HES 2024 Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers (Tested and Verified), Quizzes of Nursing

Download HES 2024 Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers (Tested and Verified) and more Quizzes Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! HES 2024 Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers (Tested and Verified) Which of these statements is true regarding the way light travels? A. Sound travels faster than light. B. The speed of light is always the same regardless of the medium through which it travels. C. Light travels as both a wave and a particle. D. Light can not travel through a vacuum. Correct Answer C. Light travels as both a wave and a particle. Light is a curiosity in that it acts as both a wave and a particle. It only changes direction via reflection (bouncing off of something) or refraction (passing from one medium to another). In a vacuum, the speed of light is constant, but when passing through a medium that has an index of refraction different from a vacuum, light's speed slows. Which of these elements is liquid at room temperature? A. mercury B. zinc C. manganese D. magnesium Correct Answer A. mercury Mercury is the only one of the elements listed here that is liquid at room temperature. The element bromine also has this property. Where is the hyoid bone located? A. neck B. pelvis C. rib cage D. leg Correct Answer A. neck The hyoid bone is located between the chin and thyroid cartilage. A person with AB- blood should not receive blood from which other blood type? A. B- B. A- C. O- D.AB+ Correct Answer D. AB+ Those with an AB- blood type should not receive blood from those with AB+ blood. Although both AB+ and AB- blood have A and B antigens, the person with AB- blood lacks a special protein, or "Rhesus" Factor (Rh), circulating in their blood. If they are given blood that has the Rh factor present, their body will make antibodies to this foreign substance and complications will occur. This is especially true in pregnancy situations where the mother is Rh- and the baby she is carrying is Rh+. Which blood type is considered the universal donor? A. O- B. O+ C. AB- D. AB+ Correct Answer A. O- O- blood lacks both A and B antigens and the Rh factor, making it the only blood type that can donate to everyone. Note the correct use of the terms antibody and antigen: O- is the best donor because it does not have A, B or Rh antigens. AB+ is the universal receiver because it does not have A, B or Rh antibodies. What is the only artery in the body to carry oxygen-poor blood? A. renal artery B. interosseous artery C. vena cava D. pulmonary artery Correct Answer D. pulmonary artery Most arteries in the body carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart, but the pulmonary artery carries oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs. The vena cava would not be correct because it is not an artery, it is a vein and the question asks for an artery. Chocolate cysts of the ovaries are attributed to . A. menorrhagia B. ectopic pregnancy C. pelvic inflammatory disease D. endometriosis Correct Answer D. endometriosis Endometriosis is a condition in which the tissue from the uterus (endometrium) grows in other parts of the body, such as the ovaries or bowel. If a woman has endometrial tissue in her ovary, the tissue bleeds and builds up over time, and as the blood ages it turns brown, hence the term "chocolate cyst." Which is not true of synovial joints? A. They are found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column B. They have a fluid-filled capsule that surrounds their articulating surface C. They are the most common joint in the body D. They are the most moveable joint type in the body Correct Answer A. They are found in the intervertebral discs of the spinal column Which organelle is responsible for generating ATP that is used for chemical energy? A. mitochondria B. Golgi apparatus C. vesicle D. ribosome Correct Answer A. mitochondria The mitochondrion is often referred to as the "power plant" of the cell because it generates ATP, the cell's source of chemical energy. Which of these statements is true with regard to eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? A. Prokaryotic cells can contain lysosomes B. Eukaryotic cells have mitochondria C. Prokaryotic cells can contain lysosomes and eukaryotic cells have mitochondria D. Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus Correct Answer B. Eukaryotic cells have mitochondria One of the major differences between eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells contain organelles, such as mitochondria and lysosomes, whereas prokaryotic cells do not. Positive feedback is a mechanism used by the body that results in amplification or enhancement of a signal that has already been activated. An example of this would be . A. the release of oxytocin to increase contractions during childbirth B. shivering to increase temperature C. slowing metabolism in response to starvation D. blood vessels regulating blood pressure Correct Answer A. the release of oxytocin to increase contractions during childbirth Contractions in childbirth are considered a positive feedback loop because each contraction stimulates the brain to release more oxytocin, which in turn stimulates more contractions. When placed in a hypotonic solution, what will a cell do? A. shrink B. swell C. disintegrate D. remain the same Correct Answer B. swell Water always moves from areas of higher concentration to lower concentration. A hypotonic solution contains less solutes and more water than the contents inside of the cell, so water will move from outside of the cell to inside, causing it to swell. Which is not an effect of photo- oxidation? A. loss of surface smoothness B. increase in brittleness C. increase in tensile strength D. discoloration Correct Answer C. increase in tensile strength Photo-oxidation occurs when UV light and ozone break down the surface of polymers. The result is the material becoming more brittle and discolored and less strong and smooth. Using the Lewis-dot structure model, how many dots would carbon have? A. 6 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 Correct Answer C. 4 The number of dots in a Lewis-dot structure model corresponds to the number of valance electrons for that atom. Because carbon has four valance electrons, its Lewis- dot structure model would have 4 dots. Which of these would produce hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution and would turn a litmus test from blue to red? A. ammonia B. lye C. vinegar D. detergent Correct Answer C. vinegar Blue litmus paper turns red in the presence of an acid. Ammonia, lye, and detergent are basic, so they would not give off hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution and when added to blue litmus paper the paper would remain blue. Dihydrogen monoxide is better known as . A. iodine B. hydrogen peroxide C. water D. table salt Correct Answer C. water Dihydrogen monoxide, or H2O, is more commonly known as water. What is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust? A. oxygen B. carbon C. hydrogen D. nitrogen Correct Answer A. oxygen Oxygen makes up about 47% of the Earth's crust, followed by silicon at 28%, aluminum at 8%, iron at 5%, calcium at 4%, and sodium and potassium, each at 3%. What is the most abundant element in the universe? A. nitrogen B. hydrogen C. oxygen D. helium Correct Answer C. oxygen Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe, followed by helium and then oxygen. A solution that contains the maximum amount of dissolved solute is said to be . A. unsaturated B. dilute C. saturated D. concentrated Correct Answer C. saturated A saturated solution is one that has the maximum amount of solute dissolved into it. The change in state from a gas to liquid is called . A. vaporization B. condensation C. evaporation D. deposition Correct Answer B. condensation Condensation is the reverse of vaporization and can be observed when gas cools and becomes a liquid, such as when dew appears in the morning after the temperature drops at night. Which of these sentences contains a dependent clause? A. She told me she was hungry but wouldn't eat more. B. She said she is feeling hungry, but she is not going to eat. C. Although she is hungry, she is not going to eat. D. She is hungry but she's not going to eat. Correct Answer C. Although she is hungry, she is not going to eat. "Although she is hungry, she is not going to eat." is correct. A dependent clause begins with words such as although, since, if, when, and because. A dependent clause cannot stand on its own, so it may also be referred to as a "weak" clause. What would be considered the dependent clause in this sentence? "The students could finally see the bus, which was running 15 A. Sarah Joneses B. Sarah Jones C. Sarah Jone's D. Sarah Jones's or Sarah Jones' Correct Answer D. Sarah Jones's or Sarah Jones' Apostrophes show possession and one is needed here to show that the car belongs to Sarah Jones. Different references give various recommendations for doing this with words that end in s. Both of the versions in this answer choice are listed as correct methods by certain grammar authorities. Sarah Jone's would mean that Sarah Jone owns the car. Adding es to Jones would simply make Jones plural. Select the option which makes this sentence grammatically correct. The paid vacation benefit is available to employees in the company. A. part and full-time B. part and full time C. part/ and full/time D. part- and full-time Correct Answer D. part- and full-time Part- and full-time