HESI A2 ALL SUBJECTS {GUARANTEED SCORE A}/HESI A2 ALL SUBJECTS {GUARANTEED SCORE A}, Exams of Advanced Education

Download HESI A2 ALL SUBJECTS {GUARANTEED SCORE A}/HESI A2 ALL SUBJECTS {GUARANTEED SCORE A} and more Exams Advanced Education in PDF only on Docsity! HESI A2 ALL SUBJECTS {GUARANTEED SCORE A} /HESI A2 ALL SUBJECTS {GUARANTEED SCORE A} /HESI A2 ALL SUBJECTS {GUARANTEED SCORE A} Getting Started CONGRATULATIONS! By deciding to take the Health Education Systems (HESI A2) Exam, you have taken the first step toward a great future! Of course, there is no point in taking this important examination unless you intend to do your very best in order to earn the highest grade you possibly can. That means getting yourself organized and discovering the best approaches, methods and strategies to master the material. Yes, that will require real effort and dedication on your part but if you are willing to focus your energy and devote the study time necessary, before you know it you will be opening that letter of acceptance to the school of your dreams. We know that taking on a new endeavour can be a little scary, and it is easy to feel unsure of where to begin. That’s where we come in. This study guide is designed to help you improve your test-taking skills, show you a few tricks of the trade and increase both your competency and confidence. The Health Education Systems A2 Exam The HESI A2 exam is composed of modules and not all schools use all of the modules. It is therefore very important that you find out what modules your school will use! That way you won’t waste valuable study time learning something that isn’t on your exam! The HESI A2 Modules are: Math, Vocabulary, Reading Comprehension, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Basic Scientific principals and Anatomy and Physiology. Answer Sheet – Section II - Math Answer Sheet – Section III Part I - English Grammar Answer Sheet – Section III Part II – Vocabulary Answer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Biology and Chemistry Answer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Anatomy and Physiology SECTION I - READING COMPREHENSION. Directions: The following questions are based on a number of reading passages. Each passage is followed by a series of questions. Read each passage carefully, and then answer the questions based on it. You may reread the passage as often as you wish. When you have finished answering the questions based on one passage, go right on to the next passage. Choose the best answer based on the information given and implied. Questions 1 – 4 refer to the following passage. Passage 1 - Infectious Disease An infectious disease is a clinically evident illness resulting from the presence of pathogenic agents, such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, multi-cellular parasites, and unusual proteins known as prions. Infectious pathologies are also called communicable diseases or transmissib diseases, due to their potential of transmission from one person or species to another by a replicating agent (as opposed to a toxin). Transmission of an infectious disease can occur in many different ways. Physical contact, liquids, food, body fluids, contaminated objects, and airborne inhalation can all transmit infectin 8. What is one common virus spread by coughing and sneezing? a. AIDS b. Influenza c. Herpes d. Tuberculosis Questions 9 – 11 refer to the following passage. Passage 3 – Clouds The first stage of a thunderstorm is the cumulus stage, or developing stage. In this stage, masses of moisture are lifted upwards into the atmosphere. The trigger for this lift can be insulation heating the ground producing thermals, areas where two winds converge, forcing air upwards, or where winds blow over terrain of increasing elevation. Moisture in the air rapidlynursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material cools into liquid drops of water, which appears as cumulus clouds. As the water vapor condenses into liquid, latent heat is released which warms the air, causing to become less dense than the surrounding dry air. The warm air rises in an updraft through th process of convection (hence the term convective precipitation). This creates a low-pressure zone beneath the forming thunderstorm. In a typical thunderstorm, approximately 5×10 8 kg of water vapor is lifted, and the amount of energy released when this condenses is about equal to the energy used by a city of 100,000 in a month. 3 9. The cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is the a. The last stage of the storm b. The middle stage of the storm formation c. The beginning of the thunderstorm d. The period after the thunderstorm has ended 10. One of the ways the air is warmed is a. Air moving downwards, which will creates a high-pressure zone b. Air cooling and becoming less dense, causing it to rise c. Moisture moving downward toward the earth d. Heat created by water vapor condensing into liquid 11. Identify the correct sequence of events a. Warm air rises, water droplets condense, creating more heat, and the air rises further. b. Warm air rises and cools, water droplets condense, causing low pressure. c. Warm air rises and collects water vapor, the water vapor condenses as the air rises, whichcreates heat, and causes the air to rise further. d. None of the above. Questions 12 – 14 refer to the following passage. Passage 4 – US Weather Service The United States National Weather Service classifies thunderstorms as severe when they reach a predetermined level. Usually, this means the storm is strong enough to inflict wind or hail damage. In most of the United States, a storm is considered severe if winds reach over 50 knots (58 mph or 93 km/h), hail is ¾ inch (2 cm) diameter or larger, or if meteorologists report funnel clouds or tornadoes. In the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service, the hail threshold for a severe thunderstorm is 1 inch (2.5 cm) in diameter. Though a funnel cloud or tornado indicates the presence of a severe thunderstorm, the various meteorological agencies would issue a tornado warning rather than a severe thunderstorm warning in this case. Meteorologists in Canada define a severe thunderstorm as either having tornadoes, wind gusts of 90 km/h or greater, hail 2 centimeters in diameter or greater, rainfall more than 50 millimeters in 1 hour, or 75 millimeters in 3 hours. Severe thunderstorms can develop from any type of thunderstorm. nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 3 12. What is the purpose of this passage? a. Explaining when a thunderstorm turns into a tornado b. Explaining who issues storm warnings, and when these warnings should be issued c. Explaining when meteorologists consider a thunderstorm severed. None of the above 13. It is possible to infer from this passage that a. Different areas and countries have different criteria for determining a severe storm b. Thunderstorms can include lightning and tornadoes, as well as violent winds and large hail c. If someone spots both a thunderstorm and a tornado, meteorological agencies willimmediately issue a severe storm warning d. Canada has a much different alert system for severe storms, with criteria that are far less 14. What would the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service do if hail was 2.7 cm in diameter? a. Not issue a severe thunderstorm warning. b. Issue a tornado warning. c. Issue a severe thunderstorm warning. d. Sleet must also accompany the hail before the Weather Service will issue a storm warning. Questions 15 – 18 refer to the following passage. Passage 5 – Clouds A cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above the surface of the Earth or other planetary bodies. Another type of cloud is a mass of material in space, attracted by gravity, called interstellar clouds and nebulae. The branch of meteorology which studies clouds is called nephrology. When we are speaking of Earth clouds, water vapor is usually the condensing substance, which forms small droplets or ice crystal. These crystals are typically 0.01 mm in diameter. Dense, deep clouds reflect most light, so they appear white at least from the top. Cloud droplets scatter light very efficiently, so the further into a cloud ligh travels, the weaker it gets. This accounts for the gray or dark appearance at the base of large clouds. Thin clouds may appear to have acquired the color of their environment or background 4 15. What are clouds made of? a. Water droplets. b. Ice crystals. c. Ice crystals and water droplets. d. Clouds on Earth are made of ice crystals and water droplets. 16. The main idea of this passage is a. Condensation occurs in clouds, having an intense effect on the weather on the surface of thenursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material earth. b. Atmospheric gases are responsible for the gray color of clouds just before a severe storm happens. c. A cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above thesurface of the Earth or other planetary body. d. Clouds reflect light in varying amounts and degrees, depending on the size and concentratioof the water droplets. 