Patient Scheduling, Blood Tests, and Medical Records Management: A Comprehensive Guide, Exams of Laboratory Practices and Management

Download Patient Scheduling, Blood Tests, and Medical Records Management: A Comprehensive Guide and more Exams Laboratory Practices and Management in PDF only on Docsity! MAC Practice Test (1), MAC Practice Test (2) Combined Tests Exam Questions and Answers. What is the best way to address an elderly patient? a) Mr. or Mrs._______ b) Honey or Sweetie c) Last name only d) First name only - (Answer:) Mr. or Mrs._______ (Reason:) When greeting patients use a proper form of address. Using sweetie or honey can be seen as a sign of disrespect. Your encounters with patients should be professional. When calling a facility to schedule a patient, what is the most important factor to remember? a) To get off the phone as quickly as possible b) To get the most convenient appointment possible c) To maintain patient confidentiality d) To discuss the patients limitations regarding diagnosis - ( Answer:) To maintain patient confidentiality (Reason:) When communicating with other facilities, maintain patient confidentiality and make sure you have patient consent. After how many minutes after a patient has missed an appointment, should the medical assistant call to reschedule? a) 5 b) 15 c) 25 d) 30 - (Answer:) 15 (Reason:) Some office policies state that after 15 minutes a patient will have to reschedule. Which of the following scheduling methods books several patients around the same time? a) Cluster booking b) Stream scheduling c) Wave scheduling d) Open appointment scheduling - (Answer:) Cluster booking (Reason:) Cluster schedules groups the same patients with similar problems or needs. Which temperature site would give the highest normal values? a) Rectal b) Tympanic c) Oral d) Armpit - (Answer:) Rectal (Reason:) A reading of 98.6*F orally is considered normal. Rectal readings are higher because of vascularity and tightly closed environment of the rectum. Which of the following describes the patient's chief complaint? a) The main reason the patient is seeking care that day b) The most significant finding on the patient's exam c) The highest level diagnosis coded assigned to the patient d) The issue that takes the longest for the physician to resolve - (Answer:) The main reason the patient is seeking care that day (Reason:) (Reason:) Subjective data is obtained from a conversation with the patient. Which procedure that requires patient intervention should be documented for patient reference? a) Clinical procedure b) Structural procedure c) Administrative procedure d) Inter- office procedure - (Answer:) Clinical procedure (Reason:) Clinical procedures must be documented for both insurance and medicolegal reasons. The immune system protects the body from which of the following? a) Low blood sugar b) Disease and infection c) Falling and loss of balance d) Stunted growth and loss of fluid - (Answer:) Disease and infection (Reason:) The immune system is responsible for protecting your body against bacteria, viruses, fungi, etc. A procedure for filing insurance claims would be found under which policies section of the procedure manual? a) Clinical b) Structural c) Administrative d) Emergency - (Answer:) Administrative (Reason:) Filing insurance claims is an administrative task and would fall under the administrative policies section of the procedural manual. What is the proper sequence for CPR? a) Circulation, airway, breathing b) Airway, breathing, circulation c) Circulation, breathing, airway d) Airway, circulation, breathing - (Answer:) Circulation, airway, breathing (Reason:) An initial survey of the patient is the first step in emergency care. Responsiveness, circulation, airway and breathing are the recommended order. The immune system protects the body from which of the following? a) Low blood sugar b) Disease and infection c) Falling and loss of balance d) Stunted growth and loss of fluid - (Answer:) Disease and infection (Reason:) The immune system is responsible for protecting your body against bacteria, viruses, fungi, etc. What is the general term for a surgical suture? a) Staple b) Ligature c) Needle biopsy d) Gauge - (Answer:) Ligature (Reason:) Sutures are surgical stitches used to close a wound. Suture materials or ligature can either be absorbable or non-absorbable. Which of the following instruments is used to drain an abscess? a) Tissue forceps b) Tenaculum c) Curette d) Scalpel - (Answer:) Scalpel (Reason:) Scalpels with straight or pointed blades are used for incisions and drainage. In which Stage of Infection is known as the time where the pathogen has had time to grow and establish itself in the body? a) Prodromal b) Acute c) Incubation d) Convalescent - (Answer:) Incubation (Reason:) In the Stages of Infection, the incubation stage is where the pathogen has had time to grow an establish itself in the body. Which of the following is one of the six C's of charting? a) Clerical b) Client's words c) Consult d) Counsel - (Answer:) Client's words (Reason:) Apnea is the temporary complete absence of breathing which may be result of a reduction in the stimuli to the respiratory centers of the brain. What is accounts receivable? a) A record of all monies due to the practice b) The people the practice owes money to c) Materials that need to be paid for d) Accounts in good standing at the bank - (Answer:) A record of all monies due to the practice (Reason:) Accounts receivable is money owed to the practice. Upon receiving cash in the doctor's office, what is the best way you should get it to the bank? a) Send it by mail return receipt b) Take it to the bank in person c) Drop it off in a drop box d) Do not accept cash payment - (Answer:) Take it to the bank in person (Reason:) Cash deposits should always be hand delivered and a receipt should be obtained. What type of medication constricts blood vessels? a) Synergists b) Vasoconstrictors c) Diuretics d) Analgesics - (Answers:) Vasoconstrictors (Reason:) Vasoconstrictors constrict blood vessels and may increase blood pressure. Which of the following statements is true about working in a sterile field? a) Sterile packages should be opened to check the contents b) Your back must be kept to the sterile field at all times c) All sterile items should be held above waist level d) Cover your mouth when sneezing near the sterile field - (Answer:) All sterile items should be held above waist level (Reason:) Hold all sterile items above waist level. When sterile items are not in your field of vision, presume they have been contaminated. Why is a preservative added to specimen containers that are to be sent to a pathologist? a) Help the specimen to