is the correct answer because with a series of nearly identical compounds, sometimes the final term is delayed until the last instance, allowing the hyphen to act as a kind of place holder. What is the correct way to write the missing words in this sentence? The children learned that the is sometimes considered a turning point of the war. A. Siege of Vicksburg B. siege of vicksburg C. siege of Vicksburg D. Siege Of Vicksburg Correct Answer A. Siege of Vicksburg The Siege of Vicksburg was a battle in the American Civil War and it is considered a proper noun. Proper nouns are people, places, organizations, and sometimes things and they must be capitalized. Prepositions (words like as, at, by, for, in, of, on, per, and to), are not typically capitalized unless they begin a sentence. Which number is represented by the Roman numeral XXVII? A. 47 B. 32 C. 27 D. 72 Correct Answer C. 27 In Roman numerals, an "X" represents the number 10, a "V" represents 5, and "I" is representative of the number 1. In this problem we have 2 X's, 1 V, and two II's, which means we have two 10's (20), one 5, and two 1's (2). Written mathematically, 20 + 5 + 2 = 27 What is (- 5)2? A. 5 B. -25 C. 0.5525 D. 0.5520 Correct Answer C. 0.5525 Multiply 0.85 by 0.65. If it's easier for you to conceptualize, you can just multiply 85 x 65 to get 5525, and then add the decimal point in after to get 0.5525. A number is 5 more than half of another number. How would you write this as a mathematical expression? A. (5+1/2)N B. N/5⋅2 C. N/2+5 D. N+5/2 Correct Answer C. N/2+5 First, we let N represent any number. We then express half of N as 1/2(N) or N/2. The phrase 5 more than indicates the mathematical expression 5+. Putting terms together, we get the correct answer. |7|+|−2| = Note: This problem shows the number -2 within an absolute value sign, not the number -21. A. 9 B. 5 C. 0 D. 14 Correct Answer A. 9 9 is the correct answer because the brackets around the numbers mean you are adding the absolute value of those numbers. The absolute value of a number is always positive, so: The absolute value of 7 is 7.The absolute value of -2 is 2.Therefore, the problem becomes: 7 + 2 = 9. Note: You will not do anything to signs outside the absolute value brackets, only those within them. (Absolute value brackets do not operate by the same rules as parentheses in math.) According to the theory of the same name, after the "Big Bang" there were only what two things? A. space and time B. matter and antimatter C. neutrons and electrons D. mass and gravity Correct Answer B. matter and antimatter The Big Bang Theory attempts to explain the origins of the universe. According to the theory, a "big bang" produced matter and antimatter in equal quantities. A subatomic particle is in relation to an atom. A. smaller B. denser C. faster D. bigger Correct Answer A. smaller Subatomic particles (which include neutrons, protons, and electrons) are much smaller than atoms. Who discovered the special theory of relativity? A. Albert Einstein B. Max Plank C. James Chadwick D.Alfred Nobel Correct Answer A. Albert Einstein The theory of relativity is one of physics' most famous theories and was proposed by Albert Einstein. A fresh egg will float in water when... A. always B. it will not float in any circumstance C. when the water is cold D. when salt is added to the water Correct Answer D. when salt is added to the water Eggs are typically more dense than water, which makes them sink. However, if enough salt is added to the water, the water becomes more dense than the egg, which will cause the egg to float. How fast does sound travel through a vacuum? A. 25 m/s B. 331.4 m/s C. 0 m/s D. 222 m/s Correct Answer C. 0 m/s The speed of sound in a vacuum is 0 m/s because sound waves cannot travel through a vacuum. What planet is the slowest rotating and often referred to as Earth's "sister planet?" A. Jupiter B. Mars C. Mercury D. Venus Correct Answer D. Venus Venus is the slowest-rotating planet and is sometimes referred to as Earth's "sister" because of their similar size and distance from the sun. cells are produced in the bone marrow and correspond to a specific exam, integrated in the CBC: erythrogram, leukogram, and thrombogram. The erythrogram studies red blood cells. Among other tests, it includes a red blood cell count, a hematocrit, and hemoglobin. When these levels are low, the patient may be suffering from anemia, which can be caused by anything from heavy menstrual bleeding to Addison's disease. A diagnosis of polycythemia may be made if the number of red blood cells is increased. The leukogram is the test that evaluates the number of white cells present in the blood, which should vary between 4,000 and 10,000 cells per cubic millimeter in most adults. High values of white blood cells are seen with infection