17. The branch of meteorology that studies clouds is called a. Convection b. Thermal meteorology c. Nephology d. Nephelometry 18. Why are clouds white on top and grey on the bottom? a. They do not receive any benefit b. Ants give them protection c. Ants give them food d. Ants give them honeydew secretions 25. Do ants or larvae benefit most from association? a. Ants benefit most. b. Larvae benefit most. c. Both benefit the same. d. Neither benefits. Questions 26 – 30 refer to the following passage. Passage 8 – Navy Seals The United States Navy’s Sea, Air and Land Teams, commonly known as Navy SEALs, are the U.S. Navy’s principal special operations force, and a part of the Naval Special Warfare Command (NSWC) as well as the maritime component of the United States Special Operation Command (USSOCOM). The unit’s acronym (“SEAL”) comes from their capacity to operate at sea, in the air, and on land – but it is their ability to work underwater that separates SEALs from most other military units in the world. Navy SEALs are trained and have been deployed in a wide variety of missions, including direct action and special reconnaissance operations, unconventional warfare, foreign internal defence, hostage rescue, counter-terrorism and other missions. All SEALs are members of either the United States Navy or the United States Coast Guard. In the early morning of May 2, 2011 local time, a team of 40 CIA-led Navy SEALs completed an operation to kill Osama bin Laden in Abbottabad, Pakistan about 35 miles (56 km) from Islamabad, the country’s capital. The Navy SEALs were part of the Naval Special Warfare Development Group, previously called “Team 6”. President Barack Obama later confirmed the death of bin Laden. The unprecedented media coverage raised the public profile of the SEAL community, particularly the counter-terrorism specialists commonly known as SEAL Team 6. 6 26. Are Navy SEALs part of USSOCOM? a. Yes b. No c. Only for special operations d. No, they are part of the US Navy 27. What separates Navy SEALs from other military units? a. Belonging to NSWC b. Direct action and special reconnaissance operations c. Working underwater d. Working for other military units in the world 28. What other military organizations do SEALs belong to?nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. The US Navy b. The Coast Guard c. The US Army d. The Navy and the Coast Guard 29. What other organization participated in the Bin Laden raid? a. The CIA b. The US Military c. Counter-terrorism specialists d. None of the above 30. What is the new name for Team 6? a. They were always called Team 6 b. The counter-terrorism specialists c. The Naval Special Warfare Development Group d. None of the above Questions 31 – 34 refer to the following passage. Passage 9 - Gardening Gardening for food extends far into prehistory. Ornamental gardens were known in ancient times, a famous example being the Hanging Gardens of Babylon, while ancient Rome had dozens of gardens. The earliest forms of gardens emerged from the people’s need to grow herbs and vegetables. It was only later that rich individuals created gardens for purely decorative purposes. In ancient Egypt, rich people created ornamental gardens to relax in the shade of the trees. Egyptians believed that gods liked gardens. Commonly, walls surrounded ancient Egyptian gardens with trees planted in rows. The most popular tree species were date palms, sycamores, fig trees, nut trees, and willows. In addition to ornamental gardens, wealthy Egyptians kept vineyards to produce wine. The Assyrians are also known for their beautiful gardens in what we know today as Iraq. Assyrian gardens were very large, with some of them used for hunting and others as leisure gardens. Cypress and palm were the most popular trees in Assyrian gardens. 7 31. Why did wealthy people in Egypt have gardens? a. For food. b. To relax in the shade. c. For ornamentation. d. For hunting. 32. What did the Egyptians believe about gardens? a. They believed gods loved gardens. b. They believed gods hated gardens. c. The didn’t have any beliefs about gods and Gardens. d. They believed gods hated trees. 33. What kinds of trees did the Assyrians like? a. The Assyrians liked date palms, sycamores, fig trees, nut trees, and willows. b. The Assyrians liked Cypresses and palms. c. The Assyrians didn’t like trees. d. The Assyrians liked hedges and vines. 34. Which came first, gardening for vegetables or ornamental gardens? a. Ornamental gardens came before vegetable gardens. b. Vegetable gardens came before ornamental gardens. c. Vegetable and ornamental gardens appeared at the same time. d. The passage does not give enough information. Questions 35 – 38 refer to the following passage. Passage 10 - Gardens Ancient Roman gardens are known for their statues and sculptures, which were never missing from the lives of Romans. Romans designed their gardens with hedges and vines as well as a wide variety of flowers, including acanthus, cornflowers and crocus, cyclamen, hyacinth, iris an ivy, lavender, lilies, myrtle, narcissus, poppy, rosemary and violet. Flower beds were popular i the courtyards of the rich Romans. The Middle Ages was a period of decline in gardening. After the fall of Rome, gardening was only for the purpose of growing medicinal herbs and decorating church altars. Islamic gardens were built after the model of Persian gardens, with enclosed walls and watercourses dividing the garden into four. Commonly, the center of the garden would have b. In marine water with a lot of nutrients. c. In marine waters with few nutrients. d. In marine water with no nutrients. 42. Where do corals reefs grow? a. Hot deep water. b. Clear, warm still water. c. Warm agitated water. d. Warm, clear, shallow and agitated water. Questions 43 – 45 refer to the following passage. Coral Reefs II Most coral reefs were formed after the last glacial period 10,000 years ago when melting ice caused the sea level to rise and flood the continental shelves. As communities established themselves on the shelves, the reefs grew upwards, pacing the rising sea levels. Reefs that rose too slowly became drowned reefs, covered by so much water there was insufficient light. Different types of coral reefs grow in the deep sea away from the continental shelves, around oceanic islands and as atolls. The vast majority of these islands are volcanic in origin. The few exceptions have tectonic origins where plate movements have lifted the deep ocean floor on th surface. 8 43. When did most coral reefs form? a. Before the last glacial period. b. After the last glacial period. c. Before the sea level rose. d. When the sea level rose. 44. What can you say about how fast coral reefs grew? a. They grew at the same rate as the rising sea levels. b. They grew faster than the rising sea levels. c. They grew slower than the rising sea levels. d. They grew before the sea levels rose. 45. What happened to the coral reefs that did grow at the proper rate?a. They died due to lack of light. b. They died due to lack of water. c. They didn’t die. d. They adapted to grow faster. Section II – Math 1. What is 1/3 of 3/4? a. 1/4 b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. 3/4 2. What fraction of $75 is $1500? a. 1/14 b. 3/5 c. 7/10 d. 1/20 3. 3.14 + 2.73 + 23.7 = a. 28.57 b. 30.57 c. 29.56 d. 29.57 4. A woman spent 15% of her income on an item and ends up with $120. What percentage of her income is left? a. 12% b. 85% c. 75% d. 95% 5. Express 0.27 + 0.33 as a fraction. a. 3/6 b. 4/7 c. 3/5 d. 2/7 6. What is (3.13 + 7.87) X 5? a. 65 b. 50 c. 45 d. 55 7. Reduce 2/4 X 3/4 to lowest terms. a. 6/12 b. 3/8 c. 6/16 d. 3/4 8. 2/3 – 2/5 = a. 4/10 b. 1/15 c. 3/7 d. 4/15 nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 9. 2/7 + 2/3 = a. 12/23 b. 5/10 c. 20/21 d. 6/21 10. 2/3 of 60 + 1/5 of 75 = a. 45 b. 55 c. 15 d. 50 11. 8 is what percent of 40? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% 12. 9 is what percent of 36? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% 13. Three tenths of 90 equals: a. 18 b. 45 c. 27 d. 36 14. .4% of 36 is a. 1.44 b. .144 c. 14.4 d. 144 29. Convert 3 yards to feet a. 18 feet b. 12 feet c. 9 feet d. 27 feet 30. Convert 45 kg. to pounds. a. 10 pounds b. 100 pounds c. 1,000 pounds d. 110 pounds 31. Convert 0.63 grams to mg. a. 630 g. b. 63 mg. c. 630 mg. d. 603 mg. 32. 5x + 3 = 7x -1. Find x a. 1/3 b. ½ c. 1 d. 2 33. 5x+2(x+7) = 14x – 7. Find x a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 34. 12t -10 = 14t + 2. Find t a. -6 b. -4 c. 4 d. 6 35. 5(z+1) = 3(z+2) + 11. Z=? a. 2 b. 4 nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. 6 d. 12 36. The price of a book went up from $20 to $25. What percent did the price increase? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 25% 37. The price of a book decreased from $25 to $20. What percent did the price decrease? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 25% 38. After taking several practice tests, Brian improved the results of his GRE test by 30%. Given that the first time he took the test Brian answered 150 questions correctly, how many questions did he answer correctly on the second test? a. 105 b. 120 c. 180 d. 195 39. In local baseball team, 4 players (or 12.5% of the team) have long hair and the rest have short hair. How many short-haired players are there on the team? a. 24 b. 28 c. 32 d. 50 40. In the time required to serve 43 customers, a server breaks 2 glasses and slips 5 times. The next day, the same server breaks 10 glasses. How many customers did she serve? a. 25 b. 43 c. 86 d. 215 41. A square lawn has an area of 62,500 square meters. What will is the cost of building fence around it at a rate of $5.5 per meter? a. $4000 b. $4500 c. $5000 d. $5500 42. Mr. Brown bought 5 cheese burgers, 3 drinks, and 4 fries for his family, and a cook pack for his dog. If the price of all single items is the same at $1.30 and a 3.5% tax is added, what is the total cost of dinner for Mr. Brown? a. $16 b. $16.9 c. $17 d. $17.5 43. The length of a rectangle is twice of its width and its area is equal to the area of a square with 12 cm. sides. What will be the perimeter of the rectangle to the nearest whole number? a. 36 cm b. 46 cm c. 51 cm d. 56 cm 44. There are 15 yellow and 35 orange balls in a basket. How many more yellow balls must be added to make the yellow balls 65%? a. 35 b. 50 c. 65 d. 70 45. A farmer wants to plant 65,536 trees in such a way that number of rows must be equal to the number of plants in a row. How many trees should he plant in a row? a. 1684 b. 1268 c. 668 d. 256 46. A distributor purchased 550 kilograms of potatoes for $165. He distributed these at rate of $6.4 per 20 kilograms to 15 shops, $3.4 per 10 kilograms to 12 shops and the remainder at $1.8. If his distribution cost is $10, what will be his profit? a. $10.4 b. $24.60 c. $14.9 d. $23.4 a. He should have went to the appointment; instead, he went to the beach. b. He should have gone to the appointment; instead, he went to the beach. c. He should have went to the appointment; instead, he gone to the beach. d. He should have gone to the appointment; instead, he gone to the beach. 9. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar.nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material a. Lee pronounced it’s name incorrectly; it’s an impatiens, not an impatience. b. Lee pronounced its name incorrectly; its an impatiens, not an impatience. c. Lee pronounced it’s name incorrectly; its an impatiens, not an impatience. d. Lee pronounced its name incorrectly; it’s an impatiens, not an impatience. 10. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Its important for you to know its official name; its called the Confederate Museum. b. It’s important for you to know it’s official name; it’s called the Confederate Museum. c. It’s important for you to know its official name; it’s called the Confederate Museum. d. Its important for you to know it’s official name; it’s called the Confederate Museum. 11. The Ford Motor Company was named for Henry Ford, __________. a. which had founded the company. b. who founded the company. c. whose had founded the company. d. whom had founded the company. 12. Thomas Edison __________ since he invented the light bulb, television, motion pictures, and phonograph. a. has always been known as the greatest inventor b. was always been known as the greatest inventor c. must have had been always known as the greatest inventor d. will had been known as the greatest inventor 13. The weatherman on Channel 6 said that this has been the __________. a. most hottest summer on record b. most hottest summer on record c. hottest summer on record d. hotter summer on record 14. Although Joe is tall for his age, his brother Elliot is __________ of the two. a. the tallest b. more tallest c. the tall d. the taller 15. When Kiss came to town, all of the tickets __________ before I could buy one. a. will be sold out b. had been sold out c. were being sold out d. was sold out nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 16. The rules of most sports __________ more complicated than we often realize. a. are b. is c. was d. has been 17. Neither of the Wright Brothers __________ that they would be successful with their flying machine. a. have any doubts b. has any doubts c. had any doubts d. will have any doubts 18. The Titanic __________ mere days into its maiden voyage. a. has already sunk b. will already sunk c. already sank d. sank 19. __________ won first place in the Western Division? a. Who b. Whom c. Which d. What 20. There are now several ways to listen to music, including radio, CDs, and Mp3 files __________ you can download onto an MP3 player. a. on which b. who c. whom d. which 21. As the tallest monument in the United States, the St. Louis Arch __________. a. has rose to an impressive 630 feet. b. is risen to an impressive 630 feet. c. rises to an impressive 630 feet. d. was rose to an impressive 630 feet. a. Except for the roses, she did not accept John’s frequent gifts. b. Accept for the roses, she did not except John’s frequent gifts. c. Accept for the roses, she did not accept John’s frequent gifts. d. Except for the roses, she did not except John’s frequent gifts. 36. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Although he continued to advise me, I no longer took his advice.nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material b. Although he continued to advice me, I no longer took his advise. c. Although he continued to advise me, I no longer took his advise. d. Although he continued to advice me, I no longer took his advise. 37. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. In order to adopt to the climate, we had to adopt a different style of clothing. b. In order to adapt to the climate, we had to adapt a different style of clothing. c. In order to adapt to the climate, we had to adopt a different style of clothing. d. In order to adapt to the climate, we had to adapt a different style of clothing. 38. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. When he’s between friends, Robert seems confident, but between you and me, he is reallyvery shy. b. When he’s among friends, Robert seems confident, but among you and me, he is really veryshy. c. When he’s between friends, Robert seems confident, but among you and me, he is reallyvery shy. d. When he’s among friends, Robert seems confident, but between you and me, he is reallyvery shy. 39. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. I will be finished at ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at about 6:30. b. I will be finished at about ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at 6:30. c. I will be finished at about ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at about 6:30. d. I will be finished at ten in the morning, and will be arriving at home at 6:30. 40. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Beside the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug beside the couch. b. Besides the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug beside the couch. c. Besides the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug besides the couch. d. Beside the red curtains and pillows, there was a red rug besides the couch. 41. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Although John can swim very well, the lifeguard may not allow him to swim in the pool. b. Although John may swim very well, the lifeguard may not allow him to swim in the pool. c. Although John can swim very well, the lifeguard cannot allow him to swim in the pool. d. Although John may swim very well, the lifeguard may not allow him to swim in the pool. 42. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Her continuous absences caused a continual disruption at the office. b. Her continual absences caused a continuous disruption at the office. c. Her continual absences caused a continual disruption at the office.nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material d. Her continuous absences caused a continuous disruption at the office. 43. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. During the famine, the Irish people had to emigrate to other countries; many of themimmigrated to the United States. b. During the famine, the Irish people had to immigrate to other countries; many of themimmigrated to the United States. c. During the famine, the Irish people had to emigrate to other countries; many of thememigrated to the United States. d. During the famine, the Irish people had to immigrate to other countries; many of thememigrated to the United States. 44. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. His home was farther than we expected; farther, the roads were very bad. b. His home was farther than we expected; further, the roads were very bad. c. His home was further than we expected; further, the roads were very bad. d. His home was further than we expected; farther, the roads were very bad. 45. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the latter were given tothe staff, while the former were given directly to the children. b. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the former was given tothe staff, while the latter was given directly to the children. c. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the groceries were givento the staff, while the former was given directly to the children. d. The volunteers brought groceries and toys to the homeless shelter; the latter was given tothe staff, while the groceries were given directly to the children. 46. Choose the sentence with the correct usage. a. Vegetables are a healthy food; eating them can make you more healthful. b. Vegetables are a healthful food; eating them can make you more healthful. c. Vegetables are a healthy food; eating them can make you more healthy. d. Vegetables are a healthful food; eating them can make you more healthy. 1. Trespass 2. Hampers 3. Felony 4. Obligatory 5. VERB To encourage or incite troublesome acts. 1. Comment 2. Foment 3. Integument 4. Atonement 6. ADJECTIVE Dignified, solemn that is appropriate for a funeral. 1. Funereal 2. Prediction 3. Wailing 4. Vociferous 7. NOUN Warmth and kindness of disposition. 1. Seethe 2. Geniality 3. Desists 4. Predicate 8. ADJECTIVE Polite and well mannered. 1. Chivalrous 2. Hilarious 3. Genteel 4. Governance 9. VERB To encourage, stimulate or incite and provoke. 1. Push 2. Force 3. Threaten 4. Goad 10. ADJECTIVE Shocking, terrible or wicked. 1. Pleasantries 2. Heinous 3. Shrewd 4. Provencal 11. NOUN A person of thing that tells or announces the coming of someone or something. 1. Harbinger 2. Evasion 3. Apostate 4. Coquette 12. ADJECTIVE Similar or identical. 