be seen at night b) Prevent cross contamination c) Delay decomposition d) Prevent growth and inhibit false test results - (Answer:) Delay decomposition (Reason:) The medical assistant must choose the proper container with the appropriate preservative (substance that delays composition) when sending specimens. Which of the following items should be added to the label on a specimen container? a) The name of the lab b) The patient's diagnosis c) The date d) The patient's address - (Answer:) The date (Reason:) Date, type of specimen, type of examination, physician name, lab contract number, age, sex, etc. all can be included on the specimen label. What should a medical assistant do before removing a patient's sutures? a) Apply a local anesthetic to numb the area b) Place an ice pack on the patient's forearm c) Advise the patient that he/she should feel a pulling sensation but not pain d) Advise the patient that this will hurt - (Answer:) Advise the patient that he/she should feel a pulling sensation but not pain (Reason:) Patient's should understand that they might feel a pulling sensation during suture removal but should not feel pain. What is the best way to prepare a patient for surgery? a) Remind the patient of procedures by calling a few days before the surgery b) Tell the patient all the instructions upon their arrival c) Call the patient an discuss over the phone d) Send the patient home with written instructions on what to do - (Answer:) Send the patient home with written instructions on what to do (Reason:) It is always a good practice to give specific written instructions to the patient for any preparations to be made before the surgery. When administering a drug you are not familiar with, what information should a medical assistant look up on? a) Drug contraindications b) Generic brand names c) The route or administration d) Possible storage alternatives - (Answer:) The route or administration (Reason:) As a medical assistant, you must look up any drugs you are not familiar with to determine drug classification, the dosage and routes of administration. a) Make the lab work easier b) Give advice on medication c) Obtain orders on laboratory tests d) Answer questions and provide special handling for specimens from their patients - (Answer:) Answer questions and provide special handling for specimens from their patients (Reason:) Rationale- Medical assistants may work as specimen processors and answer questions and provide special handling for specimens. A Pap test specimen would be sent to which department for analysis? a) Histology b) Cytology c) Microbiology d) Immunology - (Answer:) Cytology (Reasons:) Rationale- High complexity tests such as Pap Tests are sent to Cytology What type of consent is given by a patient after all potential treatment risks have been discussed? a) Informed consent b) Implied consent c) Notated consent d) Patient consent - (Answer:) Informed consent (Reason:) Informed consent is when the patient clearly understands what is to be done. What has HIPAA enabled patients to do? a) Have more control over their medical records b) Prescribe their own medications c) Allow their pharmacist to give emergency medical advice d) Allow their primary doctor to have complete control. - (Answer:) Have more control over their medical records (Reasons:) HIPAA has allowed patients to have more control over their medical records- patients can make better educated choices. What type of insurance coverage is provided for employees who re injured while working? a) Medicaid b) CHAMPVA c) Worker's compensation d) TRICARE - (Answer:) Worker's compensation (Reason:) Worker's compensation provides coverage for employees for job-related illnesses or injuries. What do you call the family members covered by an insurance plan? a) Subscribers b) Policy holders c) Beneficiaries d) Dependents - (Answer:) Dependents (Reason:) Dependents are family members covered by an insurance plan. How is a consultation different from a referral? a) A consultation is needed when the patient moves to another city b) A consultation is needed when the physician asks for the opinion of another provider c) A consultation is needed only in terms of mental health d) A consultation is needed before the physician can submit a claim for services rendered - (Answer:) A consultation is needed when the physician asks for the opinion of another provider (Reason:) A consultation is when a provider requests assistance from another physician and a referral is when the patient is sent to another facility for testing. A routine hand wash procedure uses plain soap to remove transient bacteria. Hand antisepsis requires the use of which of the following? a) Gel-based creams after the routine hand wash b) Scrub brushes c) Antimicrobial soap d) Medicated towels for drying clean hands - (Answer:) Antimicrobial soap (Reason:) Antimicrobial soap is used in hand antisepsis. Which of the following is a fever that comes and goes or, fluctuates and returns into the average range? a) Continuous b) Intermittent c) Remittent d) Crisis - (Answer:) Intermittent How is a patient's general medical history preferably obtained? a) Before admission to the hospital b) Over the telephone before the initial appointment Networking allows people in the same office and in different offices to work on different tasks at the same time. When a hard copy of a computer file is needed, you must perform which one of following actions? a) Scan the information b) Reformat the information c) Print the information d) Fax the information - (Answer:) Print the information (Reason:) If you need a hard copy of a computer file or of information accessed through the computer, you must print it by clicking the printer icon on the computer monitor screen. You may perform a quick print of the material needed and also print more than 1 copy as needed. After a one year absence, a patient returns to your office for a physical examination. Which of the following information about the patient should the medical assistant re- verify? a) Home address b) Place of employment c) Home telephone number d) All of these answers - (Answer:) All of these answers (Reason:) Each time a patient comes in for an appointment, all billing information should be reviewed with the patient. What is the best reason for the clinical medical assistant to check examination room supplies throughout the day? a) Maintenance of office b) Prevention of staff inconvenience c) Minimizing any interruption in patient flow d) Cost effectiveness - (Answer:) Minimizing any interruption in patient flow (Reason:) Patients are the primary consideration in medical office performance. They are the generator of office income. As in any business