Security and Customer Service in Healthcare Facilities, Exams of Nursing

Download Security and Customer Service in Healthcare Facilities and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 IAHSS Basic Training for Healthcare Security Officers Exam Questions and Answers 2024 Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations? A. Proprietary or for-profit B. Not for-profit C. Government-supported D. Individual healthcare correct answers D. INDIVIDUAL HEALTHCARE is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations. Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? A. Drugs are used and stored in the facility B. Mostly female staff C. High percentage of technical and professional staff D. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open correct answers C. HIGH PERCENTAGE OF TECHNICAL AND PROFESSIONAL STAFF is NOT a risk issue for healthcare. Which of the following is usually at the top of the organizational chart? A. Board of directors B. Department leaders C. Assistant Administrators D. Vice Presidents correct answers A. BOARD OF DIRECTORS is usually at the top of the organizational chart. Which of the following statements best describes employees? A. Medical staff contracted by the facility B. All staff directly employed by the facility C. Volunteers who donate their time D. Contracted persons correct answers B. ALL STAFF EMPLOYED DIRECTLY BY THE FACILITY best describes employees. Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of a program? A. Strong and effective B. A program that works in a small part of the facility C. Generally effective D. Strong and simple correct answers A. Security uses senior management's endorsement to build a STRONG AND EFFECTIVE program. How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? A. Discouraged B. Encouraged C. Encouraged, but monitored D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism correct answers D. Friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from 2 other departments should be ENCOURAGED, BUT SECURITY STAFF EDUCATED ABOUT ETHICS AND AVOIDING FAVORITISM. Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? A. Crime analysis B. Risk assessment C. Benchmarking D. Evaluation surveys correct answers C. BENCHMARKING allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization. What must the primary overriding concern of any security department be? A. Its image B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. C. The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services D. Cost-effectiveness correct answers B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility must the primary overriding concern of any security department . Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? A. Good observation skills B. Good communications skills C. Tolerance D. All of the Above correct answers D. ALL OF THE ABOVE: A security professional should have and use GOOD OBSERVATION SKILLS, GOOD COMMUNICATIONS SKILLS AND TOLERANCE at all times. Why are vendors potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility? A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendors' backgrounds B. Vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband. C. Competing vendors may clash at a facility D. Vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft. correct answers A. Vendors are potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility because VENDORS OFTEN HAVE ACCESS TO SENSITIVE AREAS YET STAFF OF THE HEALTHCARE ORGANIZATION MAY KNOW VERY LITTLE ABOUT VENDORS' BACKGROUNDS. In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient's family? A. Patient's parents or legal guardians B. Nursing staff 5 A. Team building encourages employee involvement in planning, problem solving, and decision making within the organization. B. Team building promotes a better understanding of decisions. C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes D. Active participation on teams can engage employees correct answers C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes is NOT a true statement. Which of the following is NOT an ongoing, or functional, work team? A. A project team B. A natural team C. A management team D. A process improvement team correct answers A. A PROJECT TEAM is NOT an ongoing, or functional, work team? To be successful, teams need which of the following? A. Access to resources B. Clearly defined boundaries C. Access to people who know D. Clearly defined purposes and goals E. All of the above correct answers E. ALL OF THE ABOVE, To be successful teams need access to resources, clearly defined boundaries, access to people who know and clearly defined purposes and goals. Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development? A. Forming B. Ending C. Norming D. Storming correct answers B.ENDING is Not a state of team development. Failure of teams can usually be attributed to what? A. No clearly defined purpose or goals B. Lack of employee buy-in to team building C. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement D. Any of the above correct answers A. Failure of teams can usually be attributed to NO CLEARLY DEFINED PURPOSE OR GOALS. Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? A. Getting to know the community B. Establishing positive relationships and partnerships C. Improving communications 6 D. Using the security vehicle to go offsite correct answers D. USING THE SECURITY VEHICLE TO GO OFFSITE is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol. Which is the most common patrol approach? A. Inconspicuous B. Routine C. Conspicuous D. Foot correct answers C. CONSPICUOUS is most common patrol approach. Which of the following are the three key elements of a good patrol? A. Hearing, documentation, and memory B. Observation, perception and memory C. Perception, memory, and documentation D. Time, memory and perception correct answers B. OBSERVATION, PERCEPTION, AND MEMORY are the three key elements of a good patrol. What type of patrol covers all areas equally with high visibility? A. Selective B. Directed C. Vehicle D. Routine correct answers D. ROUTINE is the type of patrol that covers all areas equally with high visibility. Which of the following is an example of something you should do while patrolling? A. Let employees know you are in the area B. Get careless C. Be a hero unnecessarily D. Get separated from your equipment correct answers A. LETTING EMPLOYEES KNOW THAT YOU ARE IN THE AREA is an example of something you should do while patrolling. Security Officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people? A. Patients B. Visitors C. Employees D. Physicians E. All of the above correct answers E. ALL OF THE ABOVE: Security Officers must interact in a professional manner with PATIENTS, VISITORS, EMPLOYEES, and PHYSICIANS. Which trait or skill is NOT desirable for a security officer to possess? A. Strong communications skills B. Compassion C. Ability to speak loudly D. Ability to express care and understanding. correct answers C. The ABILITY TO SPEAK LOUDLY is NOT a desirable trait or skill for a security officer to possess. In which way is a security officer likely to interact with a patient? 7 A. Picking up or returning a patients valuables B. Investigating lost or stolen property C. Providing directions D. Helping resolve domestic disputes occurring at the facility E. All of the above correct answers E. ALL OF THE ABOVE: A security officer is likely to interact with a patient PICKING UP OR RETURNING A PATIENT'S VALUABLES, INVESTIGATING LOST OR STOLEN PROPERTY, PROVIDING DIRECTIONS, and HELPING RESOLVE DOMESTIC DISPUTES OCCURRING AT THE FACILITY. Which is the most common location where missing patients are found? A. Hiding under their bed B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance C. In the gift shop D. Looking for the morgue correct answers B. IN THE CAFETERIA OR NEAR AN ENTRANCE is the most common location where missing patients are found. Which of the following should a security officer NOT do when interacting with a visitor? A. Be aware of the visitor's emotional state B. Use sarcasm C. Treat the visitor with respect D. Show empathy correct answers B. A security officer should NOT USE SARCASM when interacting with a visitor. Which accreditation body mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment? A. The Joint Commission (TJC) B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) D. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE) correct answers A. The accreditation body that mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment is THE JOINT COMMISSION. Generally a security officer does what during a robbery? A. Confronts the criminal B. Observes and reports C. Enters the area with the police D. Leaves the area unattended correct answers B. Generally, a security officer OBSERVES AND REPORTS during a robbery. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest? A. Relative short life B. Expense C. Discomfort and restrictiveness D. Avoiding or minimizing injury correct answers D. AVOIDING OR MINIMIZING INJURY is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest. Which of the following items is NOT security equipment? 10 All investigations seek answers to how many fundamental questions? A. Eight B. Three C. Six D. Four correct answers C. All investigations seek answers to SIX fundamental questions: WHO, WHAT, WHEN, WHERE, HOW, and WHY Which of the following is NOT one of the security officer's cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview? A. Impartiality B. Impatience C. Sensitivity D. Confidentiality correct answers B. IMPATIENCE is NOT one of the security officer's cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview. Which of the following types of questions should NOT be used in an interview? A. Leading B. Open ended C. Includes an opinion D. Specific correct answers A. LEADING questions should NOT be used in an interview. Which governing body's legal statute governs whether an interview may be tape-recorded? A. Federal B. City C. Town D. State correct answers D. The STATE legal statute governs whether an interview may be taped-recorded. Which of the following is NOT a reason that management would close an investigation> A. Event has been resolved B. All leads have been exhausted C. The property was recovered D. The situation was corrected correct answers B. ALL LEADS HAVE BEEN EXHAUSTED is NOT a reason that management would close an investigation. A good report writer has a balanced blend of which of these? A. Awareness, skills, know-how B. Opinions, skills, knowledge C. Outlook, skills, knowledge D. Attitude, skills, knowledge correct answers D. A good report writer has a balanced blend of ATTITUDE, SKILLS, and KNOWLEDGE. