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Download Indian-----economics and more Cheat Sheet Indian History in PDF only on Docsity! DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in Question Bank - Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) Unit 1: Introduction to International Trade 1) How is comparative advantage defined? a) You produce the things you are especially good at, and buy from others, the goods you are less efficient in producing. b) To produce and consume all goods without trade. c) How the world actually works. d) Globalization, growing economic linkages among countries. 2) What are the four factor endowments? a) National resources, labor, physical capital and human capital b) Types of technology c) Material inputs used up in the process of production d) International differences in climate 3) The Heckscher- Ohlin model is principally focused on what aspect of economics? a) International trade b) Supply and demand c) Normative economics d) Production possibility frontier 4) A no-trade world will have which of the following characteristics: a) Countries will have same relative endowments of production factors b) Consumers across countries will have identical and homogenous tastes c) There will be no distortions or externalities d) all of the above DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 5) Transportation cost of trade affects: a) pattern of trade b) boundaries between tradable and non-tradable goods c) Global supply chains d) all of the above 6) Which of the following trade policies limits specified quantity of goods to be imported at one tariff rate? a) Quota b) Import tariff c) Specific tariff d) All of the above 7) In the 2-factor, 2 good Heckscher-Ohlin model, the two countries differ in a) Military capabilities b) labor productivities c) relative availabilities of factors of production d) tastes 8) Nations conduct international trade because: a) Some nations prefer to produce one thing while others produce other things. b) Resources are not equally distributed among all trading nations. c) Trade enhances opportunities to accumulate profits. d) Interest rates are not identical in all trading nations 9) International Trade is most likely to generate short-term unemployment in: a) Industries in which there are neither imports nor exports b) Import-competing industries c) Industries that sell to domestic and foreign buyers. d) Industries that sell to only foreign buyers DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 20) Country A has an absolute advantage in a) Product X b) Product Y c) Neither X nor Y d) Both X and Y 21) Country B has an absolute advantage in a) Product X b) Product Y c) Neither X nor Y d) Both X and Y 22) If the countries were to trade along the lines of absolute advantage: a) A would export X to B b) B would import Y from A c) Neither country would want to trade 23) If countries were to trade along the lines of comparative advantage: a) A would export X to B b) A would export Y to B c) Neither country would want to trade 24) Globalization refers to: a) Lower incomes worldwide b) Less foreign trade and investment c) Global warming and their effects d) A more integrated and interdependent world 25) Comparative Cost Trade Theory is given by a) Adam Smith b) David Ricardo c) Gottfried Haberle d) Heckscher Ohlin DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 26) ……………...is the payment method most often used in International Trade which offers the exporter best assurance of being paid for the products sold internationally. a) Bill of Lading b) Letter of Credit c) Open Account d) Drafts 27) Key controllable factors in global marketing are: a) Government policy and legislation b) social and technical changes c) marketing activities and plans d) all of the above. 28) The first phase of globalization started around 1870 and ended with ….. a) World War I b) World War II c) The Establishment of GATT d) In 1913 when GDP was High 29) According to this theory, the holdings of a country’s treasure primarily in the form of gold constituted its wealth. a. Gold Theory b. Ricardo Theory c. Mercantilism d. Hecksher Theory 30) The Theory of Absolute Cost Advantage is given by a. David Ricardo b. Adam Smith c. F W Taylor d. Ohlin and Heckscher 31) The Theory of Relative Factor Endowments is given by a) David Ricardo b) Adam Smith c) c. F W Taussig d) Ohlin and Hecksher DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 32) The theory of comparative cost advantage is given by a. David Ricardo b. Adam Smith c. F W Taussig d. Ohlin and Heckscher Unit 1 Answer Key: 1 – a 2 - a 3 - a 4 - d 5 - d 6 – a 7 – c 8 – b 9 - b 10 -a 11 – a 12 - d 13 - d 14 - d 15 - b 16 – c 17 – a 18 – d 19 - a 20 - b 21 – a 22 -b 23 - b 24 - d 25 - b 26-b 27-c 28-a 29-c 30-b 31-d 32-a Unit 2: Multinational Enterprises 1) A national company becomes an MNC when it a) Makes a foreign direct investment b) Takes out a foreign loan c) Imports a foreign product d) Exports a foreign product e) Hires foreign workers 2) A multinational is a firm that controls and manages production facilities in a) Both developed and developing countries b) At least two countries c) One country but relies on multiple markets for the consumption of goods it produces d) At least two developed countries and one developing country e) One country, but relies on purchasing intermediate foods from companies in other countries 3) A foreign direct investment occurs when a company in country A invests in a company located in country B and thereby gives the investing company control over the management of the company receiving its investment. A company does not have to be the sole investor in the foreign company a) True b) False DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 13) Suppose that Mexico has previously had restrictions on inflows of foreign direct investment from all sources, including the United States. Then suppose that they remove those restrictions on flows from the United States in a particular industry, say hammocks. As a result, several hammock producers in the U.S. move production to Mexico via FDI. Indicate for each of the groups below whether you expect them to gain or to lose from this flow of investment. a) Workers previously employed in hammock production in the U.S. Gain / Lose b) Workers previously employed in hammock production in Mexico. Gain / Lose c) Owners of firms that move production to Mexico. Gain / Lose d) Owners of U.S. hammock firms that do not move production to Mexico. Gain / Lose e) Owners of firms in Mexico that previously produced hammocks. Gain / Lose f) Consumers of hammocks (assume that there already was free trade in hammocks). Gain / Lose 14) Which of the following was created in an effort to promote free trade? a) World Trade Organization b) the Sarbanes-Oxley Act c) multilateral development banks d) the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development 15) . Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called: a) Liberalisation b) Investment c) Favorable trade d) Free trade 16) Rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as: a) Privatisation b) Globalisation c) Liberalisation d) Socialisation 17) In which year did the government decide to remove barriers on foreign trade and investment in India? a) 1993 b) 1992 c) 1991 d) 1990 DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 18) Theory of Mercantilism propagates a) Encourage exports and imports b) Encourage exports and discourage imports c) Discourage exports and imports d) Discourage exports and encourage imports 19) Which is the right sequence of stages of Internationalization a) Domestic, Transnational, Global, International, Multinational b) Domestic, International, Multinational, Global, Transnational c) Domestic, Multinational, International, Transnational, Global d) Domestic, International, Transnational, Multinational, Global 20) Subsidiaries consider the regional environment for policy / Strategy formulation is known as a) Polycentric Approach b) Regionocentric Approach c) Ethnocentric Approach d) Geocentric Approach 21) ……………is the application of knowledge which redefines the boundaries of global business a) Cultural Values b) Society c) Technology d) Economy 22) . Which is not an Indian Multinational Company? a) Unilever b) Asian Paints c) Piramal d) Wipro 23) 18. Select example of Indian Multinational Company a) Hindustan Unilever b) Videocon c) Cargill d) Tesco DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 24) …………………corporation produces in the home country or in a single country and focuses on marketing these products globally or vice a versa. a) Global b) International c) Transnational d) None of the above 25) The —————-company produces, markets, invests and operates across the world a) Global b) International c) Transnational d) Multinational 26) Business across several countries with some decentralization of management decision making to subsidiaries is a) Global business. b) Multinational business. c) Transnational business. d) Multi-regional business. 27) Immobility of labor among nations is a) Absolute. b) Relatively of a higher degree than among regions in the same country. c) Relatively easier than movement within the country. d) Of the same degree as within the country. 28) The following factor does not differentiate international business from domestic business a) different currencies b) product quality c) product mobility d) trade policies 29) Free international trade maximizes world output through a) Countries specializing in production of goods they are best suited for. b) Reduction in taxes. c) Increased factor income. d) Encouraging competition. DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 9) In the foreign exchange market, the ________ of one country is traded for the ________ of another country. a) currency; currency b) currency; financial instruments c) currency; goods d) goods; goods 10) By definition, currency appreciation occurs when a) the value of all currencies falls relative to gold. b) the value of all currencies rises relative to gold. c) the value of one currency rises relative to another currency. d) the value of one currency falls relative to another currency 11) A forward currency transaction: a) Is always at a premium over the spot rate b) Means that delivery and payment must be made within one business day (USA/Canada) or two business days after the transaction date c) Calls for exchange in the future of currencies at an agreed rate of exchange d) Sets the future date when delivery of a currency must be made at an unknown spot exchange rate 12) Hedging is used by companies to: a) Decrease the variability of tax paid b) Decrease the spread between spot and forward market quotes c) Increase the variability of expected cash flows d) Decrease the variability of expected cash flows 13) Exchange rates a) are always fixed b) fluctuate to equate the quantity of foreign exchange demanded with the quantity supplied c) fluctuate to equate imports and exports d) fluctuate to equate rates of interest in various countries 14) If the U.S. dollar appreciates relative to the British pound, a) it will take fewer dollars to purchase a pound b) it will take more dollars to purchase a pound c) it is called a weakening of the dollar d) both a & c DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 15) A floating exchange rate a) is determined by the national governments involved b) remains extremely stable over long periods of time c) is determined by the actions of central banks d) is allowed to vary according to market forces 16) The Bretton Woods accord a) of 1879 created the gold standard as the basis of international finance b) of 1914 formulated a new international monetary system after the collapse of the gold standard c) of 1944 formulated a new international monetary system after the collapse of the gold standard d) None of the above 17) A simultaneous purchase and sale of foreign exchange for two different dates is called a) currency devalue b) currency swap c) currency valuation d) currency exchange 18) In 1944 international accord is recognized as a) Breton Wood Agreement b) Exchange Agreement c) International Trade d) Fisher Effect 19) In a quote exchange rate, the currency that is to be purchase with another currency is called the a) liquid currency b) foreign currency c) local currency d) base currency 20) An economist will define the exchange rate between two currencies as the: a) Amount of one currency that must be paid in order to obtain one unit of another currency b) Difference between total exports and total imports within a country c) Price at which the sales and purchases of foreign goods takes place d) Ratio of import prices to export prices for a particular country DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 21) A forward contract to deliver British pounds for US dollars could be described either as ________ or ________) a) buying dollars forward; buying pounds forward b) selling pounds forward; selling dollars forward c) selling pounds forward; buying dollars forward d) selling dollars forward; buying pounds forward 22) which of the following institutions can not be included in the international finance and monetary system? e) WTO f) Bank for International Settlements g) IMF h) World Bank 23) India’s foreign exchange rate system is? a) Free float b) Managed float c) Fixed. (d) Fixed target of band 24) India is facing continuous deficit in its balance of payments. In the foreign exchange market rupee is expected to a) Depreciate. b) Appreciate. c) Show no specific tendency. d) Depreciate against currencies of the countries with positive balance of payment and appreciate against countries with negative balance of payment. 25) The demand for domestic currency in the foreign exchange market is indicated by the following transactions in balance of payment a) Export of goods and services b) Import of goods and services. c) Export of goods and services and capital inflows. d) Import of goods and services and capital outflows. 26) The spot exchange rate __________. a) is the rate today for exchanging one currency for another for immediate delivery b) is the rate today for exchanging one currency for another at a specific future date c) is the rate today for exchanging one currency for another at a specific location on a specific future date d) is the rate today for exchanging one currency for another at a specific location for immediate delivery DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 39) The WTO was established to implement the final act of Uruguay Round agreement of …… a) MFA b) GATT c) TRIP’s d) UNO 40) WTO stands for a) World technology association b) World time organization c) World trade organization d) World tourism organization 41) What is the name of the international organization that fosters monetary and financial cooperation and serves as a bank for central banks? a) WTO b) EU c) World Bank d) Bank for International Settlements 42) Which of the following are institutional banks that provide financial support and professional advice for developing countries? a) A) multilateral development banks b) B) central banks c) C) investment banks d) D) Barclays bank 43) In the foreign exchange market, the ________ of one country is traded for the ________ of another country. a) currency; currency b) currency; financial instruments c) currency; goods d) goods; goods 44) Which of the following examples definitely illustrates a depreciation of the U.S. dollar? a) The dollar exchanges for 1 pound and then exchanges for 1.2 pounds. b) The dollar exchanges for 250 yen and then exchanges for 275 francs. c) The dollar exchanges for 100 francs and then exchanges for 120 yen. d) The dollar exchanges for 120 francs and then exchanges for 100 francs DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 45) By definition, currency appreciation occurs when a) the value of all currencies falls relative to gold. b) the value of all currencies rises relative to gold. c) the value of one currency rises relative to another currency. d) the value of one currency falls relative to another currency 46) A forward currency transaction: a) Is always at a premium over the spot rate b) Means that delivery and payment must be made within one business day (USA/Canada) or two business days after the transaction date c) Calls for exchange in the future of currencies at an agreed rate of exchange d) Sets the future date when delivery of a currency must be made at an unknown spot exchange rate e) None of the above is correct 47) Hedging is used by companies to: a) Decrease the variability of tax paid b) Decrease the spread between spot and forward market quotes c) Increase the variability of expected cash flows d) Decrease the variability of expected cash flows e) Increase the variability of tax paid 48) Interest rate swaps are usually possible because international financial markets in different countries are a) Efficient b) Perfect c) Imperfect d) Both a & b 49) The exchange rate is the a) total yearly amount of money changed from one country’s currency to another country’s currency b) total monetary value of exports minus imports c) amount of country’s currency which can exchanged for one ounce of gold d) price of one country’s currency in terms of another country’s currency 50) Exchange rates a) are always fixed b) fluctuate to equate the quantity of foreign exchange demanded with the quantity supplied c) fluctuate to equate imports and exports d) fluctuate to equate rates of interest in various countries DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 51) If the U.S. dollar appreciates relative to the British pound, a) it will take fewer dollars to purchase a pound b) it will take more dollars to purchase a pound c) it is called a weakening of the dollar d) both a & c 52) A speculator in foreign exchange is a person who a) buys foreign currency, hoping to profit by selling it a a higher exchange rate at some later date b) earns illegal profit by manipulation foreign exchange c) causes differences in exchange rates in different geographic markets d) None of the above 53) A floating exchange rate a) is determined by the national governments involved b) remains extremely stable over long periods of time c) is determined by the actions of central banks d) is allowed to vary according to market forces 54) Under a gold standard, a) a nation’s currency can be traded for gold at a fixed rate b) a nation’s central bank or monetary authority has absolute control over its money supply c) new discoveries of gold have no effect on money supply or prices d) a & b 55) The Bretton Woods accord a) of 1879 created the gold standard as the basis of international finance b) of 1914 formulated a new international monetary system after the collapse of the gold standard c) of 1944 formulated a new international monetary system after the collapse of the gold standard d) None of the above 56) The current system of international finance is a a) gold standard b) fixed exchange rate system c) floating exchange rate system d) managed float exchange rate system DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 6. Neighboring countries tend to collaborate for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a) the distance that goods need to travel between such countries is short b) neighboring countries tend to be in similar economic situations and therefore are able to better control currency exchange rates c) consumers’ tastes are likely to be similar, and distribution channels can be easily established in adjacent countries d) neighboring countries may have a common history and interests, and may be more willing to coordinate their policies 7. Geographic proximity is an important reason for economic integration because consumer tastes are likely to be: a) different b) opposite c) similar d) strange 8. Which of the following types of regional economic integration focuses only on eliminating internal tariffs? a) customs union b) common market c) complete economic integration d) free trade area 9. 75). In which of the following types of regional economic integration are internal tariffs eliminated with member countries levying a common external tariff on goods being imported from nonmembers. a) customs union b) free trade area c) common market d) complete economic integration 10. A _______________ focuses on eliminating internal tariffs with member countries levying a common external tariff on goods being imported from nonmembers. Additionally, this type of regional economic integration allows free mobility of production factors such as labor and capital. a) free trade area b) common market c) customs union d) complete economic integration DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 11. In _______________, countries focus on eliminating internal tariffs among member countries, have a common external trading policy among nonmembers, allow free mobility of productions factors within member countries, and adopt common economic policies. a) free trade area b) customs union c) complete economic integration d) common market 12. _______________ occurs when production shifts to more efficient producers for reasons of comparative advantage, allowing consumers access to more goods at a lower price than would have been possible without integration. a) Trade diversion b) Divestment c) Trade creation d) Retrenchment 13. Which of the following was developed with the rationale that the U.S.-Canadian trade was the largest bilateral trade in the world and that the United States is Mexico’s and Canada’s largest trading partner? a) CEFTA (the Central European Free Trade Agreement) b) NAFTA (the North American Free Trade Agreement) c) ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations) d) EU (the European Union) 14. _______________ occurs when trade shifts to countries in the group at the expense of trade with countries not in the group, even though the nonmember country might be more efficient in the absence of trade barriers. a) Trade creation b) Divestment c) Retrenchment d) Trade diversion 15. NAFTA calls for all of the following EXCEPT: a) the harmonization of trade rules b) the liberalization of restrictions on services c) the implementation of a common currency d) the liberalization of restrictions on foreign investment DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 16. NAFTA is a good example of: a) trade erosion. b) divestment. c) retrenchment. d) trade diversion. 