Health Assessment Exam1- Study Guide Questions And Answers, Exams of Health sciences

Download Health Assessment Exam1- Study Guide Questions And Answers and more Exams Health sciences in PDF only on Docsity! Health Assessment Exam1- Study Guide Questions And Answers Most Definite A+ Chapter 1 1.After completing an initial assessment of a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58 beats per minute. These types of data would be: a. Objective. b. Reflective. c. Subjective. d. Introspective. Objective data are what the health professional observes by inspecting, percussing, palpating, and auscultating during the physical examination. Subjective data is what the person says about him or herself during history taking. The terms reflective and introspective are not used to describe data. 2. A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, is nauseated, and “feels hot.” These types of data would be: a. Objective. b. Reflective. c. Subjective. d. Introspective. Subjective data are what the person says about him or herself during history taking. Objective data are what the health professional observes by inspecting, percussing, palpating, and auscultating during the physical examination. The terms reflective and introspective are not used to describe data. 3. The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the: a. Data base. b. Admitting data. c. Financial statement. d. Discharge summary. Together with the patient’s record and laboratory studies, the objective and subjective data form the data base. The other items are not part of the patient’s record, laboratory studies, or data. 10. Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse see relationships among the data? a. Validation b. Clustering related cues c. Identifying gaps in data d. Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant Clustering related cues helps the nurse see relationships among the data. 11. The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the diagnosis. a. Nursing b. Medical c. Admission d. Collaborative An accurate nursing diagnosis provides the basis for the selection of nursing interventions to achieve outcomes for which the nurse is accountable. The other items do not contribute to the development of appropriate nursing interventions. 12. The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use and includes which steps? a. Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, and follow-up b. Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, and discharge planning c. Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, and discharge planning d. Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation, and evaluation The nursing process is a method of problem solving that includes assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation, and evaluation. 13. A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems? a. Breathing, pain, and sleep b. Breathing, sleep, and pain c. Sleep, breathing, and pain d. Sleep, pain, and breathing First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, remembering the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation), followed by second-level problems, and then third-level problems. 14. Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning? a. Nursing diagnosis b. Medical diagnosis c. Diagnostic hypothesis d. Diagnostic assessment Diagnostic reasoning calls for the nurse to formulate a diagnostic hypothesis; the nursing process calls for a nursing diagnosis. 15. Barriers to incorporating EBP include: a. Nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating the quality of research studies. b. Lack of significant research studies. c. Insufficient clinical skills of nurses. d. Inadequate physical assessment skills. As individuals, nurses lack research skills in evaluating the quality of research studies, are isolated from other colleagues who are knowledgeable in research, and often lack the time to visit the library to read research. The other responses are not considered barriers. 16. What step of the nursing process includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview? a. Planning b. Diagnosis c. Evaluation d. Assessment Data collection, including performing the health history, physical examination, and interview, is the assessment step of the nursing process (see Figure 1-2). 17. During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help these problems? a. Form a committee to conduct research studies. b. Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards. c. Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies. d. Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies. Facilitating support for EBP would include teaching the nurses how to conduct electronic searches; time to visit the library may not be available for many nurses. Actually conducting research studies may be helpful in the long-run but not an immediate solution to reviewing existing research. 18. When reviewing the concepts of health, the nurse recalls that the components of holistic health include which of these? a. Disease originates from the external environment. b. The individual human is a closed system. c. Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state. d. Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent. Consideration of the whole person is the essence of holistic health, which views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent. The basis of disease originates from both the external environment and from within the person. Both the individual human and the external environment are open systems, continually changing and adapting, and each person is responsible for his or her own personal health state. 19. The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because: a. Disease can be prevented by treating the external environment. b. The majority of deaths among Americans while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures. c. Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns. d. Perform life-saving measures and delay asking any history questions until the patient is transferred to the intensive care unit. The emergency data base calls for a rapid collection of the data base, often concurrently compiled with life-saving measures. The other responses are not appropriate for the situation. 