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic steps in report writing? A. Gather information B. Record information 11 C. Write the report D. Examine the report correct answers D. EXAMINE THE REPORT is NOT one of the basic steps in report writing. Gather the information Record the information Organize the information Write the report EVALUATE the report Which of the following is NOT one of the most common forms used by security officers in reporting incidents? A. Security incident report B. Supplemental security report C. Investigation security report D. Auto accident report correct answers C. INVESTIGATION SECURITY REPORT is NOT one of the most common forms used by security officers in reporting incidents. When should reports be written? A. By the end of the week B. By the end of the shift C. By the end of the month D. By the end of the next day correct answers B. Reports should be written BY THE END OF THE SHIFT. A security officer should carry a note book for all of the following reasons except which one? A. To write down all of the facts for an incident report B. To keep a list of emergency telephone numbers C. To note safety hazards D. To keep track of food orders. correct answers D. TO KEEP TRACK OF FOOD ORDERS Which of the following does NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities? A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) D. The Joint Commission (TJC) correct answers B. IAHSS does NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities. Which agency provides guidelines on preventing workplace violence? A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) D. The Joint Commission (TJC correct answers C. OSHA provides guidelines on preventing workplace violence. The general rule for keeping records is how long? A. At least five to seven years 12 B. Permanently C. At least ten years D. At least three to five years correct answers A. The general rule for keeping records is AT LEAST FIVE TO SEVEN YEARS. Which external groups should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report? A. Insurance companies B. Corporate attorney C. Law enforcement D. Newspapers correct answers D. NEWSPAPERS should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report. Which of these departments in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports? A. Administration B. Human resources C. Public relations D. Nutrition services correct answers D. The NUTRITION SERVICES department in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports. Which of the following is an example of a tort committed by a security officer that may result in civil litigation and liability? A. Excessive use of force B. False arrest C. Malicious prosecution D. All of the above correct answers D. ALL OF THE ABOVE A warrant is issued by whom? A. A law enforcement officer B. A judicial officer C. A prosecutor D. A defense attorney correct answers B. A warrant is issued by A JUDICIAL OFFICER. What is a misdemeanor? A. A crime punishable by imprisonment for more than a year. B. A violation of the municipal code C. Any Offense other than a felony D. A violation of the state's penal code correct answers B. A misdemeanor is ANY OFFENSE OTHER THAN A FELONY. In criminal law how must guilt be determined? A. Beyond a reasonable doubt B. By the preponderance of evidence C. By that degree of proof which is more probable than not D. By the prosecutor correct answers A. In criminal law guilt must be determined BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT. 15 A. FBI B. OSHA C. HIPPA D. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS) correct answers C. Access to patient information is limited to those who "need to know" by HEALTH INSURANCE PORTABILITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY ACT (HIPPA) True or false: Escorts for valuables and cash should be at the same time each day and should follow the same route to the facility. A. True B. False correct answers B. FALSE Escorts for valuables and cash SHOULD NOT be at the same time each day and SHOULD NOT follow the same route to the facility. Which of the following is NOT a function security provides for the business office/financial services area? A. Patrol B. Customer relations C. Refunding payment D. Investigations correct answers C. REFUNDING PAYMENT is NOT a function security provides for the business office/financial services area. Which of the following defines over-the-counter medications? A. Anything that one can inject, inhale or absorb into the body that is designed to improve a condition. B. Remedies or cures C. Do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter D. Controlled substances correct answers C. Medications that DO NOT REQUIRE A PRESCRIPTION AND ARE GENERALLY DISPLAYED ON THE CONSUMER SIDE OF THE PHARMACY COUNTER defines over-the-counter medications. Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? A. Heroin, marijuana, methaqualone B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone C. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin D. Darvon, Valium, Xanax correct answers B. MORPHINE, COCAINE and METHADONE are examples of schedule II substances. Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug diversion method? A. Fraudulent prescription B. Falsify a patient's chart C. Keep unused drugs after surgery D. Obtain a prescription from your physician correct answers D. OBTAIN A PRESCRIPTION FROM YOUR PHYSICIAN is NOT an example of a drug diversion. 16 In which year was the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) enacted? A. 1970 B. 1972 C. 1968 D. 1984 correct answers A. 1970 is the year the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) was enacted. Which of the following staff may enter the compounding area in a pharmacy? A. Housekeeping aide B. Licensed pharmacist C. Pharmacy secretary D. Pharmacy technician correct answers B. The compounding area (where drugs are stored and prepared) may only be entered by, or in the presence of, A LICENSED PHARMACIST. Which of these conditions make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients? A. Age and ethnicity B. Reputation of the healthcare organization C. Short wait periods D. Drug and alcohol impairment correct answers D. DRUG AND ALCOHOL IMPAIRMENT make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients. The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often? A. Every two years B. Every six months C. Every year D. Monthly correct answers C. The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted EVERY YEAR. Which of the following is NOT a type of mental health unit? A. Closed caption B. Open C. Closed D. Outpatient correct answers A. CLOSED CAPTION is NOT a type of mental health unit. Which of the following is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit? A. During meal delivery and consumption B. Voluntary hospitalization C. During transportation of the patient D. Involuntary hospitalization correct answers B. VOLUNTARY HOSPITALIZATION is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit. Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient? A. Short wait times B. Calm atmosphere C. Food selection 17 D. Attire correct answers C. FOOD SELECTION can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient. Which of the following is true of behavioral patients in emergency departments? A. Often have longer lengths of stays due to placement issues. B. Must be managed with both situational control and empathy. C. Are often placed in retrofitted areas. D. All of the above. correct answers D. ALL OF THE ABOVE Which of the following does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or behavioral patient care unit? A. 24/7 coverage B. Supplementation by police C. As-needed coverage D. Security has no role in these areas correct answers D. SECURITY HAS NO ROLE IN THESE AREAS does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or behavioral patient care unit. Why are departments and units that care for infant and pediatric patients of special concern to security officers? A. They are where the most crime happens in a hospital B. Children are kidnapped from hospitals almost every day C. In addition to the heartbreak the family experiences, an abduction brings a swarm of reporters, bad publicity, and law enforcement agencies to the facility D. Infant and pediatric units are the busiest units in every hospital correct answers C. Departments and units that care for infant and pediatric patients are of special concern to security officers because IN ADDITION TO THE HEARTBREAK THE FAMILY EXPERIENCES, AN ABDUCTION BRINGS A SWARM OF REPORTERS, BAD PUBLICITY, AND LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES TO THE FACILITY. Why is it important for security and clinical staff to understand the typical profile of an abductor? A. So they can help law enforcement put out a description B. To design the facility's security to make it as hard as possible for the typical abductor to kidnap a child 20 B. Only patient information of interest to the security officer C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer's duties D. None of the above. correct answers C. ONLY PATIENT INFORMATION THAT IS CRITICAL TO THE PERFORMANCE OF THE SECURITY OFFICER'S DUTIES can be given to the security officer by a clinician. Which of the following is a HIPPA violation? A. You observe a victim being brought into the emergency department suffering from a gunshot wound. You hear medical staff comments about the victim's condition. You tell the paramedic from the ambulance about the victim's condition. B. You are on duty signing in visitors at the hospital. You have a patient census for reference. You leave to direct a visitor and leave the patient census in plain view for passers-by. C. You have finished your shift and throw the old patient census in the trash. D. All of the above correct answers D. ALL OF THE ABOVE A security threat to the facility usually involves which sources? A. Internal and external B. Organized Groups C. Only internal D. Only external correct answers A. A security threat to the facility usually involves INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL sources. Which of the following is a security issue for employees of support or ancillary services? A. Well staffed during the day B. Isolated at night C. Mix of certified and non-certified employees D. Located in the center of the facility correct answers B. ISOLATED AT NIGHT is a security issue for employees of support and ancillary services. Theft of film for its silver content is a risk for which department? A. Plan services B. Housekeeping C. Radiology D. Laboratory correct answers C. Theft of film for its silver content is a risk for the RADIOLOGY department. 