17. The _______________ is a political organization comprised of 185 countries, and it is headquartered in New York City. This organization deals with a variety of political issues, such as security and world peace, but it also deals in humanitarian and economic issues. a) World Trade Organization b) World Bank c) European Union d) United Nations 18. When one company acquires another, the one acquired becomes a subsidiary of the acquiring company. a) True b) False 19. Which of the following is an advantage of turnkey projects? a) Can earn a return on knowledge asset b) Will not create a competitor c) Tight control of operations d) All the above 20. Where is the headquarters of the EU? a) Belgium b) Netherlands c) Luxembourg d) Greece 21. Where is the headquarters of the SAARC? a) Manila b) Kathmandu c) New Delhi d) Jakarta DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in Unit 5: India’s foreign Trade 1. With the globalization of markets, the tastes and preferences of consumers world-wide are: a) becoming similar to the tastes and preferences of American consumers. b) converging upon a global norm. c) being encouraged by multinational organizations to become increasingly similar. d) so different that they can be ignored by international organizations. 2. Which organisations strain on the liberalisation of foreign investment and foreign trade? a) International Monetary Fund b) World Health Organisation c) World Trade Organisation d) International Labour Organisation 3. Tax on imports can be treated as a) Collateral b) Trade Barriers c) Foreign Trade d) Terms of Trade 4. The main reason behind MNCs investments are a) To benefit foreign countries b) To provide financial support to the country’s government c) For the welfare of underprivileged people. d) To increase the assets and earn profits. e) 5. Which institute supports investments and foreign trade in India? a) International Monetary Fund (IMF) b) World Trade Organisation (WTO) c) World Bank d) International Labour Organisation (ILO) 6. When management believes or assumes that the home country is superior and the needs of the home country are most relevant in terms of doing business internationally, then management is thought to have a(n) _____________________ business orientation. a) Polycentric b) Regionocentric c) Geocentric d) Ethnocentric DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 7. Which of the following represents a company's effort to identify and categorize groups of customers and countries according to common characteristics? a) Global positioning b) Global market segmentation c) Global targeting d) Global marketing research 8. Regionalism is: a) a protectionist policy created to exclude third world countries from certain forms of international trade. b) the grouping of countries into regional clusters based on geographic proximity. c) an international management orientation and a protectionist policy created to exclude third world countries from certain forms of international trade. d) an international management orientation. 9. Within an international context, what are 'economies of scope' synonymous with? a) Decreased cost per unit of output. b) Buying components in bulk. c) Reusing a resource from one business/country in additional businesses/countries. d) All of the above. 10. According to the concept of the value chain, of an international firm is profitable if: a) the value it commands exceeds the costs involved in creating the product b) the value it commands is lower than the costs involved in creating the product c) it operates in global industries d) the value it commands equals the costs involved in creating the product. 11. The currency used to buy imported goods is a) the buyer's home currency. b) the seller's home currency. c) the currency of a third country. d) special drawing rights. 12. If the United States sells beef to Japan, the U.S. beef producer is paid with a) euros, or any other third currency. b) dollars. c) yen, the Japanese currency. d) international monetary credits. DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 13. When Safeway supermarkets in the United States buys strawberries from Mexico, a) it must use dollars to pay Mexican farmers. b) it may use any currency it chooses. c) it must use pesos to pay Mexican farmers. d) the transaction shows up in the U.S. capital account. 14. A country records its international finance accounts in it’s a) balance of payments accounts. b) import/export log accounts. c) trade payments accounts. d) net exports payments account. 15. Which organisations strain on the liberalisation of foreign investment and foreign trade? a) International Monetary Fund b) World Health Organisation c) World Trade Organisation d) International Labour Organisation 16. The main reason behind MNCs investments are a) To benefit foreign countries b) To provide financial support to the country’s government c) For the welfare of underprivileged people. d) To increase the assets and earn profits. 17. Which country has the highest inflation rate in the world? a) South Sudan b) Venezuela c) Argentina d) Iran NOTE: Venezuela has the highest inflation of any country in the world. The country’s inflation is expected to reach 1,370,000 percent in 2018 and 10,000,000 percent in 2019. Venezuela’s shrinking economy is causing large fiscal deficits, which the government is financing by printing money, contributing to further inflation. DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 26. The balance of payments account is conventionally divided into a. Current Account and Capital Account b. Visible Account and Invisible Account c. Long-term capital Account and short term capital account d. None of the above 27. Which one of the following theories says that "to export was good and to be encouraged but to import was bad and to the discouraged." a) Comparative cost theory b) The theory of absolute advantage c) Factor Endowment theory d) Mercantilist theory 28. A letter of credits means a. 29. 30. A bank agreeing to accept and pay on due date b. 31. 2. A letter containing conditions of credit purchase or sale c. 33. 4. A letter sent by exporter to importer sanctioning credit dial. d. 35. 6. A letter sent by importer to exporter sanctioning credit deal 37. 8. 29. Which among the following are important bodies of WTO? i. Dispute settlement body ii. NAFTA iii. Trade Policy Review Body iv. ASEAN v. Council for Trade in Goods vi. Council for trade related aspects of Intellectual property rights vii. GATT An appropriate combination is a. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in b. (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) c. (i), (iii), (v), (vii) d. (iv), (v), (vi), (vii) 30. Foreign Exchange and Foreign currencies in India are governed by a. RBI b. Banking Regulation Act c. FEMA Act d. SEBI Act 31. Physical delivery of foreign exchange has to lake place in case of a. Forward Market b. Spot market c. Future market d. Options market 32. Identify a factor that doesn’t play an important role in attracting FDI a. Language b. Laws, rules and regulations c. Cost of resources d. Infrastructure related factors 33. India is an a. Emerging economy b. Developed economy c. Less developed economy d. None of these DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 Subject: International Business CLASS: SYBBA IV SEM (2013 PATTERN) PROF. Heena D. Gandhi www.dacc.edu.in 34. Typically, the last step in the internationalization process is: a. Licensing b. Exporting c. Wholly owned subsidiaries d. Foreign Direct Investment 35. Which of these is/are the characteristic of a licensing agreement? a. The licensor might provide access to some of its patents or trademarks b. The licensor might provide access to technology c. It might be used to avoid the risks of foreign involvement d. All of the above 36. Amalgamation and rapid unification between countries can be identified as a. Globalisation b. Liberalisation c. Socialisation d. Privatisation 37. Globalisation has improved in the living structure of a. All the people b. Workers in developing countries c. People in developed countries d. None of the above. 