that works with the public, "The customer comes 1st." You must personally escort which type of patient to the examination room? a) Established b) Inexperienced c) Regular patients d) All of these answers - (Answer:) All of these answers (Reasons:) Medical practices have complicated floor plans that accommodate many specialized rooms. Escorting patients prevents them from walking into another patient's examination room, a physician's office, or another private area not intended for patients. When scheduling an appointment for a new patient, which following is the most important information to consider? a) Employer b) Social Security number c) Address of referring physician d) Chief complaint - (Answer:) Chief complaint (Reason:) You should always consider the patient's chief complaint 1st so you know how to proceed with the scheduling of that patient (e.g., should they be seen STAT, tomorrow, next week?). This is called triaging. Triage the patient 1st, and then get the necessary demographics. How should you schedule appointments for the patient who habitually arrives up to an hour late for scheduled appointed times? a) At the beginning of the afternoon appointments b) Mid-afternoon on Fridays c) At the beginning of the day d) At the end of the day - (Answer:) At the end of the day (Reason:) By scheduling the patient for the end of the day, there will be less disruption for the staff and to the day's schedule. The medical assistant should do which of the following when a patient does not show up for an appointment? a) The medical assistant should submit a claim for the missed appointment to the insurance company. b) Document the failed appointment in the patient's chart c) Charge a cancellation fee only d) Charge the full fee due for the booked appointment - (Answer:) Document the failed appointment in the patient's chart (Reason:) The missed appointment should be documented to protect the practice in case of any future lawsuit. When does double booking occur? a) Booking 1 patient for 2 physicians at the same time b) Booking 2 patients for 2 physicians at the same time c) Booking 2 patients for 1 physicians at the same time d) Booking 1 patient for 2 procedures - (Answer:) Booking 2 patients for 1 physicians at the same time (Reason:) Booking 2 patients for 1 physician at the same time is the correct definition. It is possible that 1 of those patients may be seeing the physician's nurse for an injection (e.g., allergy or flu shot) or the medical assistant for a dressing change, application or removal of a cardiac Holter monitor, and so forth. The office appointment book does NOT need to provide space for recording which piece of patient information? a) Patient's address b) Patient's reason for visit c) Patient's name d) Patient's daytime telephone number - (Answer:) Patient's address (Reason:) All other given information is necessary to prepare for the patient's office visit properly. The chief complaint, patient's name, length of time required, and a telephone number to reach the patient make up all the needed information to prepare for an appointment properly. What are the three common types of medical records? a) Emergency, office, hospital b) New, established, destroyed c) Active, inactive, closed d) Active, inactive, dead - (Answer:) Active, inactive, closed (Reason:) Active medical records are those of patients currently receiving health care. Medical records are kept inactive (patients have not been seen for care in more than 6 months) for several years before they are considered closed, dead, or destroyed. Medical office patient records are most likely filed using which of the following systems? a) Alphabetic b) Account number c) Numeric d) Subjective - (Answer:) Alphabetic (Reason:) The alphabetic system is the oldest and simplest system used in most offices and is called the direct filling system. A patient in the military has been stationed overseas for 3 years. The patient is now stateside and has called to schedule an appointment. Where in your files would you most likely find the record? a) Dead files b) Closed files c) Active files d) Inactive files - (Answer:) Inactive files (Reason:) Medical records a usually kept active from 6 months to 1 year, depending upon the specialty. Depending upon state requirements, medical records are kept inactive for several years before they are considered closed, dead, or destroyed. Which of the following filling systems provided the greatest amount of confidentiality? a) Category b) Numeric c) Condition d) Alphabetic - (Answer:) Numeric (Reason:) The numeric system is an indirect filling system that requires use of an alphabetic cross- reference in order to locate a chart; therefore, the system provides the greatest patient confidentiality. Of the following, which is considered subjective information within the medical record? a) Diagnosis b) Examination review c) Family history d) Treatment - (Answer:) Family history (Reason:) Subjective information is the information that a caregiver would not know from observation or a test result; the patient shares this information by communicating it to the caregiver. A new patient arrives for his or her appointment and provides date of birth, home address and phone number, place of employment, and health insurance carrier. Which of the following is this information referred to as? a) Hard copy b) Subjective c) Demographic d) Default - (Answer:) Demographic (Reason:) This is the information needed to contact patients, bill patients, and submit their charges to their health insurance provider. It does not include chief complaints, health histories, diagnoses, or procedures performed. Which of the following is probably the best practical method of filling warranties, tax information, medical reports, office insurance premium payments, and medical pamphlets.? a) Alphabetic filing b) Chronologic filing c) Tickler file d) Subjective filing - (Answer:) Subjective filing (Reason:) Subjective filing is for the office's general correspondence, and careful consideration needs to be made when indexing. Within a patient's medical record, in which way should the various reports and examination records be filed? a) Chronologically, with the latest data on top of the information within Because the specimen will be used for bacterial culture testing, it is essential that cleansing of urinary meatus and surrounding tissue be done and that the specimen be collected at midstream. If the color of a urine specimen is noted to be dark yellow, the possible cause may be which of the following? a) Drinking excessive amounts of water b) Dehydration c) Old disintegrated blood clots d) Kidney trauma - (Answer:) Dehydration (Reason:) If a person is