or severe emotional/physical stress, while AIDS and chemotherapy are two causes for low values. The thrombogram is the analysis of platelets, the cells responsible for coagulation. The main function of platelets is to help stop bleeding by helping form a clot. They do this by secreting proteins from their surface that allow them to stick to vessels and each other. Low values of platelets are seen with pregnancy or an enlarged spleen, whereas high values are seen with cancers or iron deficiency. A. polycythemia B. thrombocytope nia C. anemia D. This condition was not mentioned in this passage. Correct Answer A. polycythemia The text states that a person may be diagnosed with polycythemia if his or her red blood cells counts are increased. Which statement can correctly be inferred from the accompanying passage? A complete blood count (CBC) is one of the most useful and requested types of analysis in medical practice. A CBC searches for all the cells that exist in the blood, which are divided into three basic types: white blood cells (leukocytes), platelets, and red blood cells (erythrocytes). All of these blood cells are produced in the bone marrow and correspond to a specific exam, integrated in the CBC: erythrogram, leukogram, and thrombogram. The erythrogram studies red blood cells. Among other tests, it includes a red blood cell count, a hematocrit, and hemoglobin. When these levels are low, the patient may be suffering from anemia, which can be caused by anything from heavy menstrual bleeding to Addison's disease. A diagnosis of polycythemia may be made if the number of red blood cells is increased. The leukogram is the test that evaluates the number of white cells present in the blood, which should vary between 4,000 and 10,000 cells per cubic millimeter in most adults. High values of white blood cells are seen with infection or severe emotional/physical stress, while AIDS and chemotherapy are two causes for low values. The thrombogram is the analysis of platelets, the cells responsible for coagulation. The main function of platelets is to help stop bleeding by helping form a clot. They do this by secreting proteins from their surface that allow them to stick to vessels and each other. Low values of platelets are seen with pregnancy or an enlarged spleen, whereas high values are seen with cancers or iron deficiency. A. The test of red blood cells is more informative than the tests of white blood cells and platelets. B. An elevated level of platelets is a confirmation of pregnancy in the patient. Which of these statements cannot be inferred from the attached passage? An allergy is defined as an "immunological hypersensitivity to a specific external stimulus" or, simply put, an exaggerated response of the immune system to a substance that is foreign to the body. Patients with allergies are called "atopic" or, more popularly, "allergic". The diagnosis of an allergy is mainly clinical and it can be aided by skin allergy tests and laboratory examinations. Skin allergy tests are fast, practical, and can be done in an allergy and immunology provider's office. While skin tests are generally sufficient to confirm a diagnosis, doctors may also request complementary laboratory studies for further confirmation. These blood tests may diagnose an increase in white blood cells or antibodies for common allergy triggers, such as pet dander, grasses, and molds. Blood tests may help confirm or exclude the possibility of an allergy and, consequently, reduce adverse reactions caused by unnecessary medication. A correct diagnosis, along with proper treatment based on the valid results of allergy tests, will help reduce or eliminate the incidence of symptoms and improve the patient's quality of life. A. Skin tests are the most accurate way to confirm an allergy test. B. It would be wise to seek a correct diagnosis and treatment of allergies. C. Giving medicine for an allergy that does not exist can be harmful. D. The term allergic is used more than atopic when referring to people with allergies Correct Answer A. Skin tests are the most accurate way to confirm an allergy test. While the text mentions that skin tests are "generally sufficient" to confirm an allergy, further detailed testing is sometimes needed for confirmation. The other answer choices are not specifically stated in the passage, but you can infer them from information that is given by the author. What is the main conclusion you can draw from the accompanying text? A quantitative descriptive study focused on the attitudes of nurses towards chronic pain found in the cancer patient population. The study sample was composed of 93 nurses from three hospitals with an average age of 30.54 years. Of these, 45.2% had a bachelor's degree. Throughout their professional careers, 91.4% of the nurses said