25. A 42-year-old patient of Asian descent is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that including cultural information in his health assessment is important to: a. Identify the cause of his illness. b. Make accurate disease diagnoses. c. Provide cultural health rights for the individual. d. Provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care. The inclusion of cultural considerations in the health assessment is of paramount importance to gathering data that are accurate and meaningful and to intervening with culturally sensitive and appropriate care. 26. In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes: a. Changing the patient’s perceptions of disease. b. Identifying biomedical model interventions. c. Identifying negative health acts of the consumer. d. Helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle. In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional is on helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle. 27. The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action? a. Establish priorities. b. Identify expected outcomes. c. Evaluate the individual’s condition, and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes. d. Interpret data, and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences. Evaluation is the next step after the implementation phase of the nursing process. During this step, the nurse evaluates the individual’s condition and compares the actual outcomes with expected outcomes (See Figure 1-2). 28. Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who: a. Has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance. b. Has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution. c. Sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients. d. Understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and recognizes the long-term goals for the patient. The proficient nurse, with more time and experience than the novice nurse, is able to understand a patient situation as a whole rather than as a list of tasks. The proficient nurse is able to see how today’s nursing actions can apply to the point the nurse wants the patient to reach at a future time. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply. a. Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes b. Hypoactive bowel sounds c. Nonproductive cough d. Edema, +2, noted on left hand e. Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion f. Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute Clustering related cues help the nurse recognize relationships among the data. The cues related to the patient’s respiratory status (e.g., wheezes, cough, report of dyspnea, respiration rate and rhythm) are all related. Cues related to bowels and peripheral edema are not related to the respiratory cues. MATCHING Put the following patient situations in order according to the level of priority. a. A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer. b. A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing. c. An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation. 1. a = First-level priority problem 2. b = Second-level priority problem 3. c = Third-level priority problem Chapter 2 1.The nurse is reviewing the development of culture. Which statement is correct regarding the development of one’s culture? Culture is: a. Genetically determined on the basis of racial background. b. Learned through language acquisition and socialization. b. Possesses some basic knowledge of the patient’s cultural background.” c. Applies the proper background knowledge of a patient’s cultural background to provide the best possible health care.” d. Understands and attends to the total context of the patient’s situation.” Culturally competent implies that the caregiver understands and attends to the total context of the individual’s situation. This competency includes awareness of immigration status, stress factors, other social factors, and cultural similarities and differences. It does not require the caregiver to speak the patient’s native language. 8. The nurse recognizes that an example of a person who is heritage consistent would be a: a. Woman who has adapted her clothing to the clothing style of her new country. b. Woman who follows the traditions that her mother followed regarding meals. c. Man who is not sure of his ancestor’s country of origin. d. Child who is not able to speak his parents’ native language. Someone who is heritage consistent lives a lifestyle that reflects his or her traditional heritage, not the norms and customs of the new country. 9. After a class on culture and ethnicity, the new graduate nurse reflects a correct understanding of the concept of ethnicity with which statement? a. “Ethnicity is dynamic and ever changing.” b. “Ethnicity is the belief in a higher power.” c. “Ethnicity pertains to a social group within the social system that claims shared values and traditions.” d. “Ethnicity is learned from birth through the processes of language acquisition and socialization.” Ethnicity pertains to a social group within the social system that claims to have variable traits, such as a common geographic origin, migratory status, religion, race, language, values, traditions, symbols, or food preferences. Culture is dynamic, ever changing, and learned from birth through the processes of language acquisition and socialization. Religion is the belief in a higher power. 10. The nurse is comparing the concepts of religion and spirituality. Which of the following is an appropriate component of one’s spirituality? a. Belief in and the worship of God or gods b. Attendance at a specific church or place of worship c. Personal effort made to find purpose and meaning in life d. Being closely tied to one’s ethnic background Spirituality refers to each person’s unique life experiences and his or her personal effort to find purpose and meaning in life. The other responses apply to religion. 11. A woman who has lived in the United States for a year after moving from Europe has learned to speak English and is almost finished with her college studies. She now dresses like her peers and says that her family in Europe would hardly recognize her. This nurse recognizes that this situation illustrates which concept? a. Assimilation b. Heritage consistency c. Biculturalism d. Acculturation Assimilation is the process by which a person develops a new cultural identity and becomes like members of the dominant culture. This concept does not reflect heritage consistency. Biculturalism is a dual pattern of identification; acculturation is the process of adapting to and acquiring another culture. 12. The nurse is conducting a heritage assessment. Which question is most appropriate for this assessment? a. “What is your religion?” b. “Do you mostly participate in the religious traditions of your family?” c. “Do you smoke?” d. “Do you have a history of heart disease?” Asking questions about participation in the religious traditions of family enables the nurse to assess a person’s heritage. Simply asking about one’s religion, smoking history, or health history does not reflect heritage. 