correct answer Must be provided for chemicals used at a facility 3. The term "Superfund" is another name for which of the following? - Correct answer CERCLA 4. To protect the worker from exposure, which does OSHA indicate should occur first? - Correct answer Engineering controls 5. Operations that employ workers who must comply with the 29 CFR 1910.120 regulations do not include which of the following? Correct - Correct answer Risk analysis of hazardous chemical releases 6. Which governmental body is responsible for safety at a hazardous waste site? - Correct answer OSHA 7. Complete enclosure of a sandblast operation is an example of _____. - Correct answer Engineering controls 8. Is the use of "common sense" a good practice to protect a worker from exposure to hazards? - Correct answer False 9. Using steam cleaning instead of solvent-based cleaning is an example of ____. - Correct answer Engineering 10.Wearing a respirator to remove toxic vapors from your breathing air is an example of which of the following? - Correct answer PPE 11.Which of the following is not an element of the Hazard Communication Standard? - Correct answer Respirator training 12.Which Act has the primary responsibility for hazardous waste? - Correct answer Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) 13.A vertical standard is specific to a particular industry - Correct answer True 14.By identifying lines of authority, communication, and coordination among personnel and managers, the ____ is being defined according to the General Health and Safety Program (HASP). - Correct answer Organizational Structure 15.The OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard requires that new employees at hazardous waste sites receive which of the following training? - Correct answer 40-hour training course on health and safety 16.Through planning, potential hazards may be anticipated and steps may be taken to reduce the risk of harm to workers, the public, and the environment using which of the following? - Correct answer Safety and Health Program 17.Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response training is required for a person working at a hazardous waste at a Treatment, Storage, Disposal Facility. - Correct answer True 18.The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals is associated with which of the following? - Correct answer Safety data sheets reporting an emergency due to a hazardous chemical spill? - Correct answer The chemicals and quantities involved 39.Upon completion of a site characterization, an activity that is not implemented is which of the following? - Correct answer Correct all instruments for elevation 40.When determining if immediately dangerous to life or health parameters are present in the workplace or an area, which of the following is not the most important parameter to be monitored? - Correct answer Water quality 41.Using LD50 as the measure of toxicity, which chemical is the most toxic? - Correct answer Cyanide LD50 of 3 mg/kg 42.ACGIH defines Short-Term Exposure Limit (STEL) as a 15-minute TWA exposure that should not be exceeded at any time during the workday without the proper protective measures. A waste-site worker uses the STEL to protect himself/herself by ____. - Correct answer Realizing low STEL values represent more toxic chemicals 43.An IDLH atmosphere is an atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere. - Correct answer True 44.Legally enforceable exposure levels are established by____. - Correct answer OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) 45.TLV is an acronym for ____. - Correct answer Threshold limit value 46.The most common route of entry for exposure to toxic materials in the work place is?! - Correct answer Inhalation 47.Which of the factors listed, that affect the response of humans and living organisms to toxic chemicals, is time dependent? - Correct answer Dose 48.Acute exposure symptoms may include which of the following? - Correct answer All answers are correct 49. . A toxic effect described as a severe injury by a one-time short exposure to a harmful chemical is known as - Correct answer Acute 50.An additive effect is defined as which of the following? - Correct answer The addition of toxic chemical effects in producing a biological effect 51.A Synergistic Effect is defined as which of the following? - Correct answer The exposure to two different toxic chemicals that produces a more severe effect than simply doubling the dose of wither one alone 52.A Potentiation Effect is defined as which of the following? - Correct answer In some cases, a chemical without any known toxic effect may act together with a known toxic substance to make the toxic substance even more potent and more dangerous 53.An Antagonism Effect is defined as which of the following? - Correct answer The interaction of two toxic chemicals may be such that the effect produced is actually less than would be expected 54.Which of the following is common to airborne hazards? - Correct answer The normally enter the body through breathing 55.A chemical that deprives the victim's tissues of oxygen is which of the following? - Correct