they had acquired training in the assessment and treatment of pain. A small percentage, 18.3%, acquired this training through postgraduate studies or equivalent. However, 76.5% of these nurses found their training insufficient and experienced difficulties in the assessment of chronic pain in cancer patients. The study concluded that many nurses have little knowledge about cancer- related pain in the areas of pain assessment, pain management, psychological pain, spiritual pain, and the side effects of analgesic therapy. The results suggest the need for more training in the area of pain and pain assessment in this population. A. Nurses are scared of chronic pain. B. Nurses need more training in order to take care of patients in pain. C. Nurses are completely prepared to take care of patients with chronic pain. D. Nurses can't deal with their patients' pain. Correct Answer B. Nurses need more training in order to take care of patients in pain. The final sentence of the passage concludes that, "The results suggest the need for more training [of nurses] in the area of pain and pain assessment in this population." Which of these is not mentioned in the accompanying text? A quantitative descriptive study focused on the attitudes of nurses towards chronic pain found in the cancer patient population. The study sample was composed of 93 nurses from three hospitals with an average age of 30.54 years. Of these, 45.2% had a bachelor's degree. Throughout their professional careers, 91.4% of the nurses said they had acquired training in the assessment and treatment of pain. A small percentage, 18.3%, acquired this training through postgraduate studies or equivalent. However, 76.5% of these nurses found their training insufficient and experienced difficulties in the assessment of chronic pain in cancer patients. The study concluded that many nurses have little knowledge about cancer- related pain in the areas of pain assessment, pain management, psychological pain, spiritual pain, and the side effects of analgesic therapy. The results suggest the need for more training in the area of pain and pain assessment in this population. A. This study was influenced by independent variables. B. More than 30% of the nurses that participated in the study have a bachelor's degree. C. Nurses need more training in the area of pain. D. A small percentage of nurses acquired their training through postgraduate studies. Correct Answer A. This study was influenced by independent variables. Independent variables were not mentioned in this passage. The idea that nurses need more training in the area of pain and the statistics about the number of nurses who acquired their training through postgraduate studies and the number of nurses in the study who have a bachelor's degree were explicitly stated. What is the primary purpose of the accompanying article on smallpox? Smallpox is one of the most deadly and dangerous diseases affecting the human population across the world. The first recorded epidemic was in 1350 BC during the Egyptian-Hittite war, and it was quite prevalent in the late 1800's through a large part of the 1900's. Approximately five hundred million people were infected with the disease prior to its eradication in the 1970's, with the last case being in Somalia in 1977. Symptoms of infection included excessive bleeding, high fever, delirium, vomiting, and a raised pink rash. Most cases of smallpox ended in death and survivors were often seriously maimed by pock marks, blindness, or infertility. The pain and suffering remained for a lifetime after the disease was gone. There is no known cure for smallpox, only preventative vaccinations. Because smallpox was wiped out in 1970′s, the World Health Organization (W.H.O.) recommended that all countries stop vaccinating for the disease in 1980. This means that today, most young people are not vaccinated against What is the meaning of incision? A. fracture B. cut C. closure D. injection Correct Answer B. cut The word incision is simply a longer word for cut. It does not mean closure (involving closing), injection (inserting with a needle), or fracture (a break). Which of these is the best definition of the word contrite? A. lonely B. sad C. excited D. remorseful Correct Answer D. remorseful When a person is contrite, it means that he or she feels badly about something or feels remorse. The person might also be sad or lonely, but neither of these means contrite. A contrite person would probably not be excited. To what does the word salpingo refer? A. a tube B. the spleen C. an artery D. a bone Correct Answer A. a tube The word salpingo is used with other words in medicine to refer to something associated with a tube, usually the fallopian tubes. It is not used with reference to the spleen, an artery (blood vessel), or a bone.