13. In the majority culture of America, coughing, sweating, and diarrhea are symptoms of an illness. For some individuals of Mexican-American origin, however, these symptoms are a normal part of living. The nurse recognizes that this difference is true, probably because Mexican-Americans: a. Have less efficient immune systems and are often ill. b. Consider these symptoms part of normal living, not symptoms of ill health. c. Come from Mexico, and coughing is normal and healthy there. d. Are usually in a lower socioeconomic group and are more likely to be sick. The nurse needs to identify the meaning of health to the patient, remembering that concepts are derived, in part, from the way in which members of the cultural group define health. 14. The nurse is reviewing theories of illness. The germ theory, which states that microscopic organisms such as bacteria and viruses are responsible for specific disease conditions, is a basic belief of which theory of illness? a. Holistic b. Biomedical c. Naturalistic d. Magicoreligious Among the biomedical explanations for disease is the germ theory, which states that microscopic organisms such as bacteria and viruses are responsible for specific disease conditions. The naturalistic, or holistic, perspective holds that the forces of nature must be kept in natural balance. The magicoreligious perspective holds that supernatural forces dominate and cause illness or health. 15. An Asian-American woman is experiencing diarrhea, which is believed to be “cold” or “yin.” The nurse expects that the woman is likely to try to treat it with: a. Foods that are “hot” or “yang.” b. Readings and Eastern medicine meditations. c. High doses of medicines believed to be “cold.” d. No treatment is tried because diarrhea is an expected part of life. parts is a Western concept). 21. A 63-year-old Chinese-American man enters the hospital with complaints of chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations. Which statement most accurately reflects the nurse’s best course of action? a. The nurse should focus on performing a full cardiac assessment. b. The nurse should focus on psychosomatic complaints because the patient has just learned that his wife has cancer. c. This patient is not in any danger at present; therefore, the nurse should send him home with instructions to contact his physician. d. It is unclear what is happening with this patient; consequently, the nurse should perform an assessment in both the physical and the psychosocial realms. Wide cultural variations exist in the manner in which certain symptoms and disease conditions are perceived, diagnosed, labeled, and treated. Chinese-Americans sometimes convert mental experiences or states into bodily symptoms (e.g., complaining of cardiac symptoms because the center of emotion in the Chinese culture is the heart). 22. Symptoms, such as pain, are often influenced by a person’s cultural heritage. Which of the following is a true statement regarding pain? a. Nurses’ attitudes toward their patients’ pain are unrelated to their own experiences with pain. b. Nurses need to recognize that many cultures practice silent suffering as a response to pain. c. A nurse’s area of clinical practice will most likely determine his or her assessment of a patient’s pain. d. A nurse’s years of clinical experience and current position are strong indicators of his or her response to patient pain. Silent suffering is a potential response to pain in many cultures. The nurse’s assessment of pain needs to be embedded in a cultural context. The other responses are not correct. 23. The nurse is reviewing concepts of cultural aspects of pain. Which statement is true regarding pain? a. All patients will behave the same way when in pain. b. Just as patients vary in their perceptions of pain, so will they vary in their expressions of pain. c. Cultural norms have very little to do with pain tolerance, because pain tolerance is always biologically determined. d. A patient’s expression of pain is largely dependent on the amount of tissue injury associated with the pain. In addition to expecting variations in pain perception and tolerance, the nurse should expect variations in the expression of pain. It is well known that individuals turn to their social environment for validation and comparison. The other statements are incorrect. 24. During a class on religion and spirituality, the nurse is asked to define spirituality. Which answer is correct? “Spirituality: a. Is a personal search to discover a supreme being.” b. Is an organized system of beliefs concerning the cause, nature, and purpose of the universe.” c. Is a belief that each person exists forever in some form, such as a belief in reincarnation or the afterlife.” d. Arises out of each person’s unique life experience and his or her personal effort to find purpose in life.” Spirituality arises out of each person’s unique life experience and his or her personal effort to find purpose and meaning in life. The other definitions reflect the concept of religion. 25. The nurse recognizes that working with children with a different cultural perspective may be especially difficult because: a. Children have spiritual needs that are influenced by their stages of development. b. Children have spiritual needs that are direct reflections of what is occurring in their homes. c. Religious beliefs rarely affect the parents’ perceptions of the illness. d. Parents are often the decision makers, and they have no knowledge of their children’s spiritual needs. Illness during childhood may be an especially difficult clinical situation. Children, as well as adults, have spiritual needs that vary according to the child’s developmental level and the religious climate that exists in the family. The other statements are not correct. 26. A 30-year-old woman has recently moved to the United States with her husband. They are living with the woman’s sister until they can get a home of their own. When company arrives to visit with the woman’s sister, the woman feels suddenly shy and retreats to the back bedroom to hide until the company leaves. She explains that her reaction to guests is simply because she does not know how to speak “perfect English.” This woman could be experiencing: a. Culture shock. b. Cultural taboos. c. Cultural unfamiliarity. d. Culture disorientation. Culture shock is a term used to describe the state of disorientation or inability to respond to the behavior of a different cultural group because of its sudden strangeness, unfamiliarity, and incompatibility with the individual’s perceptions and expectations. The other terms are not correct. 