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Investment Analysis and Portfolio Management - Sample Exam 2 | FINC 852, Exams of Finance

Material Type: Exam; Class: Investment Analysis and Portfolio Management; Subject: Finance; University: University of Delaware; Term: Unknown 1989;

Typology: Exams

Pre 2010

Uploaded on 09/02/2009

koofers-user-n5v
koofers-user-n5v 🇺🇸

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Download Investment Analysis and Portfolio Management - Sample Exam 2 | FINC 852 and more Exams Finance in PDF only on Docsity! Sample Exam #2 1. Multiple Choice (28 points) Choose the best answer for each of the following questions. The questions are worth 4 points each. 1. Consider the four risky securities described below. Which of these securities would be the best to combine with a Treasury Bill that pays a risk-free rate of 7.0%? a) Security A: E(R)=10% σ=14.0% b) Security B: E(R)=15% σ=19.0% c) Security C: E(R)=21% σ=19.0% d) Security D: E(R)=18% σ=14.0% 2. Given the two security choices described below, which security would be selected by a risk-averse investor? Security A is a risk-free security with a return equal to 8.0%. Security B is a risky security that pays -4% or +20% with equal probability. a) Security A would be selected by a risk-averse investor b) Security B would be selected by a risk-averse investor c) A risk-averse investor would be indifferent between Security A and Security B d) The answer cannot be determined without knowing the investor’s exact risk- aversion level and utility function. 3. For each individual investor, the optimal combination of a risky security and a risk- free security is determined by: a) The point of minimum variance on the Efficient Frontier. b) The point of tangency between the Capital Allocation Line and the Efficient Frontier. c) The point of tangency between the Efficient Frontier and the investor’s indifference curves. d) The point of tangency between the Capital Allocation Line and the investor’s indifference curves. 4. Other things equal, diversification is most effective when: a) Security returns are uncorrelated. b) Security returns are positively correlated. c) Security returns are negatively correlated. d) Security returns are high. 5. Consider the two risky securities described below. If the correlation between these securities is ρ = -1, what weights in securities X and Y would give you a perfect hedge (or zero risk)? Security X: E(RX)=6.0% σX=8.0% Security Y: E(RY)=12.0% σY=24.0% a) 50% in Security X and 50% in Security Y b) 75% in Security X and 25% in Security Y c) 25% in Security X and 75% in Security Y d) None of the above. 6. The reward-to-variability ratio is given by: a) the alpha of a security. b) the slope of an investor’s indifference curve. c) the slope of the capital allocation line (CAL). d) the covariance of the market returns with stock returns. 7. Which of the following was not a significant factor in the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) tests by Chen, Roll and Ross? a) Unexpected inflation. b) Bond risk premiums. c) Market returns. d) Industrial production. Answers to Sample Exam #2 1-d 2-a 3-d 4-c 5-b 6-c 7-c Problems: 1a) (-8.09+12+3.43)/3 = 2.4467% b) [(.9191)*(1.12)*(1.0343)]^1/3 -1 = 2.11% c) Arithmetic returns tell us what returns are for an average period and are easy to calculate. Geometric returns give accurate historical returns on investments made in the past. They take into account the compounding effect of returns over time. 2a) E(R)=.7(8%) + .3(4%) = 6.8% Std. dev. = [(.7)^2*(.165)^2]^1/2 = 11.55% b) .10 = w*(8%) + (1-w)*(4%) and solve for w. w = 1.5 in Amex (buy Amex on margin) 1-w = -0.5 in risk-free (borrow or sell short the risk-free asset). c) E(R)=.4*(8%) + .6 *(19%) = 14.6% Variance = (.4)^2(.165)^2 + (.6)^2(.33)^2 + 2*(.6)(.4)(.165)(.33)(.15) Std. dev = Square root of variance = 21.79% 3) See notes from class for efficient frontier, etc. Essays 1-- I wanted some discussion of multifactor models and CAPM including, but not limited to: --CAPM relies on investor preferences or multivariate normal returns (APT simply utilizes a no arbitrage argument). --CAPM assumes only one source of risk (variance) while multifactor models don't. --CAPM relies on many assumptions (see notes). Some of these overlap with APT (like no transaction costs) but many others do not. --CAPM holds that the one factor affecting returns is the market. Obviously, multifactor models allow for more than one factor, but not necessarily the market. --Multifactor models allow for more than one factor, but don't specify how many or what the factors are. CAPM states the factor is the market. 2--Covariance and correlation both refer to how two sets of data (here, stock returns) vary with each other. Covariance is a raw measure that is difficult to interpret whereas correlations are standardized measures of covariance that lie between -1 and +1, making comparisons across pairs of data easier. 3--Arbitrage, in terms of cash flows and returns, is simply the guarantee of future positive cash flows without having to invest any money up front. In the simplest terms, arbitrage occurs when cash flows at T=0 are zero and future cash flows are all positive.
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