answer Asphyxiate 56.Which exposure route is most likely to cause the immediate response of a burned esophagus to appear? - Correct answer Ingestion 57.Ceiling Limit (C) is the level that should never be exceeded in the workplace without correct procedures and protective equipment. - Correct answer True 58.How can chemicals enter your bloodstream? - Correct answer All answers are correct 59.How much a worker is affected by an exposure to a chemical may depend upon ____. - Correct answer All answers are correct 60.Which type of airborne hazard probably results from grinding clean, dry metal parts? - Correct answer Dust 61.Chronic exposures are possible in hazardous waste sites - Correct answer True 62.Which of the following is not a method of identifying hazardous materials? - Correct answer Panels with an ID number 63.An irritant can cause which of the following? - Correct answer Skin to itch upon contact 64.A cryogen can cause which of the following? - Correct answer Freeze the skin on contact 65.A Target organ chemical can cause which of the following? - Correct answer Liver damage 66.A Sensitizer can cause which of the following? - Correct answer Allergic-like responses 86.Which of the following forms of radiation will generally not penetrate intact skin but can be a serious hazard if ingested or inhaled? - Correct answer Alpha 87.What can you do to protect yourself from Gamma ionizing radiation exposure? - Correct answer Limit your time of exposure to radiation 88.Roentgen Equivalent Man (REM) takes into account the energy absorbed (dose) and the biological effect on the body due to different types of radiation. - Correct answer True 89. iological effects of acute radiation exposure may include which of the following? - Correct answer All answers are correct 90.Chronic effects of radiation exposure include which of the following? - Correct answer Cancer and cataracts 91.The acronym ALARA stands for which of the following? - Correct answer As low as reasonably achievable 92.Three basic radiation principles used to reduce exposure to ionizing radiation are ____. - Correct answer Time, distance, shielding 93.Radiation detection and monitoring is crucial for all of the reasons below except which one? - Correct answer Radiation can be detected by the human nose (order) 94.Some atoms in nature occasionally split (fission) and give off radiation - Correct answer True 95.Radiation can be detected and measured with a great deal of precision. - Correct answer True 96.A sheet of paper can block what type of radiation? - Correct answer Alpha 97.Protection from radiation does not include which of the following? - Correct answer Isotope half-life 98.Gamma and X radiation have a LET or QF of 1. - Correct answer True 99.Alpha particles have a QF of 20 and are considered as sever external radiation hazards. - Correct answer False 100. If Level B PPE worn by a worker is contaminated with radiation material that can not be decontaminated then the contaminated Level B PPE can be used in future radiation jobs. - Correct answer False 101. A scintillation radiation instrument is used to detect which of the following types of radiation? - Correct answer X Rays 102. Electricity generation in the USA using nuclear power plants has provided approximately which of the following percent of the net generation? - Correct answer 20% 1. Which of the following is the correct inspection schedule for respirators? - Correct answer Before and after each use 103. What precautionary measures should workers take when using a North half-face air purifying respirator to reduce their risk of exposure? - Correct answer Remove contact lenses 104. Before a person wears any respirator on the work site, what must be done? - Correct answer Have training on proper respirator use 105. The two types of respirator fit testing are? - Correct answer Qualitative, quantitative 106. The class of respiratory protection that is not recommended for use in hazardous atmosphere containing less that 19.5% oxygen is which of the following? - Correct answer Air-purifying respirator 107. You must have an emergency pack of air when wearing a supplied air respirator - Correct answer True 108. Select the best answer relating to atmosphere supplied respirators. - Correct answer Atmosphere supplied respirators are the best protection against IDLH respiratory hazards 109. What three variables must be identified before air-purifying respirators can be considered for use? - Correct answer Identity of hazard, hazard concentration, oxygen content 110. In an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life and health, the best respiratory protection is which of the following?! - Correct answer Self- contained, positive pressure demand breathing apparatus 111. Only your lungs can be damaged when breathing toxic chemicals. - Correct answer False 112. It is acceptable to wear a dust mask as protection against spray paint vapors. - Correct answer False 130. Chemical reactions can degrade some protective clothing. - Correct answer True 131. Which of the following factors regarding PPE utilization can the wearer directly control? - Correct answer Type