1. Soluble 2. Assembly 3. Conclave 4. Homologous 13. ADJECTIVE Common, not honorable or noble. 1. Princely 2. Ignoble 3. Shameful 4. Sham 14. ADJECTIVE Irrelevant not having substance or matter. 1. Immaterial 2. Prohibition 3. Prediction 4. Brokerage 15. ADJECTIVE Perfect, no faults or errors. a. Impeccable b. Formidable c. Genteel d. Disputation 16. VERB Place side by side for contrast or comparison. 1. Peccadillo 2. Fallible 3. Congeal 4. Juxtapose 17. NOUN Ruling council of a military government. 1. Sophist 2. Counsel 3. Virago 4. Junta 18. NOUN Someone who takes more time than necessary. 1. Demagogue 2. Haggard 3. Laggard 4. Investiture 19. ADJECTIVE Lacking enthusiasm, strength or energy. 1. Hapless 2. Languid 3. Ubiquitous 4. Promiscuous 20. NOUN A person of influence, rank or distinction. 1. Consummate 2. Sinister 3. Accolade 4. Magnate 21. NOUN A lingering disease or ailment of the human body. 1. Treatment 2. Frontal 3. Malady 2. Discuss 3. Argue 4. Debate 34. Choose the best definition of sombre. 1. Gothic 2. Black 3. Serious 4. Evil 35. Choose the best definition of maverick. 1. Rebel 2. Conformist 3. Unconventional 4. Conventional 36. Choose the best definition of tenuous. 1. Strong 2. Tense 3. Firm 4. Weak 37. Choose the best definition of pandemonium. 1. Chaos 2. Orderly 3. Quiet 4. Noisy 38. Choose the best definition of perpetual. 1. Continuous 2. Slowly 3. Over a very long time 4. Motion 39. Choose the best definition of denigrate. 1. Compliment 2. Belittle 3. Praise 4. Admire 40. Choose the best definition of mundane. 1. Exciting 2. Continuous 3. Unforgiving 4. Ordinary 41. Choose the best definition of importune. 1. To find an opportunity 2. To ask all the time. 3. Cannot find an opportunity 4. None of the above 42. Choose the best definition of volatile. 1. Not explosive 2. Catches fire easily 3. Does not catch fire 4. Explosive 43. Choose the best definition of plaintive. 1. Happy 2. Mournful 3. Faint 4. Plain 44. Choose the best definition of nexus. 1. A connection 2. A telephone switch 3. Part of a computer 4. None of the above 45. Choose the best definition of conjoin. 1. A connection 2. To marry 3. Weld together 4. To join together 46. Choose the best definition of petrify. 1. Turn into a fossil 2. Turn to stone 3. Turn into wood 4. Turn into glass 47. Choose the best definition of inherent. c. Strong Nuclear Force, Weak Nuclear Force, Electromagnetic Force, Gravity d. Gravity, Strong Nuclear Force, Weak Nuclear Force, Electromagnetic Force 8. What is the difference between Strong Nuclear Force and Weak Nuclear Force? a. The Strong Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons andmaintains the structure of the nucleus, and the Weak Nuclear Force is responsible for the radioactive beta decay and other subatomic reactions.nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material b. The Strong Nuclear Force is responsible for the radioactive beta decay and other subatomicreactions, and the Weak Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons and maintains the structure of the nucleus. c. The Weak Nuclear Force is feeble and the Strong Nuclear Force is robust. d. The Strong Nuclear Force is a negative force that releases protons and neutrons andthreatens the structure of the nucleus, and the Weak Nuclear Force is an attractive force that binds protons and neutrons and maintains the structure of the nucleus. 9. The Law of Conservation of Mass states that: a. No detectable gain but, depending on the substances used, some loss can occur in chemicareactions. b. No detectable gain or loss occurs in chemical reactions. c. No detectable loss but some gain occurs in chemical reactions. d. Depending on the substances used, substantial gain or loss can occur in chemical reactions 10. What is the difference, if any, between convection and heat radiation? a. Thermal radiation is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement offluids; convection is electromagnetic radiation emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. b. Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids;thermal radiation is nuclear energy emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. c. Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids;thermal radiation is electromagnetic radiation emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. d. Convection is the transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement of fluids;thermal radiation is the barely detectable light emitted from all matter due to its possessing thermal energy. 11. In ________ cells, the cell cycle is the cycle of events involving cell division, including ______, ________, and _________. a. Prokaryotic, meiosis, cytokinesis, and interphase b. Eukaryotic, meiosis, cytokinesis, and interphase c. Eukaryotic, mitosis, kinematisis, and interphase d. Eukaryotic, mitosis, cytokinesis, and interphase 12. Which, if any, of the following statements about prokaryotic cells is false? a. Prokaryotic cells include such organisms as E. coli and Streptococcus. b. Prokaryotic cells lack internal membranes and organelles. c. Prokaryotic cells break down food using cellular respiration and fermentation.d. All of these statements are true. 13. __________ is a nucleic acid that carries the genetic information in the cell and isnursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material capable of self-replication. a. RNA b. Triglyceride c. DNA d. DAR 14. The complementary bases found in DNA are ______ and _______ or _______ and ________. a. Adenine and thymine or cytosine and guanine b. Cytosine and thymine or adenine and guanine c. Adenine and cytosine or thymine and guanine d. None of the above 15. A/an ________ is the basic structural unit of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA); their sequence determines individual hereditary characteristics. a. Gene b. Nucleotide c. Phosphate d. Nitrogen base 16. _________________ is a ______________ that plays an important role in the creation of new _________. a. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in thecreation of new proteins. b. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creation onew proteins. c. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a cluster of enzymes that plays an important role in the creation onew proteins. d. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creation onew genes. 17. Which, if any, of the following statements are false? a. A mutation is a permanent change in the DNA sequence of a gene. b. Mutations in a gene’s DNA sequence can alter the amino acid sequence of the proteinencoded by the gene. c. Mutations in DNA sequences usually occur spontaneously. d. Muscle nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 24. A/an _________ is a group of tissues that perform a specific function or group of functions. a. System b. Tissue c. Group d. Organ 25. Among animals, examples of ________ are the heart, lungs, brain, eye, stomach, an bones; plant ______ include the roots, stems, leaves, flowers, seeds and fruits. a. Systems b. Organs c. Tissues d. Phylum 26. Our bodies have _____ different _______, including _________, _________, and __________. a. Our bodies have 5 different systems, including circulatory, digestive, and lymphatic. b. Our bodies have 11 different systems, including circulatory, digestive, and heart. c. Our bodies have 11 different systems, including circulatory, digestive, and lymphatic. d. Our bodies have 12 different systems, including circulatory, bowel, and lymphatic. 27. The ________ system absorbs excess fluid, preventing tissues from swelling, defends the body against microorganisms and harmful foreign particles, and facilitates the absorption of fat. a. Vascular b. Digestive c. Circulatory d. Lymphatic 28. The _______ system consists of ______, _____, and _______ that transport _______ to and from all tissues a. The vascular system consists of arteries, veins, and capillaries that transport oxygen to andfrom all tissues. b. The lymphatic system consists of arteries, veins, and capillaries that transport oxygen to anfrom all tissues. c. The vascular system consists of arteries, stratums, and capillaries that transport oxygen toand from all tissues. d. The vascular system consists of arteries, veins, and ducts that transport oxygen to and fromall tissues. 29. What are the differences, if any, between arteries, veins, and capillaries? a. Veins carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, arteries return oxygen-depleted blood tonursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material the heart, and capillaries are thin-walled blood vessels in which gas/ nutrient/ waste exchange occurs. b. Capillaries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, veins return oxygen-depleted bloodto the heart, and capillaries are thin-walled blood vessels in which gas/ nutrient/ waste exchange occurs. c. There are no differences; all perform the same function in different parts of the body. d. Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, veins return oxygen-depleted blood tothe heart, and capillaries are thin-walled blood vessels in which gas/ nutrient/ waste exchange occurs. 