dehydrated, the urine will be more concentrated and therefore deeper in color. This color may also be an indicator of a liver problem. Of the following list, which urine specimen would contain the highest solute concentration? a) First morning b) Random c) Fasting d) Clean-catch midstream - (Answer:) First morning (Reason:) Because this is collected after a night's sleep, the urine will have higher concentrations of substances that collected over time and therefore the highest specific gravity. What is the approximate normal range for the specific gravity of urine? a) 1.000 to 1.015 b) 1.003 to 1.040 c) 1.005 to 1.030 d) 1.020 to 1.030 - (Answer:) 1.005 to 1.030 (Reason:) Specific gravity testing is measuring the weight of a urine specimen by comparing its weight with an equal volume of distilled water. The specific gravity of distilled water is 1.000. The 1st morning specimen will show a higher specific gravity. Below normal results would indicate the failure of the kidney's ability to concentrate the urine. Above normal results could indicate CHF, adrenal insufficiency, liver disease, dehydration, or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Usually, freshly voided normal urine from well patients is acidic, with a pH of which of the following values? a) 3.5 b) 6.0 c) 7.0 d) 8.0 - (Answer:) 6.0 (Reason:) Normal pH range is from 4.5 to 8.0. Acidic would be 4.5 to 7.0. What is the average quantity of urine produced by an adult over a 24-hour period? a) 750 mL b) 1,000 mL c) 1,250 mL d) 2,000 mL - (Answer:) 1,250 mL (Reason:) 1.25 liters per day; it is 95% water and 5% waste products Which of the following sites is most commonly used in venipuncture to withdraw blood? a) Median cubital vein b) Femoral vein c) Median radial vein d) Basilica vein - (Answer:) Median cubital vein (Reason:) The median cubital vein normally has a larger diameter lumen, is closer to the skin's surface, and is less likely to collapse. The patient should be comfortably seated with the arm extended in a downward position, no bed at the elbow. The unused fist from the other arm can support the extended arm by being placed behind its elbow. What is the normal value range for a hematocrit reading for females? a) 20% to 35% b) 32% to 41% c) 37% to 47% d) 42% to 52% - (Answer:) 37% to 47% (Reason:) The normal hematocrit reading for women is 37% to 47%; for men, it is 40% to 52%. This test measures the percentage of packed RBCs in the blood sample. The hematocrit is an informative test that assists in the diagnosing process. The test separates the blood components from the liquid portion (plasma) through centrifuging whole blood that has been collected in specimen capillary tubes containing an anticoagulant. Which blood type is considered the universal recipient? a) O positive b) O negative c) AB positive d) AB negative - (Answer:) AB positive (Reason:) This blood type has both A and B antigens and has Rh antibodies. This means the type can donate only to other AB+ blood types, but it can receive blood from all other blood types. EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is present in which color- topped vacuum tube? d) Red - (Answer:) Red (Reason:) There is no anticoagulant additive within a red-topped tube. Blood collected in this tube is used to test blood chemistry and immunology and to perform blood banking. Which of the following on an ECG reflects ventricular heart depolarization? a) T wave b) U wave c) P-R interval d) QRS wave - (Answer:) QRS wave (Reason:) Depolarization is the contraction of the heart chambers. During the QRS wave, the ventricles depolarize, and the atria are repolarized in order to receive blood from the pulmonary vein and the inferior as well as the superior vena cava. What is the universal standard speed for recording an ECG? a) 20 mm/second b) 25 mm/second c) 30 mm/second d) 35 mm/second - (Answer:) 25 mm/second (Reason:) 25 mm/second is the "normal" rate of speed that ECG paper moves while passing the heated stylus to record the cardiac cycles of the patient. What is the purpose of performing a specific gravity on a urine sample? a) It determines whether the patient's diet is high in fat. b) It measures its density when compared with distilled water. c) It screens for glomerulonephritis. d) It detects the presence of nitrate in the urine. - (Answer:) It measures its density when compared with distilled water. (Reason:) A specific gravity would have an especially high reading because of the WBC concentration see in glomerulonephritis. All of the following demonstrate quality control. What is the exception? a) Proper documentation b) Testing with control samples c) Calibrating equipment d) Treating every customer properly - (Answer:) Treating every customer properly (Reason:) The purpose of quality control is to ensure that all service performed, equipment used, and products used are of adequate quality to give accurate test results. What is the pacemaker of the heart? a) (SA) sinoatrial node b) (LB) left bundle branch c) (BH) bundle of His d) (AV) atrioventricular node - (Answer:) (SA) sinoatrial node (Reason:) The SA node specializes in electrical impulse creation and sets the rhythm of the heart's contractions. Which of the following commonly used disinfectants is used in the medical field and found to be effective against blood-borne pathogens? a) Radiation b) Bleach c) Dry heat d) Ethylene oxide - (Answer:) Bleach (Reason:) When mixed with water, bleach disinfectant should be 1 part bleach to 10 parts water. Which of the following is the most appropriate method for disposing of contaminated needles? a) Insert in the biohazard container located in the office laboratory. b) Place in a biohazard container without recapping. c) Place it in a biohazard sharps container located in the room where used. d) Disengage the needle from the syringe, and then dispose of it in the biohazard sharps container. - (Answer:) Place it in a biohazard sharps container located in the room where used. (Reason:) The sharps container must be puncture-proof, leak-resistant, and rigid. There should be 1 container located in each examination room and the office laboratory to avoid transporting sharps. What is the most important step in achieving medical asepsis? a) Washing hands b) Using surgical soap to scrub hands c) Cleaning patient examination rooms with disinfectant d) Placing soiled linens in an appropriate bag as soon as possible - (Answer:) Washing hands (Reason:) Transmission by touching is the most common means of transmitting pathogens. Which of the following solutions will help prevent the transmission of hepatitis? a) Fluconazole b) Household bleach c) Hydrogen peroxide Void a specimen midstream in a sterile