27. After a symptom is recognized, the first effort at treatment is often self-care. Which of the following statements about self-care is true? “Self-care is: a. Not recognized as valuable by most health care providers.” b. Usually ineffective and may delay more effective treatment.” c. Always less expensive than biomedical alternatives.” d. Influenced by the accessibility of over- the-counter medicines.” After a symptom is identified, the first effort at treatment is often self-care. The availability of over-the-counter medications, the relatively high literacy level of Americans, and the influence of the mass media in communicating health-related b. Religion. c. Ethnicity. d. Spirituality. Religion is defined as an organized system of beliefs concerning the cause, nature, and purpose of the universe, especially belief in or the worship of God or gods. Spirituality is born out of each person’s unique life experiences and his or her personal efforts to find purpose and meaning in life. Ethnicity pertains to a social group within the social system that claims to possess variable traits, such as a common geographic origin, religion, race, and others. 34. When planning a cultural assessment, the nurse should include which component? a. Family history b. Chief complaint c. Medical history d. Health-related beliefs Health-related beliefs and practices are one component of a cultural assessment. The other items reflect other aspects of the patient’s history. 35. Which of the following reflects the traditional health and illness beliefs and practices of those of African heritage? Health is: a. Being rewarded for good behavior. b. The balance of the body and spirit. c. Maintained by wearing jade amulets. d. Being in harmony with nature. The belief that health is being in harmony with nature reflects the health beliefs of those of African heritages. The other examples represent Iberian and Central and South American heritages, American-Indian heritages, and Asian heritages (See Table 2-3). MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The nurse is reviewing aspects of cultural care. Which statements illustrate proper cultural care? Select all that apply. a. Examine the patient within the context of one’s own cultural health and illness practices. b. Select questions that are not complex. c. Ask questions rapidly. d. Touch patients within the cultural boundaries of their heritage. e. Pace questions throughout the physical examination. Patients should be examined within the context of their own cultural health and illness practices. Questions should be simply stated and not rapidly asked. 2. The nurse is asking questions about a patient’s health beliefs. Which questions are appropriate? Select all that apply. a. “What is your definition of health?” b. “Does your family have a history of cancer?” c. “How do you describe illness?” d. “What did your mother do to keep you from getting sick?” e. “Have you ever had any surgeries?” f. “How do you keep yourself healthy?” The questions listed are appropriate questions for an assessment of a patient’s health beliefs and practices. The questions regarding family history and surgeries are part of the patient’s physical history, not the patient’s health beliefs. Chapter 4 1.The nurse is preparing to conduct a health history. Which of these statements best describes the purpose of a health history? a. To provide an opportunity for interaction between the patient and the nurse b. To provide a form for obtaining the patient’s biographic information c. To document the normal and abnormal findings of a physical assessment d. To provide a database of subjective information about the patient’s past and current health The purpose of the health history is to collect subjective data—what the person says about him or herself. The other options are not correct. 2. When the nurse is evaluating the reliability of a patient’s responses, which of these statements would be correct? The patient: a. Has a history of drug abuse and therefore is not reliable. b. Provided consistent information and therefore is reliable. c. Smiled throughout interview and therefore is assumed reliable. d. Would not answer questions concerning stress and therefore is not reliable. A reliable person always gives the same answers, even when questions are rephrased or are repeated later in the interview. The other statements are not correct. 3. A 59-year-old patient tells the nurse that he has ulcerative colitis. He has been having “black stools” for the last 24 hours. How would the nurse best document his reason for seeking care? a. J.M. is a 59-year-old man seeking treatment for ulcerative colitis. b. J.M. came into the clinic complaining of having black stools for the past 24 hours. c. J.M. is a 59-year-old man who states that he has ulcerative colitis and wants it checked. d. J.M. is a 59-year-old man who states that he has been having “black stools” for the past 24 hours. The reason for seeking care is a brief spontaneous statement in the person’s own words that describes the reason for the visit. It states one (possibly two) signs or symptoms and their duration. It is enclosed in quotation marks to indicate the person’s exact words. 4. A patient tells the nurse that she has had abdominal pain for the past week. What would be the nurse’s best response? a. “Can you point to where it hurts?” b. “We’ll talk more about that later in the interview.” c. “What have you had to eat in the last 24 hours?” d. “Have you ever had any surgeries on your abdomen?” A final summary of any symptom the person has should include, along with seven other state of each body system, (2) double check facts in case any significant data were omitted in the present illness section, and (3) evaluate health promotion practices. 11. Which of these statements represents subjective data the nurse obtained from the patient regarding the patient’s skin? a. Skin appears dry. b. No lesions are obvious. c. Patient denies any color change. d. Lesion is noted on the lateral aspect of the right arm. The history should be limited to patient statements or subjective data—factors that the person says were or were not present. 12. The nurse is obtaining a history from a 30-year-old male patient and is concerned about health promotion activities. Which of these questions would be appropriate to use to assess health promotion activities for this patient? a. “Do you perform testicular self- examinations?” b. “Have you ever noticed any pain in your testicles?” c. “Have you had any problems with passing urine?” d. “Do you have any history of sexually transmitted diseases?” Health promotion for a man would include the performance of testicular self- examinations. The other questions are asking about possible disease or illness issues. 13. Which of these responses might the nurse expect during a functional assessment of a patient whose leg is in a cast? a. “I broke my right leg in a car accident 2 weeks ago.” b. “The pain is decreasing, but I still need to take acetaminophen.” c. “I check the color of my toes every evening just like I was taught.” d. “I’m able to transfer myself from the wheelchair to the bed without help.” Functional assessment measures a person’s self-care ability in the areas of general physical health or absence of illness. The other statements concern health or illness issues. 