21 Employees of which department are found all over the facility and often unlock all doors to the department they are working in at the time? A. Radiology B. Materials management C. Bio-medical engineering D. Housekeeping correct answers D. HOUSEKEEPING employees are found all over the facility and often unlock all doors to the department they are working in at the time. The security department is considered which type of department? A. Support B. Clinical C. Direct patient care B. Service correct answers A. The security department is considered a SUPPORT department. Which of the following defines vulnerability? A. The act of being physically wounded B. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage C. Possibility of loss D. The act of being attacked correct answers B. Vulnerability is defined as SOMETHING WITH THE POTENTIAL TO BE PHYSICALLY WOUNDED OR OPEN TO ATTACK OR DAMAGE. Which of the following is NOT an important risk measurement tool? A. Security inspections and surveys B. Security patrol and incident reports C. Law enforcement crime statistic reports and analyses D. Irregular patrols by untrained personnel correct answers D. IRREGULAR PATROLS BY UNTRAINED PERSONNEL is NOT an important risk measurement tool. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance? A. Call for medical, security backup, or local police assistance, if required B. Observe or identify the person(s) causing the disturbance, and provide area and crowd control C. Step up to the people without backup 22 D. Notify your supervisor other appropriate facility personnel per policy correct answers C. STEP UP TO THE PEOPLE WITHOUT BACKUP is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance. Which agency issued guidelines for workplace violence? A. The Joint Commission B. OSHA C. NFPA D. American society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE) correct answers B. OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ADMINISTRATION (OSHA) issued guidelines for workplace violence. Which of the following defines property risks? A. Lawsuits brought about by action or inaction, including negligent security or safety hazards B. Loss of staff due to perception of an unsafe environment C. The healthcare organization's inability to perform on or many of its normal functions, leading to the inability to generate income D. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment and supplies correct answers D. Property Risks is defined as DAMAGE, THEFT, OR VANDALISM TO BUILDINGS, EQUIPMENT AND SUPPLIES. Which of the following describes the outer zone in the theory of protection? A. Generally, the boundary of the property B. Footprint of the actual structure C. Inside the structure D. Footprint of the inside of the structure correct answers A. GENERALLY, THE BOUNDARY OF THE PROPERTY describes the outer zone in the theory of protection. Which of the following is NOT a common physical barrier? A. Walls B. Fencing C. Chains D. Lighting correct answers D. LIGHTING is NOT a common physical barrier. Which of the following describes the basic functions of lock sets? A. Manual, office, classroom, storage and passage B. Classroom, electronic, storage, privacy and passage C. Office, classroom, storage, privacy and passage D. Keyless, office, storage, privacy and passage correct answers C. OFFICE, CLASSROOM, STORAGE, PRIVACY AND PASSAGE describes the basic functions of lock sets. What three components make up the Access Control Triad? 25 C. A potentially dangerous situation by creation of a "stealth" patient with conflicting information D. All of the above correct answers D. ALL OF THE ABOVE When incidents expand, authority for performance of these functions may need to be delegated: Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration. What are the personnel who perform these four management functions called? A. Deputy Staff B. Director Staff C. Command Staff D. General Staff correct answers D. GENERAL STAFF = Operations, Planning, Logistics and Finance/Administration Depending on the size and type of the incident or event, the Incident Commander may need to designate personnel to provide information, safety and liaison services for the entire organization. What are these people called? A. Deputy Staff B. Director Staff C. Command Staff D. General Staff correct answers C. COMMAND STAFF = Information, Safety and Liaison Which position is the only one always staffed in Incident Command System applications? A. Operations Section Chief B. Incident Commander C. Information Officer D. Branch Director correct answers B. The INCIDENT COMMANDER is the only position always staffed in Incident Command System applications. In an Incident Command System, which General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization and directs all tactical resources? A. Finance/Administration B. Logistics C. Operations D. Planning correct answers C. On the General Staff in the Incident Command System, OPERATIONS conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization and directs all tactical resources. In an Incident Command System, which Command Staff position is the conduit for all information to internal and external stakeholders, including the media, or other organizations seeking information directly from the incident or event? A. Information Officer B. Liaison Officer C. Resource Officer D. Safety Officer correct answers A. On the Command Staff in the Incident Command System the INFORMATION OFFICER is the conduit for all information to internal and external 26 stakeholders, including the media, or other organizations seeking information directly from the incident or event. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic purposes of the Incident Command System? A. Assuring the safety of responders and others B. Assuring achievement of tactical objectives C. Assuring efficient use of resources D. Assuring constant communications between agencies correct answers D. ASSURING CONSTANT COMMUNICATIONS BETWEEN AGENCIES is NOT one of the three basic purposes of the Incident Command System. Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the Incident Command System? A. Common Terminology B. Rigid, fixed use of personnel C. Span of control abilities D. Unity of Command correct answers B. RIGID, FIXED USE OF PERSONNEL is NOT a basic feature of the Incident Command System. The Job Action Sheet, of Job description, is the key to the Incident Command System's scalability and ease of use. Which of the following does the Job Action Sheet NOT tell responding personnel? A. What they are going to do B. When they are going to do it C. Who they will report to after they have done it D. How long they are expected to maintain their function correct answers D. The Job Action Sheet does NOT tell responding personnel HOW LONG THEY ARE EXPECTED TO MAINTAIN THEIR FUNCTION. There are several external organizations that healthcare institutions collaborate with to maintain a safe environment. What is the common mission among them? A. Provide training to healthcare employees B. Continuously promote, improve and assure health and safety C. Conduct a proactive risk assessment twice a year D. Regulate MRI safety correct answers B. The common mission among TJC, OSHA and CDC is to CONTINUOUSLY PROMOTE, IMPROVE AND ASSURE HEALTH AND SAFETY. Identify the objective of the Safety Management program. A. To improve organizational performance B. To minimize accidents and injuries C. To reduce or control costs for Workers' Compensation D. To assist in compliance documentation E. All of the above correct answers E. ALL OF THE ABOVE 27 Standard precautions are a set of precautions called for by the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to minimize the risk of infection. Which of the following is NOT covered under standard precautions? A. Blood and body fluids B. Secretions C. Non-intact skin D. Mucous membranes E. Sweat correct answers E. SWEAT is NOT covered under standard precautions. What is the most important concept to remember in MRI safety? A. The magnet is always on. It is never off. It is always a magnet B. The MRI uses radio frequencies C. Security should never enter Zone I D. A controlled quench can be performed by the technologist. correct answers A. THE MAGNET IS ALWAYS ON. IT IS NEVER OFF. IT IS ALWAYS A MAGNET is the most important concept to remember in MRI safety. What does the acronym ROARR stand for? A. Remember, Observe, Act, Record, and React B. Report, observe, anticipate, react or recommend C. Retreat, order, alert, remember or record D. None of the above correct answers A. The acronym ROARR stands for: REPORT, OBSERVE, ANTICIPATE, REACT OR RECOMMEND. Report what you Observed - Anticipate impact on the facility React to the situation, or Recommend a solution The fourth stage of fire - after the incipient stage, smoldering stage and flame stage - is what? A. Heat stage B. Extinguished stage C. Burning stage D. Fuel stage correct answers A. HEAT is the fourth stage of fire - after the incipient stage, smoldering stage and flame stage. Fire creates heat through many methods. Which of these is NOT a method by which fire spreads? A. Radiation B. Osmosis C. Conduction D. Convection correct answers B. OSMOSIS is NOT a method by which fire spreads. What does the acronym NFPA stand for? A. National Federation of Protective Agencies B. Northern Fire and Police Association 30 C. Severe weather D. Wild land fire correct answers A. LOSS OF ELECTRICITY is an example of an internal event that could affect your medical center. Which of these is NOT a community planning partner regarding the healthcare organization's emergency program? A. Health Department B. Sheriff's office C. Local fire department D. Local TV station correct answers D. LOCAL TV STATION is NOT a community planning partner regarding the healthcare organization's emergency program. Which of these does The Joint Commission deem a critical area of the emergency management plan? A. Communications B. Food C. Mortuary services D. Decontamination correct answers A. The Joint Commission deems COMMUNICATIONS to be a critical area of the emergency management plan. Which of these are required in exercising the organization's emergency management plan? A. Monthly testing B. Two exercises yearly C. An exercise with actual patients D. An exercise using a medical evacuation helicopter correct answers B. TWO EXERCISES YEARLY