cup. (Reason:) Compared with the other selections, a midstream collection in a sterile cup will have the smallest concentration of bacteria in the urine specimen. A urine specimen was collected and then left standing for more than 1 hour. Bacteria grew, and the pH of the urine became which of the following? a) Highly acidic b) Slightly acidic c) Alkaline d) Neutral - (Answer:) Alkaline (Reason:) Because of the growth of bacteria, the urea in urine will be converted to ammonia, and the specimen will also become cloudy in appearance. If the specimen was positive for glucose, the glucose level will decrease because the growing bacteria feeds upon it. Finally, organized components will be affected. What is the pH range for normal urine? a) 0 to 9.0 b) 2.5 to 4.5 c) 2.5 to 7.0 d) 4.5 to 8.0 - (Answer:) 4.5 to 8.0 (Reason:) The pH indicates the acidity or alkalinity of the urine specimen. A pH reading 7.0 is neutral. The higher the number is above 7.0, the greater the alkalinity. The lower the number is below 7.0, the greater the acidity. Normal urine is usually a little acidic (6.0). If a patient normally drinks ten or more 8-oz glasses of water each day, urine would most likely be which color? a) Brown b) Red c) Dark yellow d) Straw - (Answer:) Straw (Reason:) The more water that is ingested, the more diluted a urine specimen becomes, and its color will range from yellow to colorless. Urine needs to be collected in which type of container if it is collected for bacterial culture? a) Freshly disinfected b) Sterile c) Washed and dried d) Glass - (Answer:) Sterile (Reason:) A sterile container ensures that the sample specimen will contain only the bacteria from the specimen itself. A routine analysis of urine is made up of which of the following sets of examinations? a) Visual, culture, reagent b) Microscopic, chemical, physical c) Microscopic, reagent, chemical d) Microscopic, analytic, chemical - (Answer:) Microscopic, chemical, physical (Reason:) The physical examination includes color, clarity, odor, and specific gravity (by reagent strip or refractometer). The chemical examination is done using reagent strips for pH, glucose, protein, ketones, bilirubin, urobilinogen, blood, nitrate, and leukocytes. The microscopic examination looks for RBCs, WBCS, epithelial cells, casts, crystals, mucous threads, and possibly bacteria and/ or spermatozoa. To prevent a urine specimen from becoming an unreliable pH sample, the specimen should be handled in which manner? a) Always refrigerated immediately upon collection b) Exposed to air for slightly more than 1 hour c) Tested within 1 hour of collection d) Allowed time for the urea to convert to ammonia in order to decrease the pH - (Answer:) Tested within 1 hour of collection (Reason:) If the required testing can be performed within the 1st hour after collection, the pH of the sample will be valid. Refrigeration will be necessary only if the sample cannot be tested within the 1st hour of collection. If the sample is kept at room temperature for more than 1 hour, chemical and microscopic changes in the urine will occur, thereby invalidating certain test results. Which color on a vacuum tube top indicates that the blood specimen will be used for cultures? a) Red b) Blue c) Light blue d) Yellow - (Answer:) Yellow (Reason:) Yellow-topped vacuum tubes contain sodium polyanetholsulfonate (an anticoagulant) to perform plasma cultures. The "order of draw" calls for this vacuum tube to be drawn 1st because there will be no contamination of the specimen if multiple-tube blood testing is require. When placing a urine specimen tube into the centrifuge for later creating a wet mount, where should you place an identical tube containing water in that same centrifuge? a) A second tube is not required b) Right beside the tube containing the specimen c) At a 90* angle from the urine specimen tube d) Directly opposite the tube containing the urine specimen - (Answer:) b) If the first drop is discarded c) If the finger is squeezed excessively d) If the sides of the finger are gently rubbed - (Answer:) If the finger is squeezed excessively (Reason:) A capillary puncture releases a small amount of blood. Once the puncture site has been decided upon, gently "milk" the patient's finger toward the tip. keep the patient's hand lower than heart level. Puncture the patient's skin, and use steady pressure if the blood droplet is forming slowly. Avoid "milking" (excessive squeezing) of the patient's finger because it will cause hemolysis. Where is the most common micro-puncture site on an adult? a) Outer heel b) Ring finger c) Ear lobe d) Little finger - (Answer:) Ring finger (Reason:) The ring finger is the least likely to be callused on the distal portion. In addition, the medical assistant should be perform this procedure on the patient's non-dominant hand. To transport oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from the body's cell, what do erythrocytes need? a) Bilirubin b) Nitrates c) Hematocrit d) Hemoglobin - (Answer:) Hemoglobin (Reason:) Oxygen and carbon dioxide molecules readily attach to hemoglobin, which is a protein found in erythrocytes. Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform a hemoglobin? a) To aid in determining blood loss b) To detect anemia c) To monitor dehydration d) To detect inflammation - (Answer:) To detect inflammation (Reason:) An ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is performed to detect inflammation in the body. After you have washed your hands, put on PPE, and assembled the equipment and supplies, what is your next step in obtaining a capillary blood sample? a) Perform the capillary puncture. b) Cleanse the puncture site with an alcohol wipe. c) Identify the patient. d) Ask the patient whether they are left handed or right handed. - (Answer:) Identify the patient (Reason:) You must identify the patient to be sure you are about to perform the laboratory test on the correct patient, and then identify yourself and explain the procedure you are about to perform. What can you do to lower the risk of bruising after venipuncture? a) Apply a heating pad to the puncture site and have the patient bend his or her arm to keep it in place. b) Apply pressure to the puncture site. c) Keep the tourniquet in place for one full minute the procedure. d) Wipe the puncture site with a alcohol wipe. - (Answer:) Apply pressure to the puncture site. (Reason:) The goal of applying pressure to the puncture site is to assist the blood to form a clot, thus stopping any further bleeding at the site. While performing a venipuncture, you notice that a hematoma is forming. Which of the following should you NOT do? a) Remove the tourniquet b) Complete the