30. The ___________ is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided into three segments, the ________, the ________, and the _______. a. The stomach is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided into threesegments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. b. The small intestine is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided intothree segments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. c. The large intestine is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided intothree segments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. d. The small intestine is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided intothree segments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ilex. 31. The _______system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three types of response systems: the ________ response, the _________ response, and the _______ response. a. The vascular system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three typesof response systems: the anatomic response, the inflammatory response, and the immune response. b. The immune system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three typesof response systems: the anatomic response, the inflammatory response, and the immune response. c. The immune system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three typesof response systems: the automatic response, the flammatory response, and the immune response. d. The epithelial system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three typesof response systems: the anatomic response, the inflammatory response, and the immune response. 32. The musculoskeletal system is composed of all of the bones, cartilage, muscles, joints, tendons and ligaments in a person’s body. a. Musculoskeletal b. Muscular c. Skeletal d. Connective 33. The _______________ is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called ________; its primary purpose is to break food down into _______, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. a. The epithelium tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called gastric; itsprimary purpose is to break food down into nutrients, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. b. The gastrointestinal tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called ileum; itsprimary purpose is to break food down into oxygen, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. c. The gastrointestinal tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, calledepithelium; its primary purpose is to break food down into nutrients, which can be absorbed int the body to provide energy. d. The esophageal tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called epithelium; iprimary purpose is to break food down into nutrients, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. 34. The _________________ states that, in a chemical change, ________ can be neither _____ nor ________, but only changed from _______________. a. The Law of the Preservation of Matter states that, in a chemical change, energy can beneither created nor destroyed, but only changed from one form to another. b. The Law of the Conservation of Energy states that, in a chemical change, energy can beneither created nor destroyed, but only changed from one atomic number to another. c. The Law of the Conservation of Energy states that, in a chemical change, energy can beneither created nor destroyed, but only changed from one form to another. d. The Law of the Conservation of Energy states that, in a chemical change, energy can beneither duplicated nor destroyed, but only changed from one form to another. 35. A _________ is a process that transforms one set of chemical substances to another; the substances used are known as ________ and those formed are _________ a. A chemical change is a process that transforms one set of chemical substances to another; the substances used are known as products and those formed are reactants. 44. Which of the following statements about the periodic table of the elements are true? a. On the periodic table, the elements are arranged according to their atomic mass. b. The way in which the elements are arranged allows for predictions about their behavior. c. The vertical columns of the table are called rows. d. The horizontal rows of the table are called groups. 45. ___________ ________ is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom or ion in the gas phase. a. Ionization energy b. Valence energy c. Atomic energy d. Ionic energy 46. A(an) ________ _________ is one half the distance between nuclei of atoms of the same element, when the atoms are bound by a single covalent bond or are in a metallic crystal. a. Ionic radius b. Metallic radius nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. Covalent radius d. Atomic radius 47. What are the differences, if any, between anions and cations? a. An anion is a negatively charged ion, and a cation is a positively charged ion. b. Anions are typically formed by nonmetals, and metals usually form cations.c. A & B d. None of the Above. 48. The radius of atoms obtained from ________ bond lengths is called the _______ radius; the radius from interatomic distances in metallic crystals is called the _______ radius. a. The radius of atoms obtained from valent bond lengths is called the valent radius; the radiusfrom interatomic distances in metallic crystals is called the metallic radius. b. The radius of atoms obtained from covalent bond lengths is called the covalent radius; theradius from interatomic distances in nonmetallic crystals is called the nonmetallic radius. c. The radius of atoms obtained from covalent bond lengths is called the covalent radius; theradius from interatomic distances in metallic crystals is called the metallic radius. d. The radius of atoms obtained from covalent bond lengths is called the covalent radius; theradius from interatomic distances in ionic crystals is called the ionic radius. 49. A(an) ________ _______ is a regular variation in element properties with ________ atomic number that is ultimately due to ________ variations in atomic structure. a. A episodic trend is a regular variation in element properties with increasing atomic numberthat is ultimately due to regular variations in atomic structure. b. A periodic trend is a regular variation in element properties with decreasing atomic numberthat is ultimately due to regular variations in atomic structure. c. A periodic trend is a regular variation in element properties with increasing atomic numberthat is ultimately due to irregular variations in atomic structure. d. A periodic trend is a regular variation in element properties with increasing atomic numberthat is ultimately due to regular variations in atomic structure. 50. Which of the following statements about nonmetals are false? a. A nonmetal is a substance that conducts heat and electricity poorly. b. The majority of the known chemical elements are nonmetals. c. A nonmetal is brittle or waxy or gaseous. d. All of the above are true. Anatomy and Physiology 1. Fluid balance might be negatively impacted when the_____ fail. a. Kidneys b. Ears nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material c. Nose d. Legs 2. Fluid balance is important, because ________ comprises about 60-70% of a person’s weight. a. Calcium b. Water c. Iron d. Bone 3. As a person moves from adolescence to later adulthood, his metabolism a. Begins to get higher b. Begins to get lower. c. Stabilizes d. Fluctuates wildly 4. “Met” refers to a. Mitosis b. The person’s heart rate c. The person’s blood pressure d. The person’s metabolic rate. 5. Fluid balance is important, because the human body loses water every day through urination, perspiration, feces, and a. Breathing b. Resting c. Meditating d. Outbursts of temper 6. The smallest unit of life in our bodies is the a. Atom b. Molecule c. Proton d. Cell 7. One of the functions of the cell membrane is to a. Divide into other cells. b. Control what moves into and out of the cell. c. Fight infection. d. Trap bacteria. 8. The process of a larger nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Materialnursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Materialcell dividing into two o r more smaller cells is a. Cell division. b. Cell multiplication. c. Mitosis. d. Metabolism. 9. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are all phases of a. Cell division. b. Infection. c. Mitosis. d. Adrenaline. 10. Mitosis is a scientific term that, in layman’s terms, just means a. Cellular disease. a. Circulatory nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material b. Musculoskeletal c. Integumentary d. Digestive 22. The integumentary system comprises the ________ and its various appendages. a. Skeleton b. Brain c. Skin d. Heart 23. An example of appendages contained within the integumentary system are _____________. a. Lungs b. Hair and nails c. Nostrils d. Ears 24. In addition to protecting the body, an example of a benefit of the integumentary system is its function of __________________. a. Circulating blood. b. Digesting food. c. Processing information. d. Regulating temperature. 25. How many layers of skin are contained within the human integumentary system (skin)? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four PRACTICE TEST 1 - ANSWER KEY Section 1 – Reading Comprehension 1. B We can infer from this passage that sickness from an infectious disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another. From the passage, “Infectious pathologies are also called communicable diseases or transmissible diseases, due to their potential of transmission from one person or species to another by a replicating agent (as opposed to a toxin).” 2. A Two other names for infectious pathologies are communicable diseases and transmissible diseases. From the passage, “Infectious pathologies are also called communicable diseases or transmissible diseases, due to their potential of transmission from one person or species to another by a replicating agent (as opposed to a toxin).” 