14. In response to a question about stress, a 39-year-old woman tells the nurse that her husband and mother both died in the past year. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. “This has been a difficult year for you.” b. “I don’t know how anyone could handle that much stress in 1 year!” c. “What did you do to cope with the loss of both your husband and mother?” d. “That is a lot of stress; now let’s go on to the next section of your history.” Questions about coping and stress management include questions regarding the kinds of stresses in one’s life, especially in the last year, any changes in lifestyle or any current stress, methods tried to relieve stress, and whether these methods have been helpful. 15. In response to a question regarding the use of alcohol, a patient asks the nurse why the nurse needs to know. What is the reason for needing this information? a. This information is necessary to determine the patient’s reliability. b. Alcohol can interact with all medications and can make some diseases worse. c. The nurse needs to be able to teach the patient about the dangers of alcohol use. d. This information is not necessary unless a drinking problem is obvious. Alcohol adversely interacts with all medications and is a factor in many social problems such as child or sexual abuse, automobile accidents, and assaults; alcohol also contributes to many illnesses and disease processes. Therefore, assessing for signs of hazardous alcohol use is important. The other options are not correct. 16. The mother of a 16-month-old toddler tells the nurse that her daughter has an earache. What would be an appropriate response? a. “Maybe she is just teething.” b. “I will check her ear for an ear infection.” c. “Are you sure she is really having pain?” d. “Describe what she is doing to indicate she is having pain.” With a very young child, the parent is asked, “How do you know the child is in pain?” A young child pulling at his or her ears should alert parents to the child’s ear pain. Statements about teething and questioning whether the child is really having pain do not explore the symptoms, which should be done before a physical examination. 17. During an assessment of a patient’s family history, the nurse constructs a genogram. Which statement best describes a genogram? a. List of diseases present in a person’s near relatives b. Graphic family tree that uses symbols to depict the gender, relationship, and age of immediate family members c. Drawing that depicts the patient’s family members up to five generations back d. Description of the health of a person’s children and grandchildren A genogram (or pedigree) is a graphic family tree that uses symbols to depict the gender, relationship, and age of immediate blood relatives in at least three generations (parents, grandparents, siblings). The other options do not describe a genogram. 18. A 5-year-old boy is being admitted to the hospital to have his tonsils removed. Which information should the nurse collect before this procedure? a. Child’s birth weight b. Age at which he crawled c. Whether the child has had the measles d. Child’s reactions to previous hospitalizations How the child reacted to previous hospitalizations and any complications should be assessed. If the child reacted poorly, then he or she may be afraid now and will need special preparation for the examination that is to follow. The other items are not significant for the procedure. 19. As part of the health history of a 6-year-old boy at a clinic for a sports physical examination, the nurse reviews his immunization record and notes that his last measles- mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccination was at 15 months of age. What recommendation should the nurse make? 25. The nurse is performing a functional assessment on an 82-year-old patient who recently had a stroke. Which of these questions would be most important to ask? a. “Do you wear glasses?” b. “Are you able to dress yourself?” c. “Do you have any thyroid problems?” d. “How many times a day do you have a bowel movement?” Functional assessment measures how a person manages day-to-day activities. For the older person, the meaning of health becomes those activities that they can or cannot do. The other responses do not relate to functional assessment. 26. The nurse is preparing to do a functional assessment. Which statement best describes the purpose of a functional assessment? a. The functional assessment assesses how the individual is coping with life at home. b. It determines how children are meeting developmental milestones. c. The functional assessment can identify any problems with memory the individual may be experiencing. d. It helps determine how a person is managing day-to-day activities. The functional assessment measures how a person manages day-to-day activities. The other answers do not reflect the purpose of a functional assessment. 27. The nurse is asking a patient for his reason for seeking care and asks about the signs and symptoms he is experiencing. Which of these is an example of a symptom? a. Chest pain b. Clammy skin c. Serum potassium level at 4.2 mEq/L d. Body temperature of 100° F A symptom is a subjective sensation (e.g., chest pain) that a person feels from a disorder. A sign is an objective abnormality that the examiner can detect on physical examination or in laboratory reports, as illustrated by the other responses. 28. A patient is describing his symptoms to the nurse. Which of these statements reflects a description of the setting of his symptoms? a. “It is a sharp, burning pain in my stomach.” b. “I also have the sweats and nausea when I feel this pain.” c. “I think this pain is telling me that something bad is wrong with me.” d. “This pain happens every time I sit down to use the computer.” The setting describes where the person is or what the person is doing when the symptom starts. Describing the pain as “sharp and burning” reflects the character or quality of the pain; stating that the pain is “telling” the patient that something bad is wrong with him reflects the patient’s perception of the pain; and describing the “sweats and nausea” reflects associated factors that occur with the pain. 29. During an assessment, the nurse uses the CAGE test. The patient answers “yes” to two of the questions. What could this be indicating? a. The patient is an alcoholic. b. The patient is annoyed at the questions. c. The patient should be thoroughly examined for possible alcohol withdrawal symptoms. d. The nurse should suspect alcohol abuse and continue with a more thorough substance abuse assessment. The CAGE test is known as the “cut down, annoyed, guilty, and eye-opener” test. If a person answers “yes” to two or more of the four CAGE questions, then the nurse should suspect alcohol abuse and continue with a more complete substance abuse assessment. 