collection of the specimen c) Remove the vacuum tube and needle d) Apply pressure to the site - (Answer:) Complete the collection of the specimen (Reason:) You need to discontinue the procedure immediately by: 1st, removing the tourniquet; 2nd, removing the vacuum tube and needle; 3rd, applying pressure to the site for 2 to 3 minutes; and 4th, applying an ice pack to the site. After notifying the physician and writing an incident report for the patient's chart, you may be able to look for a different venipuncture site. Which needle gauge will result in less blood cell damage during venipuncture collection? a) 16-gauge b) 18-gauge c) 20-gauge d) 21-gauge - (Answer:) 16-gauge (Reason:) A lower number means a larger needle lumen; this ensures less cell damage. The Red Cross prefers a 16-gauge for their blood donation drives. Vacuum tubes used in venipuncture have different color tops in order to differentiate which of the following? a) Tube quantity levels b) Tubes sizes c) Preferred collection methods c) Practical actions to taken d) Guidelines for occupational professionalism - (Answer:) Principles of right and wrong (Reason:) Ethics is a branch of philosophy that relates to morals, judgements, and principles that govern the behaviors in our daily lives. Initiating and responding in a calm professional manner when communicating with others is know as which of the following? a) Diplomacy b) Diversity c) Flexibility d) Empathy - (Answer:) Diplomacy (Reason:) Exercising diplomacy by using tact and speaking respectfully to others is essential to positive communication and professionalism. Which of the following examples of disposed venipuncture equipment and supplies is INCORRECT? a) Placing used gauze and cotton balls in a biohazard container b) Placing the plastic venipuncture needle cover in a biohazard container c) Placing the used needle and holder together into a puncture-proof container d) Placing used alcohol wipe in wastebasket - (Answer:) Placing the plastic venipuncture needle cover in a biohazard container (Reason:) The plastic venipuncture needle cover should be placed in a regular wastebasket because it is not contaminated, nor will it be used to recap the used needle. Which color-topped vacuum tube is used to collect specimens for tests requiring serum? a) Light blue b) Gray c) Red d) Green - (Answer:) Red (Reason:) The red-topped tube contains no additive. This allows the blood to clot, which separates blood components from the blood's serum. Serum is used for blood chemistry and for viral and serologic testing. Blood grouping and typing are also performed with serum. What is the usual size of the needle being used when performing a venipuncture? a) 1/2 inch 23 gauge b) 1/2 inch 27 gauge c) 1 inch 24 gauge d) 1 1/2 inch 21 gauge - (Answer:) 1 1/2 inch 21 gauge (Reason:) Gauge refers to lumen size; the higher the number is, the smaller the lumen. Normally, a 20- or 21- gauge needle is used for adults, and a 1- or 1 1/2 needle length is used. A 23- gauge needle is used for individuals with fragile or small veins. The American Red Cross uses a gauge needle because a large lumen greatly reduces the risk of damaging blood components. What is the purpose of the plastic collection tube holder? a) Prevent blood leakage before needle withdrawal b) Prevent blood specimen contamination c) Aid insertion and withdrawal of blood vacuum tubes d) Protect against accidental needle punctures - (Answer:) Aid insertion and withdrawal of blood vacuum tubes (Reason:) The threaded part of the needle is screwed clockwise into the adapter. The adapter has a widened lip (flange) area on 2 sides. The index and middle fingers are placed on the underside of the flange. Pulling back on the flange while pushing the vacuum tube into the back of the needle will keep the needle stabilized while it is in the vein. Pushing on the flange while pulling the vacuum tube out will also keep the needle stabilized while it is in the vein. What is the term for the relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle? a) Systole b) Repolarization c) Polarization d) Bradychardia - (Answer:) Repolarization (Reason:) Repolarization is relaxation. It is when polarity restored. The upper chambers (atria) of the heart relax and are able to fill with blood, whereas the lower chambers (ventricles) contract (depolarize). The ventricles relax during the T wave so they are able to receive blood from the atria. Which color-topped evacuation tube is most commonly associated with hematology testing? a) Green b) Red c) Lavender d) Light blue - (Answer:) Lavender (Reason:) Lavender-topped tubes contain the anticoagulant EDTA and are used for blood cells counts morphologic studies, WBC differentials, hemoglobins, hematocrits, ESRs, and creatine kinase. One complete heartbeat, known as a full cardiac cycle, lasts approximately how long? a) 0.28 seconds b) 0.6 seconds c) 0.8 seconds d) 1.8 seconds - (Answer:) d) Concise - (Answer:) Consistent (Reason:) The 5th component is "courteous." Without being courteous (respectful) to the individual, the message will not be well received and the result will be loss of a positive interchange between parties. The physician-patient relationship is considered which type of legal relationship? a) An alliance b) A partnership c) A professional association d) A contract - (Answer:) A contract (Reason:) It is a legal relationship between the physician and patient and is recognized as a contract by courts of law. Which envelope address is typed according to the U.S. Postal Service preferred format? a) Tolland, Connecticut 06084 b) TOLLAND, CONNECTICUT 06084 c) TOLL. Ct 06084 d) TOLLAND CT 06084 - (Answer:) TOLLAND CT 06084 (Reason:) The address uses all capital letters, no punctuation, and the state abbreviation approved by the U.S. Postal Service. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) The physician-patient relationship is legally recognized when the patient arrives at the office for treatment. b) Consent is a mutual agreement between legally capable parties when an offer is made and accepted. c) Expressed contracts are between 2 parties and may be verbal or written. d) Implied contracts are the result of a provider treating a patient. - (Answer:) The physician-patient relationship is legally recognized when the patient arrives at the office for treatment. (Reason:) The relationship is legally recognized when the patient arrives for treatment and also received that treatment from the physician. It is a mutual agreement between the parties. According to the law, which statement is FALSE regarding financial responsibilities for patients? a) A husband may be held responsible for his wife's treatment charges. b) A wife is not always responsible for her husband's treatment charges. c) A father is responsible for his minor children's debts. d) If a mother refuses to pay for her treatments, her adult son is responsible for payment. - (Answer:) If a mother refuses to pay for her treatments, her adult son is responsible for payment. (Reason:) Adult children are not responsible for the debts of their parents. Responsibility for the actions of a medical assistant falls first to whom? a) Medical assistant, if nationally certified as an RMA or a CMA b) Medical assistant's clinical or administrative supervisor c) Employer/physician d) Medical office manager - (Answer:) Employer/physician (Reason:) The employer/physician is held legally responsible for all actions (verbal or otherwise). The medical assistant performs all duties as directed by the employer/physician; therefore, the employer/physician is responsible. What is the legal term for the confidential information exchanged in a physician and patient relationship? a) Classified b) Professional c) Res ipsa loquitur d) Privileged - (Answer:) Privileged (Reason:) Privileged information protects the patient's right to confidentially. This information may be released only with the patient's written permission or if subpoenaed by a court of law and/or obeying lawful reporting. Any breach by medical office staff of patient confidentiality may result in which of the following charges? a) Malfeasance b) Assault c) Malpractice d) Negligence - (Answer:) Negligence (Reason:) Negligence is failure to meet the standard of reasonable care. Physicians and other health-care professionals owe a duty of care to patients, but it is also their ethical and legal duty to safeguard a patient's privacy and maintain confidentiality. Breach of confidentiality in many states is a ground for medical license suspensions or revocation as well as punishment by fine and imprisonment or both. Protection from these charges is in place if the physician has obtained the patient's written permission or if subpoenaed by a court of law and/or obeying lawful reporting. What is the legal term for committing an improper act that is legally unjustified and possibly harmful to another? a) Nonfeasance b) Negligence c) Res ipsa loquitur d) Malfeasance - (Answer:) Which of the following responses is NOT a true statement about ethics? a) Ethics comprises are principles of right and wrong conduct. b) Ethics comprises self-imposed standards of conduct. c) Ethics comprises formal actions of a legislative body. d) Ethics relates to morals and moral judgements. - (Answer:) Ethics comprises formal actions of a legislative body. (Reason:) Ethics is the science of our moral behavior and serve as guidelines, not laws, for that behavior. Ethical standards often become mandated laws. A medical office's policy regarding the length of time retaining patient files should be bases on which of the following laws? a) Patient Self-Determination Act b) Statute of limitations c) Fair Credit Billing Act d) Medical Practice Act - (Answer:) Statute of limitations (Reason:) Each state has a statute of limitations in place that dictates the length of time in which medical records may be recalled for court purposes. Also, medical records are retained until the patient reaches the age of maturity. Because state laws dictate varying lengths of time medical records must be retained, most offices retain all records indefinitely. What is the principal purpose of a living will? a) Give family members permission to make medical care decisions for the patient b) Let caregivers know the patient's want with regard of lifesaving measures c) Give a physician authority to make life-sustaining measures for a patient d) Keep a patient alive by whatever measures are necessary - (Answer:) Let caregivers know the patient's wants with regard to lifesaving measures (Reason:) This gives patients the legal right to forego life-sustaining treatments such as hydration and nutrition. It allows patient to make decisions about their dying. To comply with HIPAA, a medical office must always furnish what information to a new patient to be seen for treatment? a) A copy of each staff member's malpractice insurance policy b) Certifications and licensure documents of medical staff c) Office policy manual d) The provision of privacy practices document - (Answer:) The provision of privacy practices document (Reason:) The privacy practices document alerts the patient to his or her own rights under HIPPA law. Permission must be granted in order to use or disclose the patient's health information by the medical office. A patient is generally asked to sign or acknowledge receipt of the privacy notice from direct treatment providers. Verbally divulging information about a patient to someone not directly involved in the patient's care is an example of which improper conduct? a) Libel b) Misfeasance c) Defamation d) Invasion of privacy - (Answer:) Invasion of privacy (Reason:) A cardinal rule of the medical profession is patient confidentiality. It is considered unethical and unacceptable to breach confidentiality. Which of the following reasons led to the creation of the state' Medical Practice Acts? a) The need to determine the methods and requirements of physician licensure b) The need to protect all health-care professionals reporting both STDs and child/elderly abuse c) The need to regulate serious issues of drug use and abuse d) The need to ensure medical facility access to all people - (Answer:) The need to determine the methods and requirements of physician licensure (Reason:) There are Medical Practice Acts established in all 50 states to regulate the way that medicine is practiced and the licensing requirements of those wishing to practice medicine. The occurrence of malpractice lawsuits is directly related to which factor? a) The yearly income of the patient b) The level of the patient's education c) The socioeconomic status of the patient d) The level of trust in the physician- patient relationship - (Answer:) The level of trust in the physician-patient relationship (Reason:) A malpractice claim often stems from a breach of trust or some miscommunication between the patient and the physician. Which of the following concepts refers to the principles of conduct that are required by legislative enactments? a) Morals b) Professionalism c) Laws d) Ethics - (Answer:) Laws (Reason:) Laws are formally recognized and enforceable mandates governing our conduct as citizens. When a patient formally gives a loved one durable power of attorney for health-care matters, at what point does this legal document become active? a) When the patient signed the document b) When the patient's physician is