3. C Infectivity describes the ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host. This is taken directly from the passage, and is a definition type question. Definition type questions can be answered quickly and easily by scanning the passage for the word you are asked to define. “Infectivity” is an unusual word, so it is quick and easy to scan the passage looking for this word. 4. B We know an infection is not synonymous with an infectious disease because an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms or impair host function. 5. C We can infer from the passage that, a virus is too small to be seen with the naked eye. Clearly if they are too small to be seen with a microscope, then they are too small to be seen with the naked eye. 6. D Viruses infect all types of organisms. This is taken directly from the passage, “Viruses infect a types of organisms, from animals and plants to bacteria and single-celled organisms.” 7. C The passage does not say exactly how many parts prions and viroids consist of. It does say, “Unlike prions and viroids, viruses consist of two or three parts ...” so we can infer they consis of either less than two or more than three parts. 8. B A common virus spread by coughing and sneezing is Influenza. 9. C The cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is the beginning of the thunderstorm. This is taken directly from the passage, “The first stage of a thunderstorm is the cumulus, or developing stage.” 10. D The passage lists four ways that air is heated. One of the ways is, heat created by water vapor condensing into liquid. 11. A The sequence of events can be taken from these sentences: As the moisture carried by the [1] air currents rises, it rapidly cools into liquid drops of water, which appear as cumulus clouds. As the water vapor condenses into liquid, it [2] releases heatnursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material which warms the air. This in turn causes the air to become less dense than the surrounding dry air and [3] rise further. 12. C The purpose of this text is to explain when meteorologists consider a thunderstorm severe. The main idea is the first sentence, “The United States National Weather Service classifies thunderstorms as severe when they reach a predetermined level.” After the first sentence, the passage explains and elaborates on this idea. Everything is this passage is related to this idea and there are no other major ideas in this passage that are central to the whole passage. 13. A From this passage, we can infer that different areas and countries have different criteria for determining a severe storm. From the passage we can see that most of the US has a criteria of, winds over 50 knots (58 mph or 93 km/h), and hail ¾ inch (2 cm). For the Central US, hail must be 1 inch (2.5 cm) in diameter. In Canada, winds must be 90 km/h or greater, hail 2 centimeters in diameter or greater, and rainfall more than 50 millimeters in 1 hour, or 75 millimeters in 3 hours. Option D is incorrect because the Canadian system is the same for hail, 2 centimeters in diameter. 14. C With hail above the minimum size of 2.5 cm. diameter, the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service would issue a severe thunderstorm warning. 15. D Clouds in space are made of different materials attracted by gravity. Clouds on Earth are mad of water droplets or ice crystals. Choice D is the best answer. Notice also that Choice D is the most specific. 16. C The main idea is the first sentence of the passage; a cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above the surface of the Earth or other planetary body. The main idea is very often the first sentence of the paragraph. 17. C This question is taken directly from the passage. 32. A The Egyptians believed gods loved gardens. 33. B Cypresses and palms were the most popular trees in Assyrian Gardens.nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 34. B Vegetable gardens came before ornamental gardens. The earliest forms of gardens emerged from the people’s need to grow herbs and vegetables. It was only later that rich individuals created gardens for the purely decorative purpose. 35. A The ancient Roman gardens are known by their statues and sculptures … 36. D After the fall of Rome, gardening was only for medicinal purposes, AND gardening declined in the Middle Ages, so we can infer gardening declined after the fall of Rome. 37. C From the passage, “After the fall of Rome gardening was only done with the purpose of growing medicinal herbs and decorating church altars,” so Choice C. 38. B From the passage, “Mosaics and glazed tiles used to decorate elaborate fountains are specific to Islamic gardens.” 39. B From the passage, “Often called “rainforests of the sea”, coral reefs form some of the most diverse ecosystems on Earth.” 40. A Read the passage carefully – “The polyps are like tiny sea anemones, to which they are close related.” 41. C This question is designed to confuse by giving variation of the same information. Read the passage carefully for the correct answer. 42. D This question is designed to confuse by giving variation of the same information. Read the passage carefully for the correct answer. 43. B Designed to confuse by offering variations of the same information. Read the passage carefull for the correct time sequence. 44. A From the passage, “As communities established themselves on the shelves, the reefs grew upwards, pacing the rising sea levels. Reefs that rose too slowly became drowned reefs, covered by so much water that there was insufficient light.” Here, “pacing” is the key word, so Choice A, “at the same rate... “ From this we can infer that coral reefs grew at the same rate (pacing) as the rising water leve 45. A Reefs that grew too slowly died from a lack of light. From the passage, “Reefs that rose too slowly became drowned reefs, covered by so much water there was insufficient light.” Section II – Math Answer Key 1. A 1/3 X 3/4 = 3/12 = 1/4 2. D nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 75/1500 = 15/300 = 3/60 = 1/20 3. D 3.14 + 2.73 = 5.87 and 5.87 + 23.7 = 29.57 4. B Spent 15% - 100% - 15% = 85% 5. C 0.27 + 0.33 = 0.60 and 0.60 = 60/100 = 3/5 6. D 3.13 + 7.87 = 11 and 11 X 5 = 55 7. B 2/4 X 3/4 = 6/16, and lowest terms = 3/8 8. D 2/3-2/5 = 10-6 /15 = 4/15 9. C 2/7 + 2/3 = 6+14 /21 (21 is the common denominator) = 20/21 10. B 2/3 x 60 = 40 and 1.5 x 75 = 15, 40 + 15 = 55 11. C 8/40 = X/100 = 8 * 100 / 40X = 800/40 = X = 20 12. D 9/36 = X/100 = 9 * 100 / 36X = 900/36 = 25 13. C 3/10 * 90 = 3 * 90/10 = 27 14. B 4/100 * 36 = .4 * 36/100 = .144 15. A 5 mg/10/mg X 1 tab/1 = .5 tablets 16. B Step 1: Set up the formula to calculate the dose to be given in mg as per weight of the child:Dose ordered X Weight in Kg = Dose to be given Step 2: 20 mg X 12 kg = 240 mg 240 mg/80 mg X 1 tab/1 = 240/80 = 3 tablets 17. A Set up the formula to calculate the dose to be given in mg as per weight of the child:Dose ordered X Weight in Kg = Dose to be given Step 2: 20 mg X 20 kg = 400 mg (Convert 44 lb to Kg, 1 lb = 0.4536 kg, hence 44 lb = 19.95 kg approx. 20 kg) 400 mg/80 mg X 1 tab/1 = 400/80 = 5 tablets 18. B 3000 units/5000 units X 1 ml/1 = 3000/5000 = 0.6 ml 19. C 60 mg/80 mg X 1 ml/1 = 60/80 = 0.75 ml 20. A Dose ordered X Weight in Kg = Dose to be given Let x be the width, then 2x be the length of rectangle, so its area will be 2x 2 and perimeter wil be 2(2x+x)=6x According to the condition 2x 2 = 144 X = 8.48 cm The perimeter will be Perimeter=6×8.4 8 =50.88 =51 cm. 44. B There are 50 balls in the basket now. Let x be the number of yellow balls to be added to make 65%. So the equation becomes X + 15 /X + 50 = 65/100 X = 50 45. D Let x be number of rows, and number of trees in a row. So equation becomes X 2 = 65536 X = 256 46. B First calculate the number of stores to distribute 5 kg portions: 550 - (20 x 15) - (10 x 12) = 130. Then 130/5 = 26 shops. His distribution is then: 15 x 6.4 = $96, 12 x 3.4 = $40.8, 26 x 1.8 × 26 = $46.8, Total = $183.6. Then subtract the distribution costs: Total number of stores = 15 + 12 + 26 = 53, 53 x 3 = $159 distribution costs. Then calculate profit: $183.6 - 159 = $24.60 47. D Each tree will require a 10-meter diametric space around its stem. So 65 trees can be planted along 650-meter side. Similarly, 65 along the other side. However, along the 780 meter side, the first tree will be after 10 meters at both edges, so 76 trees can be planted long that side. Total number of trees then will be 65×2+76×2=282 48. A As one tree requires 10-meter diametric space, or, a 10-meter space on all four sides will be left. Therefore, the dimensions left are 630×760=478,800 m 2 . 49. B X/2 – 250 = 3X/7 X = $3500 50. A The probability that the 1 st ball drawn is red = 4/11 The probability that the 2 nd ball drawn is green = 5/10 The combined probability will then be 4/11 X 5/10 = 20/110 = 2/11 Section III English Answer Key 1. A The third conditional is used nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Materialnursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Materialfor talking about an unreal situation (a situation that did not happen) in the past. For example, “If I had studied harder, [if clause] I would have passed the exam” [main clause]. This has the same meaning as, “I failed the exam, because I didn’t study hard enough.” 2. D The third conditional is used for talking about an unreal situation (a situation that did not happen) in the past. For example, “If I had studied harder, [if clause] I would have passed the exam” [main clause]. This has the same meaning as, “I failed the exam, because I didn’t study hard enough.” 