are required in exercising the organization's emergency management plan. Which of these is an operational function of security officers during emergency situations? A. Patient treatment B. Crowd Control C. Spokesperson to the media D. Initiation of facility evacuation correct answers B. CROWD CONTROL is an operational function of Security Officers during emergency situations. What are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning? A. Planning and preparation B. Planning and response C. Preparation and response D. Preparation and documentation. correct answers B. PLANNING AND RESPONSE are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning. Which of the following is NOT a valid assumption when developing a plan for response to a civil disturbance? A. Availability of adequate staffing may be affected 31 B. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing activity C. Outside services such as transportation and deliveries will not be affected D. Needed response by police and fire may be delayed correct answers C. OUTSIDE SERVICES SUCH AS TRANSPORTATION AND DELIVERIES WILL NOT BE AFFECTED is NOT a valid assumption when developing a plan for response to a civil disturbance. Who should handle any demonstrator action on public sidewalks and streets? A. Administration B. Security C. Facility personnel D. Local law enforcement correct answers D. LOCAL LAW ENFORCEMENT should handle any demonstrator action on public sidewalks and streets. During a disturbance, which of these is a critical action to be taken by the facility? A. Control access and validate all entering the building as necessary B. Lock all doors so no one can leave or enter C. Allow free access to building as if business as usual D. Validate those entering the building only correct answers A. During a disturbance, CONTROL ACCESS AND VALIDATE ALL ENTERING THE BUILDING AS NECESSARY is a critical action to be taken by the facility. Which answer best describes security's role in a workplace violence program? A. Security is the sole department responsible for the workplace violence program B. Security has virtually no role in the workplace violence program C. Workplace violence programs are a partnership between security and many other healthcare disciplines D. State and federal governments dictate the role of security in workplace violence programs correct answers C. WORKPLACE VIOLENCE PROGRAMS ARE A PARTNERSHIP BETWEEN SECURITY AND MANY OTHER HEALTHCARE DISCIPLINES best describes security's role in a workplace violence program. The development of a workplace violence program should include which of these measurable indicators? A. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers 32 B. Independent reviewers, opinions of elected officials, prior incidents C. Employee surveys, environmental considerations, prior incidents D. Employee surveys, independent reviewers, engineering input correct answers A. The development of a workplace violence program should include these measurable indicators: EMPLOYEE SURVEYS, PRIOR INCIDENTS, AND INDEPENDENT REVIEWERS A protection order is designed to do what? A. Provide a legal mechanism to enforce no contact between victim and assailant B. Begin the process of reconciliation between victim and assailant C. Protect the physical well-being of the victim D. All of the above E. Both A and C correct answers A. A protection order is designed to PROVIDE A LEGAL MECHANISM TO ENFORCE NO CONTACT BETWEEN VICTIM AND ASSAILANT. Hostage situations have which of the following characteristics? A. Events with no predictable chronology B. People being held against their will C. Release contingent on demands D. All of the above correct answers D. ALL OF THE ABOVE Which of the following best describe de-escalation techniques? A. Do not provide limits B. Do not spend time listening to the individual C. Use listening skills and respond in a way that shows empathy D. Both A and B correct answers C. USE LISTENING SKILLS AND RESPOND IN A WAY THAT SHOWS EMPATHY best describe de-escalation techniques. Which of the following is NOT a misdemeanor? A. Simple assault B. Trespass C. Burglary D. Vandalism correct answers C. BURGLARY is NOT a misdemeanor. What is the Constitutional foundation or grounds for most arrests and searches and seizures? A. Probable Cause 35 Which of the following is NOT an example of a way law enforcement can help healthcare security personnel? A. Information exchange B. Crime prevention C. Response to requests for assistance D. Taking over the situation when not asked correct answers D. TAKING OVER THE SITUATION WHEN NOT ASKED is NOT an example of a way law enforcement can help healthcare security personnel. Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff? A. OSHA B. EPA C. TJC D. NFPA correct answers C. THE JOINT COMMISSION requires the hospital to train forensic staff. Good working relationships are based on the following? A. Mutual respect and an understanding of each agency's basic function. B. Willingness to allow others to do the job C. The need for assistance due to low staffing D. Policies and procedures correct answers A. Good working relationships are based on MUTUAL RESPECT AND AN UNDERSTANDING OF EACH AGENCY'S BASIC FUNCTION. 36 IAHSS Basic Training for Healthcare Security Officers Exam Questions and Answers 2024