of protective ensemble selected 132. Wearing Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) prevents what route of exposure to hazardous materials? - Correct answer Skin 133. Heat Stress is a concern for workers only in the summer months - Correct answer False 134. Which of the following is least likely to make heat stress worse?! - Correct answer High wind velocity 135. Knowing the specific hazards involved in the job is important even though you are wearing protective clothing.! - Correct answer True 136. Air supply consumption when using a SCBA depends on which of the following? - Correct answer Fitness, body size, work rate, breathing pattern 137. The ensemble of equipment referred to as Level A protection is generally the minimum level recommended for an initial entry until the site hazards have been further identified.! - Correct answer True 138. Level D protective ensembles provide no protection to a worker at all. - Correct answer False 139. Class C helmets provide protection for which of the following? - Correct answer Impact hazards, limited chemical 140. The following protective equipment is required for a worker handling toxic chemicals that when dispensed or handled may splash. - Correct answer All of the answers are correct 141. Employers must provide training to employees who are required to use PPE. This training must include all of the following except which of the following? - Correct answer How to purchase cost-effective PPE 142. Safety shoes and boots worn when working in areas where there is a danger of foot injuries must comply with which of the following organization specifications? - Correct answer ANSI 143. Class G (formerly A) helmets provide impact and penetration resistance as well as protection from: - Correct answer Low-voltage electrical hazards (2,200 volts) 144. Class E (formerly B) helmets can provide electrical protection from high- voltage conductors and are proof-tested to 20,000 volts. - Correct answer True 145. Which three different types of hand hazards can be avoided by wearing hand protection? - Correct answer Chemical hazards, cut hazards, thermal hazards 146. Wearing Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) prevents which route of exposure to hazardous materials?! - Correct answer Skin 147. A correctly designed Health and Safety Plan provides procedures for the selection of PPE or a combination of PPE components (respirator & canister, gloves, clothing, etc.) that will protect the wearer ___. - Correct answer Against specific agents as determined for a definite job 148. Each type of protective clothing has a specific purpose as well as certain limitations. - Correct answer True 149. Which of the following site zones is considered to be most contaminated? - Correct answer Exclusion Zone 150. Which one of the following is true about the buddy system? - Correct answer It should be used when working in the Exclusion Zone 151. What is the function of the Contamination Reduction Zone? - Correct answer All of the answers are correct 152. Which of the following is not true of the Support Zone? - Correct answer Should be as close to the Exclusion Zone as possible 153. The most important reason to set up "work zones" at a waste site is ____. - Correct answer To isolate a hazardous area and lessen the risk to the public and waste site workers 154. Site Control Preparation includes all of the following except ____.: - Correct answer Developing a sampling plan 155. When should a site map be developed? - Correct answer Prior to initial site entry 156. Which of the following zones is considered to be least contaminated? - Correct answer Support Zone 157. The exclusion zone is an area that is least contaminated and does not require special PPE to enter. - Correct answer False 175. Protective clothing and respirators can help prevent worker contamination - Correct answer True 176. In an emergency the primary concern is the protection of property - Correct answer False 177. Rescuers do not have to take measures to prevent the spread of contamination - Correct answer False 178. What is the primary purpose of a medical surveillance program? - Correct answer Assess and monitor a worker's health before employment as well as during the course of employment 179. Other than the individual examinee, who has access to an individual's medical records? - Correct answer A designee of the individual 180. Under the record keeping requirements of the OSHA Hazardous Waste Standard, the employer must maintain and preserve medical records of a worker's exposure to hazardous materials for what period of time? - Correct answer For the term of employment, plus 30 years 181. How often should a Team Member be examined according to federal regulations? - Correct answer Upon entering, on a periodic basis; following appearance of symptoms that indicate exposure; and upon termination from a Hazardous Materials Team 182. Why is assessment of the cardiovascular system an important part of a baseline medical surveillance exam? - Correct answer It identifies people with cardiovascular risk factors so they will not be permitted to use personal protective equipment