3. B In double negative sentences, one of the negatives is replaced with “any.” 4. C In double negative sentences, one of the negatives is replaced with “any.” 5. D The present perfect tense cannot be used with specific time expressions such as yesterday, one year ago, last week, when I was a child, at that moment, that day, one day, etc. The present perfect tense is used with unspecific expressions such as ever, never, once, many times, several times, before, so far, already, yet, etc. 6. C The present perfect tense cannot be used with specific time expressions such as yesterday, one year ago, last week, when I was a child, at that moment, that day, one day, etc. The present perfect tense is used with unspecific expressions such as ever, never, once, many times, several times, before, so far, already, yet, etc. 7. A “Went” is used in the simple past tense. “Gone” is used in the past perfect tense. 8. B “Went” is used in the simple past tense. “Gone” is used in the past perfect tense. 9. D “It’s” is a contraction for it is or it has. “Its” is a possessive pronoun. 10. C “It’s” is a contraction for it is or it has. “Its” is a possessive pronoun. 11. B The sentence refers to a person, so “who” is the only correct option. 12. A The sentence requires the past perfect “has always been known.” Furthermore, this is the only grammatically correct choice. 13. C The superlative, “hottest,” is used when expressing a temperature greater than that of anything to which it is being compared. 14. D “Healthy” describes people or animals that are in good health. “Healthful” is generally used in formal speech or writing, and refers to things that are good for health. 47. C “Lie” does not require a direct object, while “lay” does. In this sentence, “lay” is followed by the direct object, “the books.” 48. C “Lie” does not require a direct object, while “lay” does. In this sentence, “lay” is followed by the direct object, “the books.” 49. C This is the correct choice. 50. B “Learn” means to receive and integrate knowledge or an experience. “Teach” means to impart knowledge to another. Section III Part II – Vocabulary 1. C Edify VERB to instruct or improve morally or intellectually. 2. B Egress NOUN an exit or way out. 3. A Confidential ADJECTIVE kept secret within a certain circle of persons; not intended to be known publicly. 4. C Felony NOUN serious criminal offence that is punishable by death or imprisonment above a year. 5. B Foment VERB to encourage or incite troublesome acts. 6 ..........................................................................................................................................25 Funereal ADJECTIVE dignified, solemn that is appropriate for a funeral. ...........................40 7Geniality NOUN warmth and kindness of disposition. ......................................................40 8Genteel ADJECTIVE polite and well mannered. ...............................................................40 9Goad VERB to encourage, stimulate or incite and provoke...............................................40 10. B Heinous ADJECTIVE shocking, terrible or wicked. 11. A Harbinger NOUN a person of thing that tells or announces the coming of someone or something. 12. D Homologous ADJECTIVE similar or identical. 13. B Ignoble ADJECTIVE common, not honorable or noble. 14. A Immaterial ADJECTIVE irrelevant not having substance or matter. 15. A Impeccable ADJECTIVE perfect, no faults or errors. 16. D Juxtapose VERB place side by side for contrast or comparison. 17. D Junta NOUN ruling council of a military government. 18. C Laggard NOUN someone who takes more time than necessary.nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material 19. B Languid ADJECTIVE lacking enthusiasm, strength or energy. 20. D Magnate NOUN a person of influence, rank or distinction. 21. C Malady NOUN a lingering disease or ailment of the human body. 22. B Nimble ADJECTIVE quick and light in movement. 23. B Racket NOUN a loud noise. 24. C Nuptial NOUN of or pertaining to wedding and marriage. 25. A Ostensible ADJECTIVE meant for open display; apparent. 26. C Octavo NOUN a sheet of paper 7 to 10 inches high and 4.5 to 6 inches wide, the size varying with the large original sheet used to create it. Made by folding the original sheet three times to produce eight leaves. 27. A Pallid ADJECTIVE appearing weak, pale, or wan. 28. C Panorama NOUN a picture or series of pictures representing a continuous scene. 29. B Paradox NOUN a self contradictory statement that can only be true if false and vice versa. 30. A Querulous ADJECTIVE often complaining; suggesting a complaint in expression; fretfu whining. 31. D Mollify VERB to ease a burden; make less painful; to comfort; soothe. 32. C Redundant ADJECTIVE repetitive or needlessly wordy. 33. C Bicker VERB to quarrel in a tiresome, insulting manner. 34. C Sombre ADJECTIVE dark; gloomy. 35. A Maverick NOUN showing independence in thoughts or actions. 36. D Tenuous ADJECTIVE thin in substance or consistency. 37. A Pandemonium NOUN chaos; tumultuous or lawless violence. 38. A Perpetual ADJECTIVE continuing uninterrupted. 39. B Denigrate VERB to treat as worthless; belittle, degrade or disparage. 40. D Mundane ADJECTIVE ordinary; not new. 41. B Importune VERB to harass with persistent requests. 42. D Volatile ADJECTIVE explosive. 43. B Plaintive ADJECTIVE sorrowful, mournful or melancholic. 44. A Nexus NOUN a form of connection. 45. D Conjoin VERB to join together; to unite; to combine. 46. B The complementary bases found in DNA are adenine and thymine or cytosine and guanine. 15. B A nucleotide is the basic structural unit of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA); their sequence determines individual hereditary characteristics. 16. B Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is a chain of nucleotides that plays an important role in the creation of new proteins. 17. C Mutations in DNA sequences usually occur spontaneously is false. Note: Mutations result when the DNA polymerase makes a mistake, which happens about onc every 100,000,000 bases. Actually, the number of mistakes that remain incorporated into the DNA is even lower than this because cells contain special DNA repair proteins that fix many of the mistakes in the DNA that are caused by mutagens. The repair proteins see which nucleotides are paired incorrectly, and then change the wrong base to the right one.1 2 18. A Aerobic reactions occur in every cell and use oxygen to convert glucose to energy; anaerobi organisms such as many bacteria can release energy without the use of oxygen. Note: The anaerobic process occurs in the cytoplasm and is only moderately efficient. The aerobic cycle takes place in the mitochondria and results in the greatest release of energy. 13 19. D Tissues are a collection of similar cells that group together to perform a specialized function. 20. A Epithelial tissue serves as membranes lining organs and helping to keep the body’s organs separate, in place and protected; an example is the outer layer of the skin. 21. D Tissue that adds support and structure to the body and frequently contains fibrous strands of collagen is connective tissue. Note: Some examples of connective tissue include the inner layers of skin, tendons, ligaments cartilage, bone and fat tissue. In addition to these more recognizable forms of connective tissue, blood is also considered a form of connective tissue. 14 22. B Muscle tissue is a specialized tissue that can contract and contains the specialized proteins actin and myosin that slide past one another and allow movement. 23. A Nerve tissue contains two types of cells: neurons and glial cells and has the ability to generate and conduct electrical signals in the body. 24. D An organ is a group of tissues that perform a specific function or group of functions. 25. B Among animals, examples of organs are the heart, lungs, brain, eye, stomach, and bones; plant organs include the roots, stems, leaves, flowers, seeds and fruits. 26. C Our bodies have 11 different systems, including circulatory, digestive, and lymphatic. Note: Other systems include the endocrine, immune, muscular, nervous, reproductive, respiratory, skeletal, and urinary systems. 15 27. D The Lymphatic system absorbs excess fluid, preventing tissues from swelling, defends the bod against microorganisms and harmful foreign particles, and facilitates the absorption of fat. 28. A The vascular system consists ofnursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material arteries, veins, and capillaries that transport oxygen to and from all tissues. Note: The cardiovascular system refers to the heart (cardio) and blood vessels (vascular). The circulatory system is a more general term encompassing the blood, blood vessels, heart, lymph, and lymph vessels. 29. D Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, veins return oxygen-depleted blood to the heart, and capillaries are thin-walled blood vessels in which gas/ nutrient/ waste exchange occurs. Note: An easy way to remember the difference between an artery and a vein is that Arteries carry Away from the heart. 30. B The small intestine is the primary organ of the digestive tract, and may be subdivided into three segments, the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. 31. B The immune system defends our bodies against infections and disease through three types of response systems: the anatomic response, the inflammatory response, and the immune response. 