notified of the document's existence To foster positive communication, it is important to acknowledge the patient's statements and observe his or her body language. In responding you must exercise empathy and refrain from giving advice or nonfactual information. What form of medical practice may have personal property attached in case of business failure and earns all of the profit when the business succeeds? a) Profit sharing corporation b) Partnership with limits c) Sole proprietorship d) Specialty group - (Answer:) Sole proprietorship (Reason:) One individual, the sole proprietor, owns the practice and therefore suffers all the losses and keeps all the profits. What is libel? a) Action intended to deceive another person b) Verbal statements made about another person that are malicious and/or false c) Ruining someone's good reputation by spreading verbal rumors d) Statements written or pictures about another person that are intended to be cruel and damaging to a person's reputation - (Answer:) Statements written or pictures about another person that are intended to be cruel and damaging to a person's reputation (Reason:) Libel is a deliberate action using printed words, pictures, or any form other than by spoken words or gestures to damage the reputation of someone. A breach of confidentiality is considered unethical and illegal and is prohibited by which of the following? a) OSHA b) Civil Rights Act c) Standard of care d) HIPAA - (Answer:) HIPAA (Reason:) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) provides national guidelines for health-care privacy protection. Health-care employees must be trained in HIPAA law, the policies and procedures of the health-care facility. What does civil law include? a) Torts b) Implied contracts c) Medical malpractice d) All of these answers - (Answer:) All of these answers (Reason:) Civil law is known as "noncriminal law." It governs controversies and decided cases between individuals regarding contracts, property, and family law. The privacy rule is in place to protect which of the following? a) All medical billing b) Specialists in the field of medical law c) The considerations of cultural beliefs d) Electronic transfer of information - (Answer:) Electronic transfer of information (Reason:) The privacy rule protects all PHI (protected health information). This includes information transferred, information held, and any electronic transfer of information by a covered entity. How would a medical provider can avoid patient abandonment? a) Giving verbal notice of withdrawal from an established patient b) Declaring the patient to be indigent c) Mailing the patient a copy of the borrowed servant doctrine d) Giving formal notice of withdrawal from the established patient - (Answer:) Giving formal notice of withdrawal from the established patient (Reason:) Abandonment is the ceasing to care for or ceasing to attend to a patient when the patient needs care. A medical provider may be charged with abandonment by a patient if the provider withdraws from their contractual relationship without 1st notifying the patient while the patient still needs treatment. You are employed at an OB/GYN practice. The physician has confirmed a suspected pregnancy of one your husband's family relatives. The relative nervously lets you know that no one else knows about this office visit. What is the most appropriate response? a) "If someone asks I'll only tell them you had an office appointment." b) "Be assured in knowing that I don't discuss or share any patient information outside of the office." c) "Trust me, I'll only tell you husband." d) "This is such happy news. it should be shared." - (Answer:) "Be assured in knowing that I don't discuss or share any patient information outside of the office." (Reason:) A professional medical assistant maintains patient confidentiality at all times. It is up to the family relative to share her news if and when she chooses. If a patient were to sue a physician for dereliction of duty, what would the patient have to prove regarding the actions of the physician? a) Had breached confidentiality b) Did not carry malpractice insurance c) Lacked empathy for the patient d) Did not conform to the acceptable standard of care - (Answer:) Did not conform to the acceptable standard of care (Reason:) Care given by a sound and rational person in the same situation is known as the standard of care. This is the measure against which a defendant's (in this case, they physician) conduct is compared. b) Malpractice, misfeasance, feasance, duty c) Duty to the patient, dereliction of duty, direct cause, damages d) An illegal act, dereliction of duty, malfeasance, damages - (Answer:) Duty to the patient, dereliction of duty, direct cause, damages (Reason:) The 4 elements a patient must prove are as follows: duty- a physician-patient relationship has been established with the physician providing medical service; dereliction or failure to perform a duty; direct cause of harm to the patient by the physician's actions or failure to act; damages directly resulting in harm or loss resulting from the physicians actions. Which of the following is the foundation for developing good listening skills? a) sitting within someones's personal space b) Paraphrasing c) Moderate and clear vocal tone d) Taking notes - (Answer:) Paraphrasing (Reason:) You listen to a speaker and then rephrase the information given you in your own words. This ensures the patient that you have correctly interpreted the information he or she has given you. What is the term for an injury to another person as a result of failure to act when duty is indicated? a) Feasance b) Malfeasance c) Misfeasance d) Nonfeasance - (Answer:) Nonfeasance (Reason:) Nonfeasance is considered malpractice. Feasance means doing an act or performing a duty. Nonfeasance is the failure to act when duty is indicated and that failure results in injury to another. In order to have the best therapeutic communication, what should the medical assistant do? a) Accept each patient's particular attributes b) Overlook educational differences c) Ignore language barriers d) Use local area street slang to address the patient - (Answer:) Accept each patient's particular attributes (Reason:) The medical assistant must be diplomatic and remain nonjudgemental, thus ensuring a positive atmosphere in which the patient will feel comfortable and be compliant. Which of the following actions is a roadblock to therapeutic communication? a) asking closed-ended questions b) Giving advice c) Taking notes d) Paraphrasing - (Answer:) Taking notes (Reason:) As a medical assistant, you should not be giving advice to a patient because that is outside your scope of practice.