including respirators 183. Who is required to pay for work-related medical surveillance exams? - Correct answer The employer 184. Which statement about medical exams is false? - Correct answer All medical conditions must be reported to the employer by the examining physician whether or not they affect work performance 185. Which of the following is the most important relating to heat stroke? - Correct answer Professional medical treatment must be administered as soon as possible 186. Medical program management should encourage employees to participate in which of the following? - Correct answer All of the answers are correct 187. The most effective first aid treatment for heat exhaustion is which of the following? - Correct answer Take the victim to a cooler area and lay them down to allow blood to return to the head quickly 188. Which of the following is not an element of a hazardous waste site medical program? - Correct answer Assessing and assigning the correct site control at the work site 189. Which of the following is not a component of an employee medical program?! - Correct answer Recreation 190. Which of the following is the most serious of the health problem caused by heat? - Correct answer Heat stroke 191. All medical conditions must be reported to the employer by the examining physician whether or not they affect work performance. - Correct answer False 192. According to OSHA standards, any hazardous waste site worker that wears a respirator more than 30 days a year must enter into the medical surveillance program. - Correct answer True 193. . According to OSHA, employees who are required to wear respirators should have a medical evaluation prior to using a respirator.! - Correct answer True 194. The employer can require that workers take a pre-placement medical examination as a condition of employment - Correct answer True 195. All medical examinations and procedures shall be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician, preferably one knowledgeable in occupational medicine. - Correct answer True 196. Alcohol helps to retain body fluid for longer periods of time. - Correct answer False 197. There should be a specific medical program for each hazardous waste site.! - Correct answer True 198. Workers being exposed to a hazardous substance above its PEL value must have a medical examination - Correct answer True 199. In hot environments, wait until you are thirsty before drinking water. - Correct answer False 200. When using portable air monitoring instruments, all of the following are required except which of the following?! - Correct answer Superficially safe 220. Data obtained from air monitoring instruments is not useful for which of the following? - Correct answer Determining which brand of respirator will be used by a worker 221. Two types of personal sampling systems are which of the following?! - Correct answer Passive sampling & Active sampling 222. What Subpart under OSHA standards contains at least 28 substances and requires a personal sampling plan to be initiated for waste site workers? - Correct answer Subpart Z 223. In addition to mechanical pumps, what else is required in order to get active sampling system results?! - Correct answer A laboratory to analyze collection media 224. The following may be used for passive sampling except for which one? - Correct answer Air pump-sample medium samplers 225. Advantages of passive samplers include all except which of the following? - Correct answer A pump is required 226. Radiation dosimeters only detect alpha and beta radiation. - Correct answer False 227. Temperature and humidity have no effect on the accuracy (results) of passive samplers. - Correct answer False 228. Calibration is required for all personal monitors. - Correct answer False 229. Personal dosimeters must always be direct reading. - Correct answer False 230. Passive samplers are all direct reading. - Correct answer False 231. Which of the following should be avoided while sampling drums? - Correct answer Leaning over one drum to reach another 232. A sampling plan has all of the following elements except for which of the following? - Correct answer Emergency spill response information 233. Generally samples should be kept at ____ until they are sent to the lab.! - Correct answer 4° C 234. Air monitoring is required during which of the following? - Correct answer Until site cleanup is complete 235. Sampling drums requires which of the following? - Correct answer Follow a carefully documented plan 236. Drums that are suspected of having very flammable or contact detonation chemicals should be opened with which of the following type of tools? - Correct answer Brass 237. Sample labels should have which of the following? - Correct answer Date & time, preservative, name of person, analysis, sample ID 238. A sample is considered not to be in a person's custody if it is: - Correct answer Out of view and unsecure 239. Chain of custody standard operating procedures do not apply to environmental sampling procedures. - Correct answer False 240. Sample locations do not need to be logged into an official site document. - Correct answer False 