32. A The musculoskeletal system is composed of all of the bones, cartilage, muscles, joints, tendons and ligaments in a person’s body. Note: Some people view the musculoskeletal system as two body systems in one or two systems that work very closely together, with one being the muscular system and the other being the skeletal system. 16 33. C The gastrointestinal tract is a muscular tube lined by a special layer of cells, called epithelium; its primary purpose is to break food down into nutrients, which can be absorbed into the body to provide energy. 34. C The Law of the Conservation of Energy states that, in a chemical change, energy can be neither created nor destroyed, but only changed from one form to another. 35. C A chemical change is a process that transforms one set of chemical substances to another; the substances used are known as reactants and those formed are products. 36. D Anabolism is the series of chemical reactions resulting in the synthesis of organic compounds and catabolism is a series of chemical reactions that break down larger molecules. 37. D A catalyst is a chemical involved in, but not changed by, a chemical reaction by which chemica bonds are weakened and reactions accelerated. Note: Enzymes function as organic catalysts and allow many chemical reactions to occur withi the homeostatic constraints of a living system. Enzymes can act rapidly, as in the case of carbonic anhydrase (enzymes typically end in the -ase suffix), which causes the chemicals to react 107 times faster than without the enzyme present. 38. B Metaphase is a stage of mitosis in the eukaryotic cell cycle in which condensed & highly coiled chromosomes, carrying genetic information, align in the middle of the cell before being separated into each of the two daughter cells. Preceded by events in prometaphase and followed by anaphase, microtubules formed in prophase have already found and attached themselves to kinetochores in metaphase 21 13. D Anaphase, from the ancient Greek ἀνά (up) and φάσις (stage), is the stage of mitosis or meiosis when chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell. Anaphase begins with the regulated triggering of the metaphase-to-anaphase transition. Metaphase ends with the destruction of cyclin, which is required for the function of metaphase cyclin-dependent kinases (M-Cdks). Anaphase is initiated with the cleavage of securin, anursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material protein that inhibits the protease known as separase. Separase then cleaves cohesin, a protei responsible for holding sister chromatids together. 22 14. D Telophase is a stage in both meiosis and mitosis in a eukaryotic cell. During telophase, the effects of prophase and prometaphase events are reversed. Two daughter nuclei form in the cell. The nuclear envelopes of the daughter cells are formed from the fragments of the nuclear envelope of the parent cell. As the nuclear envelope forms around each pair of chromatids, the nucleoli reappear. 23 15. B Epithelium is one of the four basic types of animal tissue, along with connective tissue, muscle tissue and nervous tissue. Epithelial tissues line the cavities and surfaces of structures throughout the body, and form many glands. Functions of epithelial cells include secretion, selective absorption, protection, transcellular transport and detection of sensation. Simple epithelial tissues are generally classified by the shape of their cells. The four major classes of simple epithelium are: (1) simple squamous; (2) simple cuboidal; (3) simple columnar; (4) pseudostratified. 24 16. B Epithelial tissue acts as a protective barrier for the human body. 17. C The functions of connective tissue are, Storage of energy, Protection of organs, Providing structural framework for the body and Connection of body tissues. 18. C Muscle tissue has the ability to relax and contract, bringing out movement and the ability to work. 19. D Nervous tissue is specialized to react to stimuli. 20. A Neurons make up nerve tissue. 21. C The integumentary system is the organ system that protects the body from damage, comprising the skin and its appendages, including hair, scales, feathers, and nails. 22. C The integumentary system comprises the skin and its various appendages, including hair, scales, feathers, and nails. 23. B The appendages of the integumentary system are hair, scales, feathers, and nails. 24. D The integumentary system has a variety of functions; it may serve to waterproof, cushion, and protect the deeper tissues, excrete wastes, and regulate temperature, and is the attachment site for sensory receptors to detect pain, sensation, pressure, and temperature. 25. C The human skin (integumentary) is composed of a minimum of 3 major layers of tissue, the Epidermis, the Dermis and Hypodermis. Practice Test Questions Set 2nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Section I – Reading Comprehension Questions: 45 Time: 45 Minutes Section II – Math Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section III – Part I - English Grammar Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section III – Part II – Vocabulary Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section IV – Science – Part I – Chemistry & Biology Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section IV – Science – Part II – Anatomy & Physiology Questions: 25 Time: 25 Minutes The practice test portion presents questions that are representative of the type of question you should expect to find on the HESI. However, they are not intended to match exactly what is on the HESI. For the best results, take this Practice Test as if it were the real exam. Set aside time when you will not be disturbed, and a location that is quiet and free of distractions. Read the instructions carefully, read each question carefully, and answer to the best of your ability. Use the bubble answer sheets provided. When you have completed the Practice Test, check your answer against the Answer Key and read the explanation provided. NOTE: The Science, Anatomy and Physiology and English sections are optional. Check with your school for exam details. Section I – Reading Comprehension Answer Sheet Section I - Reading Comprehension Questions 1-4 refer to the following passage. Passage 1 - The Respiratory System The respiratory system’s function is to allow oxygen exchange through all parts of the body. The anatomy or structure of the exchange system, and the uses of the exchanged gases, varies depending on the organism. In humans and other mammals, for example, the anatomica features of the respiratory system include airways, lungs, and the respiratory muscles. Molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide are passively exchanged, by diffusion, between the gaseous external environment and the blood. This exchange process occurs in the alveolar region of the lungs. Other animals, such as insects, have respiratory systems with very simple anatomical features and in amphibians even the skin plays a vital role in gas exchange. Plants also have respiratory systems but the direction of gas exchange can be opposite to that of animals. The respiratory system can also be divided into physiological, or functional, zones. These include the conducting zone (the region for gas transport from the outside atmosphere to just above the alveoli), the transitional zone, and the respiratory zone (the alveolar region where ga exchange occurs). 25 1. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this passage? a. Human and mammal respiratory systems are the same b. The lungs are an important part of the respiratory system c. The respiratory system varies in different mammals d. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are passive exchanged by the respiratory system 2. What is the process by which molecules of oxygen and carbon dioxide are passively exchanged? a. Transfusion b. Affusion c. Diffusion d. Respiratory confusion 3. What organ plays an important role in gas exchange in amphibians? a. The skin b. The lungs c. The gills d. The mouth 4. What are the three physiological zones of the respiratory system? a. Conducting, transitional, respiratory zones b. Redacting, transitional, circulatory zones c. Conducting, circulatory, inhibiting zones d. Transitional, inhibiting, conducting zones Questions 5-8 refer to the following passage. ABC Electric Warranty ABC Electric Company warrants that its products are free from defects in material and workmanship. Subject to the conditions and limitations set forth below, ABC Electric will, at its option, either repair or replace any part of its products that prove defective due to improper workmanship or materials. This limited warranty does not cover any damage to the product from improper installation, accident, abuse, misuse, natural disaster, insufficient or excessive electrical supply, abnormal mechanical or environmental conditions, or any unauthorized disassembly, repair, or modification. This limited warranty also does not apply to any product on which the original identification information has been altered, or removed, has not been handled or packaged correctly, or has been sold as second-hand. This limited warranty covers only repair, replacement, refund or credit for defective ABC Electric products, as provided above. 5. I tried to repair my ABC Electric blender, but could not, so can I get it repaired under this warranty? a. Yes, the warranty still covers the blender b. No, the warranty does not cover the blender c. Uncertain. ABC Electric may or may not cover repairs under this warranty 6. My ABC Electric fan is not working. Will ABC Electric provide a new one or repair this one? a. ABC Electric will repair my fan