30. The nurse is incorporating a person’s spiritual values into the health history. Which of these questions illustrates the “community” portion of the FICA (faith and belief, importance and influence, community, and addressing or applying in care) questions? a. “Do you believe in God?” b. “Are you a part of any religious or spiritual congregation?” c. “Do you consider yourself to be a religious or spiritual person?” d. “How does your religious faith influence the way you think about your health?” The “community” is assessed when the nurse asks whether a person is part of a religious or spiritual community or congregation. The other areas assessed are faith, influence, and addressing any religious or spiritual issues or concerns. 31. The nurse is preparing to complete a health assessment on a 16-year-old girl whose parents have brought her to the clinic. Which instruction would be appropriate for the parents before the interview begins? a. “Please stay during the interview; you can answer for her if she does not know the answer.” b. “It would help to interview the three of you together.” c. “While I interview your daughter, will you please stay in the room and complete these family health history questionnaires?” d. “While I interview your daughter, will you step out to the waiting room and complete these family health history questionnaires?” The girl should be interviewed alone. The parents can wait outside and fill out the family health history questionnaires. 32. The nurse is assessing a new patient who has recently immigrated to the United States. Which question is appropriate to add to the health history? a. “Why did you come to the United States?” b. “When did you come to the United States and from what country?” c. “What made you leave your native country?” d. “Are you planning to return to your home?” Biographic data, such as when the person entered the United States and from what country, are appropriate additions to the health history. The other answers do not reflect appropriate questions. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The nurse is assessing a patient’s headache pain. Which questions reflect one or more of the critical characteristics of symptoms that should be assessed? Select all that apply. a. “Where is the headache pain?” knowledge does not decrease, and little or no loss in vocabulary occurs. Response time is slower than in a youth. It takes a little longer for the brain to process information and to react to it. Recent memory, which requires some processing, is somewhat decreased with aging, but remote memory is not affected. 4. When assessing aging adults, the nurse knows that one of the first things that should be assessed before making judgments about their mental status is: a. Presence of phobias b. General intelligence c. Presence of irrational thinking patterns d. Sensory-perceptive abilities Age-related changes in sensory perception can affect mental status. For example, vision loss (as detailed in Chapter 14) may result in apathy, social isolation, and depression. Hearing changes are common in older adults, which produces frustration, suspicion, and social isolation and makes the person appear confused. 5. The nurse is preparing to conduct a mental status examination. Which statement is true regarding the mental status examination? a. A patient’s family is the best resource for information about the patient’s coping skills. b. Gathering mental status information during the health history interview is usually sufficient. c. Integrating the mental status examination into the health history interview takes an enormous amount of extra time. d. To get a good idea of the patient’s level of functioning, performing a complete mental status examination is usually necessary. The full mental status examination is a systematic check of emotional and cognitive functioning. The steps described, however, rarely need to be taken in their entirety. Usually, one can assess mental status through the context of the health history interview. 6. A woman brings her husband to the clinic for an examination. She is particularly worried because after a recent fall, he seems to have lost a great deal of his memory of recent events. Which statement reflects the nurse’s best course of action? a. Perform a complete mental status examination. b. Refer him to a psychometrician. c. Plan to integrate the mental status examination into the history and physical examination. d. Reassure his wife that memory loss after a physical shock is normal and will soon subside. Performing a complete mental status examination is necessary when any abnormality in affect or behavior is discovered or when family members are concerned about a person’s behavioral changes (e.g., memory loss, inappropriate social interaction) or after trauma, such as a head injury. 7. The nurse is conducting a patient interview. Which statement made by the patient should the nurse more fully explore during the interview? a. “I sleep like a baby.” b. “I have no health problems.” c. “I never did too good in school.” d. “I am not currently taking any medications.” In every mental status examination, the following factors from the health history that could affect the findings should be noted: any known illnesses or health problems, such as alcoholism or chronic renal disease; current medications, the side effects of which may cause confusion or depression; the usual educational and behavioral level, noting this level as the patient’s normal baseline and not expecting a level of performance on the mental status examination to exceed it; and responses to personal history questions, indicating current stress, social interaction patterns, and sleep habits. 8. A patient is admitted to the unit after an automobile accident. The nurse begins the mental status examination and finds that the patient has dysarthric speech and is lethargic. The nurse’s best approach regarding this examination is to: a. Plan to defer the rest of the mental status examination. b. Skip the language portion of the examination, and proceed onto assessing mood and affect. c. Conduct an in-depth speech evaluation, and defer the mental status examination to another time. d. Proceed with the examination, and assess the patient for suicidal thoughts because dysarthria is often accompanied by severe depression. In the mental status examination, the sequence of steps forms a hierarchy in which the most basic functions (consciousness, language) are assessed first. The first steps must be accurately assessed to ensure validity of the steps that follow. For example, if consciousness is clouded, then the person cannot be expected to have full attention and to cooperate with new learning. If language is impaired, then a subsequent assessment of new learning or abstract reasoning (anything that requires language functioning) can give erroneous conclusions. 