38. Which Indian industries have been hit by globalization? a. Cement b. Jute c. Toy making d. Information Technology (IT) Unit 5 Answer Key: 1 – b 2 – C 3 – B 4 - D 5 - B 6 – d 7 – b 8 – b 9 -d 10 - a 11 – b 12 – b 13 - c 14 -a 15 - c 16 – d 17 – b 18 – b 19 -c 20 - d 21 – a 22 – d 23 - b 24 - b 25 - b 26-a 27-d 28-a 29-c 30-c 31-b 32-a 33-a 34-a 35-d 36-a 37-a 38-c Correct answer : Answer (a) 14) The Twelfth Five Year Plan Period is from _________________ a) 2012 to 2017 b) 2015 to 2020 c)1993 to 1998 d) 2000 to 2005 Correct answer : Answer (a) 15) ______________________ increases employment opportunities a) Urbanisation b) Globalisation c) Public sector d) Enterprises Correct answer : Answer (a) 16) Among the metros _______________ city has the maximum urban population a) Delhi b) Kolkata c) Chennai d) Mumbai Correct answer : Answer (d) 17) _______________ was categorized as tenants a) Occupancy tenants b) Tiller tenants c) Sub-tenants d) Farmer tenants Correct answer : Answer (a) 18) Cooperative farming helps to solve the problems of ____________________ a) Subdivision and fragmentation b) Group farming c) Land-holdings d) Ownership of land Correct answer : Answer (a) 19) Stability in agricultural prices is important to avoid ___________________ a) Deflation b) Stagflation c) Inflation d)Poverty Correct answer : Answer (c) 20) The price at which Government sells food grains to the poor people through fair price shops is called_______________________ a) Issue price b)Minimum support price c) Procurement price d) Reasonable price Correct answer : Answer (a) 21) _________________________ was introduced in the year 1966 a) Green Revolution b) Grey Revolution c) Wheat Revolution d) Blue Revolution Correct answer : Answer (a) 22) ______________________ of agriculture improved after the introduction of new agriculture strategy a) Mechanisation b) Improvement c) Up gradation d) Modification Correct answer : Answer (a) 23) According to the UN, the number of poor in India as per MPI 2019 is ________________ million a) 360 b)370 c)350 d)400 Correct answer : Answer (b) 24) _______________ inclusion is achieved through Jan Dhan Yojana a) Financial b) Human c) Cultural d) Technical Correct answer : Answer (a) 25) The world's largest health care program is _____________ a) Swatcha Bharat b) Ayushman Bharat c) MGNREGP d)Pradhan Mantri Gramin Swarozgar Yojana Correct answer : Answer (b) 26) The magnitude of unemployment is brought out by _____________ survey a) NSSO b) Census c) Population density d) Income Correct answer : Answer (a) 27) The _________________sector offers variety of job opportunities a) Agricultural b) Service c) Tertiary d)Farming Correct answer : Answer (b) 28) Insurance density is _______________ in India a) Rising b) Declining c) Remains stable d) Fluctuating Correct answer : Answer (a) 29) The Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Management located in _______________ offers a wide variety of courses related to tourism a) Gwalior b) Mumbai c) Vadodara d) Kochi Correct answer : Answer (a) 30) A National Tourism Policy was announced by the Government in the year ______________ a) 2000 b) 1998 c)2002 d) 2006 Correct answer : Answer (c) 31) ________________ % FDI is allowed in SEZs a)50 b) 70 c) 85 d) 100 Correct answer : Answer (d) 32) _______________ % of India's exports is absorbed by Asian countries a) 50 b) 80 c)100 d) 40 Correct answer : Answer (a) 33) Current account deficit is balanced by a _______________ in the capital account a) surplus b)deficit c)equality d) profit Correct answer : Answer (a) 34) ________________ account is included in current account a) Current b)Capital c) Merchandise d) Corporate Correct Answer : Answer (c) 35) _________________ capital flows can be both direct and indirect a) Foreign b) Domestic c) Additional d) Working Correct answer : Answer (a) 36) The capital which flows into the equity market is known as _______________ a) Initial Investment b) Portfolio investment c) Current investment d) Capital investment Correct answer: Answer (b) 37) At present ________________ countries are members of WTO a) 164 b)155 c)200 d)100 Correct answer : Answer (a) 38)SAFTA was signed by _________________ countries a) WTO b)SAARC c) ASEAN d) EU Correct Answer : Answer (b) 39) _______________________ coordinates the various institutions in the money market a) Money Market b) Capital Market c) Discount and Finance House of India d) Commercial Banks Correct answer : Answer (c) 40) __________________ market is the most volatile market a) Call money b) Open market c) Goods market d)Forex market Correct answer: Answer (a) 41) Bench mark prime lending rate was replaced by base rate system in the year ______________ a) 2015 b)2020 c) 2000 d) 2010 Correct answer : Answer (d) 42) _______________ are given greater operational flexibility and freedom to mobilise capital from the market a) Commercial Banks b) Capital Market c) Private Banks d) Cooperative Banks Correct answer : Answer (a) 43) In _______________ RBI deregulated interest rate for saving bank account deposits a) October 2011 b) October 2010 c) October 2005 d) October 2000 Correct answer : Answer (a) 44) _____________ has approved setting up of new private banks and issued guidelines for the same a) SBI b) RBI c) IDFC d) HDFC Correct answer : Answer (b) 45) ________________ is a credit rating agency a) CRISIL b) IFCI c) ICICI d) IRDA Correct answer : Answer (a) 46) The ________________ was started in 1992 a) Bombay Stock Exchange b) National Stock Exchange c) Clearing Corporation d) Investment Information Correct answer: Answer (b) 47) _____________________ has the lowest literacy rate a) Uttar Pradesh b) Kerala c)Bihar d) Odisha Correct answer: Answer (c) 48) The index of industrial production consists of _______________ a) Mining, Manufacturing and Electricity b) Rubber c) Tea d) Coffee Correct answer: Answer (a) 49) At present there are ________________ public sector banks in India a) 10 b) 15 c)12 d) 20 Correct answer : Answer (c) 50) TDS is _________________________ a) Tax Deducted at Source b) Tax Derivation at Source c) Tax Declaration at Source d) Tax Demonetisation at Source Correct answer: Answer (a) 12. The department od Family planning was set up in/ a. 1965 b. 1966 c. 1977 d. 1975 Ans. Option : B 13. Which of the following is / are immediate objective of the population policy of 2020? a. Meet the needs of contraception b. Meet the needs of health infrastructure c. Meet the needs of health personal d. All the above Ans. Option : D 14. Rak of growth in “Hindu rate of growth” is stablished at? a. 1% b. 2.5% c. 3.5% d. 5% Ans. Option : C 15. The book “Planning Economy for India” was written by? a. V. K. R. V. Rao b. M. Visvesvaraya c. K. N. Rai. d. Manmohan Singh Ans. Option : B 16. What is the fullform of Niti yog? a. National Institute to Transform India b. National Institute for Transforming India c. National Institution to Transform India d. National Institution for Transforming India Ans. Option : D 17. Unfair trade practices are included in: a. FERA b. FEMA c. MRTP Act d. Anti Laundering act Ans. Option : C 18. Multi fibre agreement is related to a. Textiles b. Agriculture c. Chemicals d. Plastics. Ans. Option : A 19. Which of the following combinations is correct? a. NABARD – Industrial Loan b. IDBI – Short term Loans c. RBI – Long term Loans d. RRB – Agricultural Finance Ans. Option : C 20. Which one of the following statements about globalization is not correct? a. All economies are closed b. Secular economies c. Open economies with trade liberalization d. None of these are correct Ans. Option : C 21. Which one of the following