241. Over pumping a well can alter groundwater flow or affect the movement of contaminants. - Correct answer True 242. Sampling can be one of the most dangerous activities on a hazardous waste site. The process of opening and sampling a hazardous waste container may place workers in direct contact with unidentified waste. - Correct answer True 243. The volume of purged water to be removed should be specified in the sampling plan. An alternative to volume-based removal is to monitor the water level, temperature, conductivity, and pH, as the well is purged. - Correct answer True 244. Drum and container sampling is not a hazardous activities to a worker's safety and health because it involves sampling of materials that are contained. - Correct answer False 245. A COLIWASA is a devise used to collect a sample of hazardous wastes, liquids, slurry-type sludge's and semi-solids from drums. - Correct answer True 246. Wells may be purged using a variety of equipment, including a gas pressure displacement system, a submersible pump, and a peristaltic pump. - Correct answer True 247. A split spoon sampler is generally used to sample liquids - Correct answer False 266. OSHA regulations do not cover worker health and safety concerns. - Correct answer False 267. Confined spaces should be tested for which of the following hazards before an entry? - Correct answer Carbon monoxide, oxygen, flammability, toxicity 268. The OSHA definition for a confined space contains which of the following? - Correct answer Not intended for habitation, limited means of entry and exit, can enter and perform work 269. Which of the following confined space rescue procedures is considered the most advantageous? - Correct answer Self-rescue 270. Whose job responsibility is it to summon emergency medical assistance in the event of a medical problem? - Correct answer Attendant 271. Prior to entering a permit required confined space which of the following should be implemented? - Correct answer Personnel are trained, permit is issued, air monitoring conducted, Correct PPE is used 272. Ventilation should be used prior to entry into a confined space for one of the following? - Correct answer A flammable atmosphere exists 273. Monitoring prior to entering a confined space must be completed in the following sequence: - Correct answer Oxygen deficiency, flammability, toxins 274. The leading cause of death in a confined space is which of the following - Correct answer Oxygen deficiency 275. Written procedures for working in a confined space will provide the step by step procedures for which of the following? - Correct answer All of the answers are correct 276. A permit-required confined space has which of the following? - Correct answer Oxygen levels below 19.5%, A hazardous atmosphere, flammable atmosphere, IDLH atmosphere 277. A permit required confined space has all the following characteristics except? - Correct answer No occupational hazards are present 278. Explosions are the main cause of death in confined spaces. - Correct answer False 279. Rescue workers must have a permit to enter a confined space. - Correct answer False 280. Proper written procedures are important for confined space entry. - Correct answer True 281. In addition to cave-ins, other hazards associated with excavations include which of the following? - Correct answer Water accumulation, falls and equipment, hazardous atmospheres 282. All of the following are site conditions that need to be addressed prior to beginning an excavation project except which one? - Correct answer Building structure type 283. The following are methods of protecting workers in excavations except which one of the following? - Correct answer Fencing 284. When employees are required to work in a trench excavation 4 feet deep or deeper, OSHA regulations require ladders, steps, or other safe means of egress to be provided. - Correct answer Every 25 feet of lateral travel 285. OSHA's standards for trenching and excavation can be found in which of the following? - Correct answer 29 CFR 1926.650 286. According to OSHA, employers are responsible for which of the following? - Correct answer All of the answers are correct 287. A primary hazard that kills or injuries most workers in excavation work is ___. - Correct answer Cave-ins 288. An excavation deeper than 20 feet must have the approval of which of the following? - Correct answer A professional engineer 289. The types of soils evaluated to ensure that excavations are as safe as possible is which of the following? - Correct answer Type a, type b, type c 290. The excavation slope angle for all classification of soils is the same. - Correct answer False 291. According to OSHA construction standards, a trench is a narrow excavation made below the surface of the ground in which the depth is greater that the width, the width does not exceed 15 feet.! - Correct answer True 292. Soil mechanics is important to consider before designing protective systems such as benching, sloping, and shoring.! - Correct answer True 293. According to OSHA, the employer is responsible for providing safe access and egress from excavations. - Correct answer True