9. A 19-year-old woman comes to the clinic at the insistence of her brother. She is wearing black combat boots and a black lace nightgown over the top of her other clothes. Her hair is dyed pink with black streaks throughout. She has several pierced holes in her nares and ears and is wearing an earring through her eyebrow and heavy black makeup. The nurse concludes that: a. She probably does not have any problems. b. She is only trying to shock people and that her dress should be ignored. c. She has a manic syndrome because of her abnormal dress and grooming. d. More information should be gathered to decide whether her dress is appropriate. Grooming and hygiene should be noted—the person is clean and well groomed, hair is neat and clean, women have moderate or no makeup, and men are shaved or their beards or moustaches are well groomed. Care should be taken when interpreting clothing that is disheveled, bizarre, or in poor repair because these sometimes reflect the person’s economic status or a deliberate fashion trend. 10. A patient has been in the intensive care unit for 10 days. He has just been moved to the medical-surgical unit, and the admitting nurse is planning to perform a mental status examination. During the tests of cognitive function, the nurse would expect that he: a. May display some disruption in thought content. b. Will state, “I am so relieved to be out of intensive care.” c. Will be oriented to place and person, but tomorrow and plans to use a gun When the person expresses feelings of sadness, hopelessness, despair, or grief, assessing any possible risk of physical harm to him or herself is important. The interview should begin with more general questions. If the nurse hears affirmative answers, then he or she should continue with more specific questions. A precise suicide plan to take place in the next 24 to 48 hours with use of a lethal method constitutes high risk. 16. The nurse is performing a mental status assessment on a 5-year-old girl. Her parents are undergoing a bitter divorce and are worried about the effect it is having on their daughter. Which action or statement might lead the nurse to be concerned about the girl’s mental status? a. She clings to her mother whenever the nurse is in the room. b. She appears angry and will not make eye contact with the nurse. c. Her mother states that she has begun to ride a tricycle around their yard. d. Her mother states that her daughter prefers to play with toddlers instead of kids her own age while in daycare. The mental status assessment of infants and children covers behavioral, cognitive, and psychosocial development and examines how the child is coping with his or her environment. Essentially, the nurse should follow the same Association for Behavioral and Cognitive Therapies (ABCT) guidelines as those for the adult, with special consideration for developmental milestones. The best examination technique arises from a thorough knowledge of the developmental milestones (described in Chapter 2). Abnormalities are often problems of omission (e.g., the child does not achieve a milestone as expected). 17. The nurse is assessing orientation in a 79-year-old patient. Which of these responses would lead the nurse to conclude that this patient is oriented? a. “I know my name is John. I couldn’t tell you where I am. I think it is 2010, though.” b. “I know my name is John, but to tell you the truth, I get kind of confused about the date.” c. “I know my name is John; I guess I’m at the hospital in Spokane. No, I don’t know the date.” d. “I know my name is John. I am at the hospital in Spokane. I couldn’t tell you what date it is, but I know that it is February of a new year—2010.” Many aging persons experience social isolation, loss of structure without a job, a change in residence, or some short-term memory loss. These factors affect orientation, and the person may not provide the precise date or complete name of the agency. You may consider aging persons oriented if they generally know where they are and the present period. They should be considered oriented to time if the year and month are correctly stated. Orientation to place is accepted with the correct identification of the type of setting (e.g., hospital) and the name of the town. 18. The nurse is performing the Denver II screening test on a 12-month-old infant during a routine well-child visit. The nurse should tell the infant’s parents that the Denver II: a. Tests three areas of development: cognitive, physical, and psychological b. Will indicate whether the child has a speech disorder so that treatment can begin. c. Is a screening instrument designed to detect children who are slow in development. d. Is a test to determine intellectual ability and may indicate whether problems will develop later in school. The Denver II is a screening instrument designed to detect developmental delays in infants and preschoolers. It tests four functions: gross motor, language, fine motor- adaptive, and personal-social. The Denver II is not an intelligence test; it does not predict current or future intellectual ability. It is not diagnostic; it does not suggest treatment regimens. 19. A patient drifts off to sleep when she is not being stimulated. The nurse can easily arouse her by calling her name, but the patient remains drowsy during the conversation. The best description of this patient’s level of consciousness would be: a. Lethargic b. Obtunded c. Stuporous d. Semialert Lethargic (or somnolent) is when the person is not fully alert, drifts off to sleep when not stimulated, and can be aroused when called by name in a normal voice but looks drowsy. He or she appropriately responds to questions or commands, but thinking seems slow and fuzzy. He or she is inattentive and loses the train of thought. Spontaneous movements are decreased. (See Table 5-3 for the definitions of the other terms.) 20. A patient has had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). He is trying very hard to communicate. He seems driven to speak and says, “I buy obie get spirding and take my train.” What is the best description of this patient’s problem? a. Global aphasia b. Broca’s aphasia c. Echolalia d. Wernicke’s aphasia This type of communication illustrates Wernicke’s or receptive aphasia. The person can hear sounds and words but cannot relate them to previous experiences. Speech is fluent, effortless, and well articulated, but it has many paraphasias (word substitutions that are malformed or wrong) and neologisms (made-up words) and often lacks substantive words. Speech can be totally incomprehensible. Often, a great urge to speak is present. Repetition, reading, and writing also are impaired. Echolalia is an imitation or the repetition of another person’s words or phrases. (See Table 5-4 for the definitions of the other disorders.) 