was the objective of 12th five year plan of India? a. Faster and Inclusive growth b. Faster quick and reliable inclusive growth c. Faster reliable and more inclusive growth d. Faster sustainable and more inclusive growth. Ans. Option : D 22. Indian Economy is : a. Socialist Economy b. Gandhian Economy c. Mixed Economy d. Free Economy Ans. Option : C 23. Mixed Economy means an economy where: a. Both agriculture and industry are equally promoted by the state. b. There is co-existence of public sector along with private sector. c. There is importance of small scale industries along with heavy industries. d. Economy is controlled by military as well as civilian rulers. Ans. Option : B 24. Who is the chairman of the planning commission in India? a. President b. Vice president c. Prime Minister d. Finance Minister Ans. Option : C 25. The deputy chairman of the planning commission: a. HRD minister b. Finance Minister c. Holds the rank of cabinet ministry. d. Is an Economist of repute. Ans. Option : C 26. The second five year plan laid more stress on : a. Industrialization b. Removing poverty c. Self-reliance d. Agriculture Ans. Option : A 27. A Rolling plan is a plan for: a. One year b. Two year c. Three year d. Five year Ans. Option : A 28. Rolling plan was designed for the period of : a. 1985-90 b. 1974-79 c. 1980-85 d. 1978-83 Ans. Option : D 29. Major objective of 31st five year plan was: a. Industrial growth b. Economy is stagnant c. Steady growth begins d. Economy is collapsing Ans. Option :C 42. A Closed economy means: a. Only exports are take place b. Money supply is controlled c. Digital financing take place d. Neither exports nor imports Ans. Option : D 43. Which of the statement is correct about Indian planning commission. a. Member – do not require any minimum education. b. It is not defined in Indian Constitution. c. Do not have fined working duration d. All the above Ans. Option : B 44. In which sector the public sector is most dominant. a. Transport b. Steel production c. Financial Institution d. Commercial banking Ans. Option : D 45. India had a plan holiday a. After the draught of 1966 b. After the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971 c. After India Pakistan was in 1965 d. After the India china was 1962 Ans. Option : A 46. In Economics production means a. A Faming b. Manufacturing c. Creating utility d. Making Ans. Option : C 47. Which type of economy can be termed as laissez – faire economy a. Mixed economy b. Socialist economy c. Command economy d. Capitalist economy Ans. Option : D 48. FERA stands for a. Foreign Exchange Reglation Act b. Foreign Energy Reglation Act c. Foreign Exchange Rulling Act d. None of these Ans. Option : A 49. FEMA Stands for a. Foreign exchange Merging Act b. Foreign exchange Managed Act c. Foreign Exchange Management Act d. None of these Ans. Option : C 50. MNCs Stands for a. Multinational commodities b. Multinational Corporations c. Minimum number of commodities d. None of these Ans. Option : B 51. Devaluation of Indian Rupee in terms of US Dollar was in the year. a. 2019 b. 2000 c. 1981 d. 1991 Ans. Option : D 52. IMF stands for. a. Indian Monetary Fund b. Internal Monetary Fund c. International Monetary Fund d. None of these Ans. Option : C 53. Import substitution means a. Constant rate of imports b. Increase in imports c. Producing imported good domestically d. Import ban Ans. Option : C 54. FDI stands for : a. Future Direct Investment b. Foreign Direct investment c. Further Direct Investment d. Fund for Direct Investment Ans. Option : B 55. FII helps to improve: a. Capital market b. How of equity capital c. Financial innovation and development d. All the above Ans. Option : D 56. Multi National corporations owns and managers business in true or more countries called. a. MNC b. FDI c. FII d. Monopoly Ans. Option : A 57. Demography means a. Study of earth b. Study of population c. Study of Morality d. Study of directions. Ans. Option : B 58. Number of individuals those die in a population in a given period of five is called: a. Morality rate b. Population density c. Birth rate d. None of these Ans. Option : A 59. Population density means a. Rate of growth of population b. Rate of death rate of population Ans. Option : C 72. An Economy which does not have any relation with ret of the world is known as: a. Mixed economy b. Open economy c. Closed economy d. Socialist economy Ans. Option : C 73. India is a: a. Developed country b. Developing country c. Under developed country d. None of these Ans. Option : B 74. Which sector is considered as the work force of Indian Economy? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. None of these Ans. Option : A 75. According to 2011 census the rate of urbanization in India is a. 72.2% b. 32.5% c. 31.16% d. 45.2% Ans. Option : B 76. Among the Indian state which has the highest density? a. Bengal b. Kerala c. Punjab d. Bihar Ans. Option : B 77. Relative poverty is basically related to a. Poor b. Rich c. Both d. None Ans. Option : A 78. The sex ratio of Kerala in 2011 is a. 1084 b. 1080 c. 1040 d. 1041 Ans. Option : A 79. The child sex ratio of India in 2011 is a. 913 b. 940 c. 961 d. None Ans. Option : A 80. The type unemployment more prominent in India a. Seasonal b. Cyclical c. Structural d. Open. Ans. Option : A 81. India’s unemployment is estimated by a. Finance Ministry b. RBI c. NSSO d. ISO Ans. Option : D 82. Disguised unemployment is common in a. Agricultural sector b. Industrial sector c. Service sector d. Non of these Ans. Option : A 83. The rate of unemployment in India in 2009- 10 is a. 5.8 b. 5.6 c. 8.2 d. None Ans. Option : C 84. India’s Rank according to ADI in 2012 is a. 127 b. 134 c. 136 d. 124 Ans. Option : B 85. The annual growth rate of India’s population according to 2011 census is a. 1.9% b. 1.76% c. 2% d. None Ans. Option : A 86. What was the contribution of the primary sector to net domestic product of India in 2011 a. 80% b. 18% c. 53% d. 25% Ans. Option : B 87. Land reform Includes: a. New idea of irrigation b. Fertilizers c. New seeds d. All the above. Ans. Option : D 88. What is the main wheat production state in India a. Punjab b. Goa c. Kerala d. Orissa Ans. Option : A 89. Which is the commercial crop a. Rice b. Wheat c. Tea d. None of these 102. Type of unemployment mostly found in India: a. Structural unemployment b. Frictional unemployment c. Cyclical unemployment d. Disguised. Ans. Option : D 103. Unemployment in a developing country is generally take place due to a. Switch over from one job to another. b. Lack of effective demand c. Seasonal factors. d. Lack of complementary factors of production. Ans. Option : B 104. Cyclical unemployment refers to. a. Seasonal unemployment b. Disguised unemployment c. Voluntary unemployment d. Unemployment due to economic reason. Ans. Option : D 105. Absolute poverty means. a. Poverty in terms of absolute number of people b. Poverty in terms of basic minimum calorie requirements. c. Poverty in terms of prevailing price level. d. None of these. Ans. Option : B 106. Poverty gap is: a. Different between poverty line and actual income level. b. Gap between rich and poor. c. Gap between developed ration and developing ration d. None of these. Ans. Option : A 107. When the productive capacity of an economy is inadequate to create sufficient number of jobs is called. a. Seasonal unemployment b. Structural unemployment c. Disguised unemployment d. Cyclical unemployment Ans. Option : B 108. Poverty in less developed countries is largely due to a. Voluntary idleness b. Income inequality c. Lack of cultural activities d. Lack of intelligence of people. Ans. Option : B 109. Which of the sector has emerged as the largest producing sectors in India. a. Tertiary sector b. Primary sector c. Secondary sector. d. None of these. Ans. Option : A 110. GDP is the total values of a. All final goods and services b. All interactive goods and services c. All international goods and services. d. None of these. Ans. Option : A 111. The best indicator of economic development of any country is a. Its agriculture b. Its transport c. Its gross production d. Its per capital income. Ans. Option : C 112. The mid day meal scheme was launched on: a. August 15, 2000 b. August 15, 1992 c. August 15,1995 d. August 15,2001 Ans. Option : C 113. On July 12, 1982 the ARDC collaborated with. a. NABARD b. Exim Bank c. RBI d. None of these. Ans. Option : A 114. The first complete Indian bank was established in the year. a. 1794 b. 1894 c. 1896 d. 1902 Ans. Option :A 115. The Gandhian Plan was Presented by a. M. N. Roy b. Nehru c. Shriman Narayan d. 8 leading economist Ans. Option : A 116. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian Planning a. Physical Planning b. Indicative economic planning c. Decentralised Planning d. None of these above. Ans. Option : A 117. A. Rolling plan refer to a plan which? a. Does not change it target every year. b. Change it allocation every year. c. Changes its allocation and target every year. d. None of these. Ans. Option : B Ans. D 3. Primary resource for agriculture (A) Land, air and water (B) Seed, Fertilizer and Pesticide (C) Seed, air and water (D) Land, Fertilizer and water Ans. A 4. Cultivation of rice begins in _______ (A) 2200 BC (B) 5700 BC (C) 7700 BC (D) 8700 BC Ans. A 5. The book ‘Horse hoeing husbandry’ was published by _______ (A) Van Helmont (B) Gregor Johann Mendel (C) Jethro tull (D) None Ans. C 6. The ‘Annals of Agriculture’ was published by _________ (A) Jethro Tull (B) Aurther Young (C) Van Helmont (D) None Ans. B 7. The book ‘Element of Agricultural Chemistry’ was published by ________ (A) Justus Von Liebig (B) Sir Humphry Davy (C) Van Helmont (D) J.B. Lawes Ans. B 8. Experiments on effect of manures on crop were initiated by ________ (A) Sir John Bannet Lawes (B) G. J. Mendel (C) Van Helmont (D) Justus Von Liebig Ans. A 9. ________ (1674­1741 AD) conducted several experiments on plant nutrient and published a book, “Horse Hoeing Husbandry” (A) Sir Humphry Davy (B) Aristotal (C) Jethro Tull (D) Van Helmount Ans. C 10. Kharif, Rabi and Zaid word belong to _______ (A) Urdu (B) French (C) Persian (D) Arabic Ans. D 11. Climate pertains to a __________ (A) Long period of time (B) Short duration (C) Medium duration (D) None Ans. A 12. Principles of mercury barometers was discovered by __________ (A) Torricelli (B) Aristotle (C) Pliny (D) Galileo Ans. A 13. Instrument used for measuring wind velocity is known as __________ (A) Hydrometer (B) Pyranometer (C) Altimeter (D) Anemometer Ans. D 14. The term PET was coined by __________ (A) Sarkar and Biswas (B) Haigreaves (C) Thornthwaite (D) Mendel Ans. C 15. A rainy day called when rainfall received in 24 hrs (A) >2.5 mm (B) >3.0 mm (C) >5.0 mm (D) >1.0 mm Ans. A 2. MCQs on Horticulture: 16. Directorate of Onion and Garlic Research (DOGR) is situated at ________ (A) Shimla (B) Nasik (C) New Delhi (D) Lucknow (A) 1991­92 (B) 1981­82 (C) 1970­71 (D) 1960­61 Ans. C 27. First commercial vegetable seed production unit in India was established in 1942 at _____ (A) Quetta (B) Kullu (C) Nilgiri (D) Pusa Ans. A 28. Under the All India Coordinated Vegetable Improvement Project (AICVIP), India is divided into agro­climatic zones (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 24 Ans. A 29. New seed police was launched in ________ (A) 1982 (B) 1992 (C) 1988 (D) 1986 Ans. C 30. Pomology is derived from _____ (A) Latin (B) French (C) English (D) Greek Ans. D 3. MCQs on Genetics: 31. Who coined the term genetics? (A) Hugo de vries (B) W.L. Johannsen (C) T.H. Morgan (D) W. Bateson Ans. D 32. The germplasm theory was proposed by _____ (A) Weisman (B) Mendel (C) Darwin (D) Hugo de vries Ans. A 33. The alternative forms of a gene are known as _____ (A) Transgene (B) Pseudogene (C) Mixed gene (D) Alleles Ans. D 34. Which of the following is the controlling centre of a cell (A) Chloroplast (B) Nucleus (C) Nucleolus (D) Mitochondria Ans. B 35. Which of the following produces pseudo­dominance (A) Inversion (B) Deletion (C) Duplication (D) Translocation Ans. B 36. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA (A) Adenine (B) Thymine (C) Uracil (D) Cytosine Ans. C 37. Balbiani rings are found in which of the following (A) Lampbrush chromosomes (B) Sex chromosomes (C) Polytene chromosomes (D) B chromosomes Ans. C 38. In which of the following sub stages of meiosis­I, chromatin exchange between non­ sister chromatids is completed (A) Pachytene (B) Diplotene (C) Zygotene (D) Diakinesis Ans. A 39. The theory of origin of species through natural selection was proposed by _____ (A) Darwin (B) Lamarck (C) Mendel (D) Vilmorin Ans. B 49. Transformation of raw organic matter into humus is called ________ (A) Humification (B) Brounification (C) Rubrification (D) All of the above Ans. A 50. Removal of silica from soil and accumulation of sesquioxide is known as _____ (A) Podzolization (B) Laterization (C) Gleization (D) Both A and B Ans. B 51. Mixing process of soil is called _______ (A) Pedoturbation (B) Podzolization (C) Laterization (D) None of the above Ans. A 52. Which element found highest in earth crust? (A) Oxygen (B) Silicon (C) Aluminium (D) Iron Ans. A 53. _____ of igneous rock is found in earth crust (A) 45% (B) 65% (C) 75% (D) 95% Ans. D 54. The rocks formed by alteration by heat and pressure is called _____ (A) Sedimentary rock (B) Metamorphic rock (C) Igneous rock (D) None of the above Ans. B 55. Slate is metamorphs from which rock (A) Shale (B) Sandstone (C) Granite (D) Dolomite Ans. A 56. CO  concentration in soil air (A) 0.25% (B) 0.025% (C) 0.0025% (D) 2.5% Ans. A 57. Soil shows plasticity (A) > 15% clay (B) < 15% clay (C) 10% silt (D) 5 ­10% clay Ans. A 58. Attraction between two dissimilar molecules is called _____ 2 (A) Attraction (B) Cohesion (C) Adhesion (D) Flocculation Ans. C 59. Flocculation order is appropriate (A) A1 > Ca and H > Mg > K > Na (B) A1 > Na and H > Mg > K > Ca (C) Al > Ca and K > Mg > H > Na (D) Na > Ca and H > Mg > K > Al Ans. A 60. Maximum CEC found in _____ (A) Vermiculite (B) Humus (C) Montmorrilonite (D) Kaolinite Ans. B 5. MCQs on Entomology: 61. Filter chamber of Homopterans helps in rapid removal of _______ (A) Salts (B) Water (C) Excretory material (D) Nitrogen Ans. B 62. Systole refers to _____ (A) Relaxation phase (B) Both relaxation and contraction (C) Contraction phase (A) 57 articles (B) 77 articles (C) 67 articles (D) 87 articles Ans. D 73. Which of the following is not head sclerite: (A) Gena (B) Epimeron (C) Frons (D) Vertex Ans. B 74. Which of the following is associated with articulation of wings: (A) Trochanter (B) Phragmata (C) Tegula (D) Scutum Ans. C 75. White muscardine disease is caused by _________ (A) Metarrhizium anisoplae (B) Nosema sp. (C) Beauveria bassiana (D) Granulosis virus Ans. C 6. MCQs on Plant Pathology: 76. Who recommended copper sulphate for seed treatment of wheat against bunt and demonstrated its fungi­toxic value first time (A) Mason (B) Benedict Prevost (C) Singh (D) P.M.A. Millardet Ans. B 77. Among all the Aflatoxins, Aflatoxin Bi is the most toxic. Which species of Aspergillus produce/s Aflatoxin B  and B (A) Aspergillus niger (B) Aspergillus flavus (C) Aspergillus parasiticus (D) Both B and C Ans. D 78. Which species of Aspergillus produces Aflatoxin G  and G (A) Aspergillus niger (B) Aspergillus flavus (C) Aspergillus parasiticus (D) Both B and C Ans. C 79. Who introduced burgundy mixture using sodium carbonate in place of lime? (A) Mason (B) Narsimhan (C) Singh (D) P.M A. Millardet Ans. A 80. Who discovered “Bordeaux mixture” to control downy mildew of grapevine by using copper sulphate (blue stone) and hydrated lime? (A) Mason (B) Narsimhan (C) Singh (D) P.M A. Millardet Ans. D 81. In 1942 which of the Indian scientist developed “Chaubatia paste” in 1 2 1 2 Almora district (UP) as a wound dressing fungicide for this he used copper carbonate, Lead oxide and linseed oil (A) Mason (B) Narsimhan (C) Singh (D) P.M A. Millardet Ans. C 82. What is the actual ratio of copper carbonate, Lead oxide and Linseed oil in “Chaubatia Paste?” (A) 1:1:1.25 (B) 1:1:1.5 (C) 2:1:2 (D) 1:2:2 Ans. A 83. Who discovered first broad spectrum antibiotic Streptomycin in 1943 (A) Weindling (B) Von Schmeling and Marshal Kulka (C) S.A. Waksman and A. Schatz (D) S.M. Idris Ans. C 84. Who discovered first systemic fungicide “Oxathin” (A) Weindling (B) Von Schmeling and Marshal Kulka (C) S A. Waksman and A. Schatz (D) S.M. Indris Ans. B 85. Who developed the concept of vivo toxins and worked out the mechanism of wilting in cotton due to production of fusaric acid by Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. vasinfectum (A) J.F. Dastur (B) Ribosome (C) Plastid (D) Phagosome Ans. A 95. The smaller cell is metabolically _____ (A) Less active (B) With smaller nucleus (C) With larger nucleus (D) More active Ans. D 96. Cells metabolically active have _________ (A) Lower nucleo­cytoplasmic ratio (B) Higher nucleo­cytoplasmic ratio (C) Higher surface: volume ratio (D) Both B and C Ans. D 97. Exception of cell theory is _____ (A) Protistans (B) Algae (C) Virus (D) Mycoplasma Ans. C 98. The property of cell in which a cell can form many phenotypes is _____ (A) Totipotency (B) Parasexually (C) Pleuriopotency (D) Parthenogenesis Ans. C 99. Food vacuole in cell is made from ______ (A) Phagosome + Lysosome (B) Phagosome + Feeding canals (C) Vesicles of a gas vacuole (D) None of the above Ans. A 100. Granules of nucleolus are _____ (A) Precursors of ribosomes (B) Precursors of RNA (C) Precursors of chromosomes (D) None of the above Ans. A 101. Nucleolar organizing region (NOR) is occurs in the region of  ______ (A) Secondary constriction (B) Primary constriction (C) Telomere (D) Centromere Ans. A 102. Chromosomes present in Eukaryotic cell are composed of _______ (A) RNA + DNA (B) DNA + Protein (C) Only RNA (D) Only DNA Ans. B 103. Balbiani rings are called ______ (A) Coilling of chromonemata (B) Uncoilling of chromonemata (C) Both A and B (D) Enlargements of centromere Ans. B 104. In case of plant chromosomes which type of banding techniques used? (A) C and N (B) C and G (C) G and R (D) Q and G Ans. A 105. Middle lamella contains _______ (A) Cellulose (B) Lignin (C) Pectate (D) Cutin Ans. C 8. MCQs on Agricultural Economics: 106. The best use of limited resources is studied under the law of ________ (A) Substitution (B) Opportunity cost (C) Diminishing returns (D) All of the above Ans. A 107. Combination of crop production and milk production activities is an example of ______ (A) Competitive (B) Complementary (C) Supplementary (D) None of the above Ans. B 108. When TPP is maximum, the MPP will be ______ (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above Ans. A 118. National income denotes ______ (A) Revenue of the government in one year (B) Sum total of all factor earnings in the country (C) Revenue of nationalized enterprises (D) Banks budgetary surplus of the government Ans. B 119. Which of the following is management decision (A) Level of resource use (B) Selection of least cost (C) Enterprise mix (D) All of the above Ans. C 120. Short term loan mainly given for purchase of ________ (A) Pump set (B) Seed (C) Heavy machinery (D) Bullock Ans. B 9. MCQs on Agricultural Extension: 121. The latin roots for the word ‘Extension’ (A) Ex and tension (B) Ex and tensio (C) Ex and lucco (D) Ex and termo Ans. B 122. ‘Farmers first’ model was put forwarded by ________ (A) Robert Chamber (B) A. Readdy (C) Knapp (D) D. Berlo Ans. A 123. The main mode of extension in the ‘farmers first’ model is _____ (A) Farmer to farmer (B) Agent to farmer (C) Research to agent (D) Farmer to scientist Ans. A 124. ‘Andragogy’ is for ______ (A) Children (B) Adult (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above Ans. B 125. The term ‘Pedagogy’ literally mean ______ (A) Children learning (B) Adult learning (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above Ans. A 126. The concept of extension education process was given by ______ (A) Paul Leagans (B) Van Den Ban (C) Wilson and Gallup (D) Alexander Ans. A 127. James Stuart associated with ______ (A) Extension education (B) University extension (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above Ans. B 128. The learning curve is teaching follows a ______ (A) S­shape (B) U­shape (C) V­shape (D) L­shape Ans. A 129. The ‘Cone of experience’ was developed by ______ (A) Berlo (B) Lewin (C) Van Den Ban (D) Edgar Dale Ans. D 130. Who is father of extension in India? (A) Robert Chamber (B) A. Reddy (C) C.K.N. Singh (D) D. Berlo Ans. C 131. Reading newspaper is which level of communication (A) Inter personal (B) Intra personal (D) None of these Ans. A 141. In a Strip plot design, which is type of the contrast given more importance? (A) Vertical main effects (B) Horizontal main effects (C) Interaction effects (D) None of these Ans. C 142. In a Split plot design, which is type of the contrast given more importance? (A) Main plot treatments (B) Sub Sub­plot treatments (C) Sub plot treatments (D) All contrasts are equally important Ans. C 143. In the analysis of covariance, what is the name of the additional variable? (A) Concomitant variable (B) Random variable (C) Analysis variable (D) Secondary variable Ans. A 144. Which of the following design does not follow local control? (A) BIB design (B) Completely Randomized design (C) Randomized block design (D) None of the above Ans. B 145. The cause of experimental error is _____ (A) Variation in treatment (B) Unknown factors effects (C) Experimenter’s mistakes (D) None of these Ans. B 146. Errors in a statistical model are always taken to be _______ (A) Independent (B) Distributed as N(0, σ ) (C) Both a and b (D) None of the above Ans. C 147. What is the role of a uniformity trial? (A) To estimate the fertility status of the field (B) To estimate the error of the experiment (C) To identify the borders of the field (D) To conduct the experiment smoothly Ans. A 148. To find out CD values of a design, what test is used? (A) F­ test (B) t – test (C) z – test (D) Chi­ square test Ans. B 149. If the occurrence or non­ occurrence of any event does not affect the occurrence or non­occurrence of any other event, then the events are _______ (A) Equally likely (B) Independent (C) Mutually Exclusive 2 (D) None of the above Ans. B 150. In set theory, A ∩ (B ∪ C) = (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C) is due to the property of ______ (A) Commutativity (B) Associativity (C) Distributivity (D) Imdempotency Ans. C 11. MCQs on Forestry: 151. In India homestead garden mainly practiced (A) South (B) West (C) East (D) North Ans. A 152. Leucaena leucocephala fixex nitrogen in the range of kg/ha/year (A) 100­200 (B) 100­300 (C) 100­400 (D) 100­500 Ans. D 153. In which part of India the first taungya plantation started (A) North Bengal (B) South Bengal (C) East Bengal (D) All of these Ans. A 154. Which direction hedge row intercropping is raised?
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