21. A patient repeatedly seems to have difficulty coming up with a word. He says, “I was on my way to work, and when I got there, the thing that you step into that goes up in the air was so full that I decided to take the stairs.” The nurse will note on his chart that he is using or experiencing: a. Blocking b. Neologism c. Circumlocution d. Circumstantiality Circumlocution is a roundabout expression, substituting a phrase when one cannot think of the name of the object. 22. During an examination, the nurse notes that a patient is exhibiting flight of ideas. Which statement by the patient is an example of flight of ideas? a. “My stomach hurts. Hurts, spurts, burts.” b. “Kiss, wood, reading, ducks, onto, maybe.” c. “Take this pill? The pill is red. I see red. Red velvet is soft, soft as a baby’s symptoms. 28. A 26-year-old woman was robbed and beaten a month ago. She is returning to the clinic today for a follow-up assessment. The nurse will want to ask her which one of these questions? a. “How are things going with the trial?” b. “How are things going with your job?” c. “Tell me about your recent engagement!” d. “Are you having any disturbing dreams?” In posttraumatic stress disorder, the person has been exposed to a traumatic event. The traumatic event is persistently reexperienced by recurrent and intrusive, distressing recollections of the event, including images, thoughts, or perceptions; recurrent distressing dreams of the event; and acting or feeling as if the traumatic event were recurring. 29. The nurse is performing a mental status examination. Which statement is true regarding the assessment of mental status? a. Mental status assessment diagnoses specific psychiatric disorders. b. Mental disorders occur in response to everyday life stressors. c. Mental status functioning is inferred through the assessment of an individual’s behaviors. d. Mental status can be directly assessed, similar to other systems of the body (e.g., heart sounds, breath sounds). Mental status functioning is inferred through the assessment of an individual’s behaviors. It cannot be directly assessed like the characteristics of the skin or heart sounds. 30. A 23-year-old patient in the clinic appears anxious. Her speech is rapid, and she is fidgety and in constant motion. Which of these questions or statements would be most appropriate for the nurse to use in this situation to assess attention span? a. “How do you usually feel? Is this normal behavior for you?” b. “I am going to say four words. In a few minutes, I will ask you to recall them.” c. “Describe the meaning of the phrase, ‘Looking through rose-colored glasses.’” d. “Pick up the pencil in your left hand, move it to your right hand, and place it on the table.” Attention span is evaluated by assessing the individual’s ability to concentrate and complete a thought or task without wandering. Giving a series of directions to follow is one method used to assess attention span. 31. The nurse is planning health teaching for a 65-year-old woman who has had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) and has aphasia. Which of these questions is most important to use when assessing mental status in this patient? a. “Please count backward from 100 by seven.” b. “I will name three items and ask you to repeat them in a few minutes.” c. “Please point to articles in the room and parts of the body as I name them.” d. “What would you do if you found a stamped, addressed envelope on the sidewalk?” Additional tests for persons with aphasia include word comprehension (asking the individual to point to articles in the room or parts of the body), reading (asking the person to read available print), and writing (asking the person to make up and write a sentence). 32. A 30-year-old female patient is describing feelings of hopelessness and depression. She has attempted self-mutilation and has a history of suicide attempts. She describes difficulty sleeping at night and has lost 10 pounds in the past month. Which of these statements or questions is the nurse’s best response in this situation? a. “Do you have a weapon?” b. “How do other people treat you?” c. “Are you feeling so hopeless that you feel like hurting yourself now?” d. “People often feel hopeless, but the feelings resolve within a few weeks.” When the person expresses feelings of hopelessness, despair, or grief, assessing the risk of physical harm to him or herself is important. This process begins with more general questions. If the answers are affirmative, then the assessment continues with more specific questions. 33. The nurse is providing instructions to newly hired graduates for the mini–mental state examination (MMSE). Which statement best describes this examination? a. Scores below 30 indicate cognitive impairment. b. The MMSE is a good tool to evaluate mood and thought processes. c. This examination is a good tool to detect delirium and dementia and to differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness. d. The MMSE is useful tool for an initial evaluation of mental status. Additional tools are needed to evaluate cognition changes over time. The MMSE is a quick, easy test of 11 questions and is used for initial and serial evaluations and can demonstrate a worsening or an improvement of cognition over time and with treatment. It evaluates cognitive functioning, not mood or thought processes. MMSE is a good screening tool to detect dementia and delirium and to differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness. 34. The nurse discovers speech problems in a patient during an assessment. The patient has spontaneous speech, but it is mostly absent or is reduced to a few stereotypical words or sounds. This finding reflects which type of aphasia? a. Global b. Broca’s c. Dysphonic d. Wernicke’s Global aphasia is the most common and severe form of aphasia. Spontaneous speech is absent or reduced to a few stereotyped words or sounds, and prognosis for language recovery is poor. (Broca’s aphasia and Wernicke’s aphasia are described in Table 5-4.) Dysphonic aphasia is not a valid condition. 35. A patient repeats, “I feel hot. Hot, cot, rot, tot, got. I’m a spot.” The nurse documents this as an illustration of: a. Blocking b. Clanging c. Echolalia d. Neologism Clanging is word choice based on sound, not meaning, and includes nonsense rhymes and puns. (See Table 5-6 for the definitions of the other terms.)